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PPN301 Maternal & Child Health > Week 2: Prenatal Concepts/Antepartum Care > Flashcards

Week 2: Prenatal Concepts/Antepartum Care Flashcards

1
Q

The role of progesterone is to:
A) Relax, therefore there is a HIGHER amount during pregnancy
B) Induce contractions, therefore there is a HIGHER amount during pregnancy
C) Relax, therefore there is a LOWER amount during pregnancy
D) Induce contractions, therefore there is a LOWER amount during pregnancy

A

A

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2
Q

The role of estrogen is to:
A) Relax, therefore there is a HIGHER amount during pregnancy
B) Induce contractions, therefore there is a HIGHER amount during pregnancy
C) Relax, therefore there is a LOWER amount during pregnancy
D) Induce contractions, therefore there is a LOWER amount during pregnancy

A

D

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3
Q

What are the time periods of each pregnancy trimester?
1st:
2nd:
3rd:

A

1st trimester: 1-14 weeks
2nd trimester: 14-28 weeks
3rd trimester: 28-40 weeks or delivery

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4
Q

Preconception care is…

A

identifying and modifying risk factors in ppl considering pregnancy to improve their health (medical, behavioural or social factors)

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5
Q

What can reduce the risk of neural tube defects, including anencephaly and spina bifida?
A) Estrogen
B) Folic acid
C) Oxytocin
D) Progesterone

A

B

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6
Q

What can make the ovum healthier / allow the body to produce a healthier ovum that is ready to be fertilized?
A) Progesterone
B) Estrogen
C) Folic acid
D) Oxytocin

A

C

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7
Q

As part of preconception care, what key immunizations should people who plan on getting pregnant have? Select all that apply.
A) Flu shot
B) Diphtheria vaccine
C) Tetanus vaccine
D) Hepatitis B vaccine

A

B, C D

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8
Q

TRUE or FALSE:
If someone recently had their rubella vaccine, it may cause the fetus some problems and therefore the person should wait at least 1 month before getting pregnant.

A

TRUE

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9
Q

The highly sensitive period in pregnancy lasts up to how many weeks?
A) 16 weeks
B) 8 weeks
C) 32 weeks
D) 9 weeks

A

A

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10
Q

The blastocyst contains 2 distinct differentiated embryonic cell types (SATA)
A) Outer trophoblast cells
B) Outer triphoblast cells
C) Inner cell mass
D) Inner medial tissue

A

A, C

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11
Q

What do trophoblast cells form?
A) Fetus
B) Placenta
C) Membranes
D) Embryonic disk

A

B

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12
Q

What does inner cell mass form? SATA
A) Placenta
B) Fetus
C) Fetus membranes
D) Embryonic disk

A

B,C

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13
Q

Trophoblasts are responsible for producing which key hormone in pregnancy?
A) Estrogen
B) Progesterone
C) Human Chorionic Gonadotropin (hCG)
D) Human Colloidal Genesis (hCG)

A

C

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14
Q

All of the following are functions of the placenta except:
A) Nutrition
B) Absorption
C) Respiratory
D) Excretory

A

B

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15
Q

What are the 4 hormones that the placenta secretes to maintain the pregnancy and support the embryo and fetus? SATA
A) hCG
B) Estrogen
C) Progesterone
D) hML
E) hPL

A

A, B, C, E

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16
Q

Name all the functions of placenta (6) BEES RN

A

Barrier, Excretory, Endocrine, Storage, Respiratory, Nutrition

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17
Q

The prenatal period; between conceptions & onset of labour (also called prenatal/antenatal)

A

Antepartum

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18
Q

The period from onset of true labour to delivery of baby & placenta (**inside delivery room)

A

Intrapartum

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19
Q

6-week period between delivery of placenta & membranes and time body returns to nonpregnant state

A

Postpartum

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20
Q

Name the 3 Periods of Pregnancy (PIA backwards…)

A

Antepartum (conception-onset of labour)
Intrapartum (inside delivery room)
Postpartum

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21
Q

What are some common “signs” of the first trimester of pregnancy? (3)

A
  • vomiting (ty progesterone)
  • heart burn
  • frequent urination
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22
Q

Which trimester does discomfort subside in?

A

2nd trimester

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23
Q

GTPAL stands for:

A

G: Gravidity (pregnancy; # of pregnancies person has had)
T: Term (week 37 - week 40 + 6 days)
P: Preterm (week 20 - week 36 + 6 days)
A: Abortions (# of abortions (miscarriages)) person has had
L: Living children

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24
Q

A person is in their third pregnancy. They had a baby who was born at 28 weeks and is now three-years old. They had a previous abortion at 12 weeks. Using GTPAL this person’s current status would be:
A) G2 T1 P1 A1 L2
B) G3 T0 P1 A1 L1
C) G2 T1 P0 A1 L1
D) G3 T2 P1 A1 L1

A

B

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25
Q

The obstetrical term that means “pregnancy” is:
A) Nulligravida
B) Gravida
C) Gravidity
D) Primigravida

A

C

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26
Q

The obstetrical term that means “a person who is pregnant” is:
A) Gravida
B) Gravidity
C) Parity
D) Primipara

A

A

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27
Q

The obstetrical term that means “a person who has never been pregnant and is not currently pregnant” is:
A) Primigravida
B) Multigravida
C) Multipara
D) Nulligravida

A

D

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28
Q

The obstetrical term that means “a person who is pregnant for the first time” is:
A) Primigravida
B) Parity
C) Primipara
D) Nullipara

A

A

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29
Q

What is gestation?

A

the period of time between conception and birth

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30
Q

The period of time in weeks for a preterm pregnancy is:

A

20 weeks - 36 weeks + 6 days

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31
Q

The period of time in weeks for a term pregnancy is:

A

37 weeks - 40 weeks + 6 days

32
Q

What chemical is the earliest biochemical marker of pregnancy?

A

Human Chorionic Gonadotropin (hCG)

33
Q

Which of the following are presumptive signs of pregnancy? SATA
A) Enlargement of abdomen
B) Cessation of menses
C) Nausea and vomiting
D) Brest/chest tenderness
E) Frequent urination

A

B C D E

34
Q

Which of the following are presumptive signs of pregnancy? SATA
A) Skin changes
B) Skin changes (striae, increased pigment)
C) Quickening
D) Fatigue
E) Positive pregnancy test

A

A C D

35
Q

Which of the following are probable signs of pregnancy? SATA
A) Enlargement of abdomen
B) Fetal heart is heard
C) Quickening
D) Cessation of menses
E) Nausea and vomiting

A

A

36
Q

Which of the following are probable signs of pregnancy? SATA
A) Braxton Hicks
B) Blackwell Hicks
C) Hegar’s sign
D) Goodell’s sign
E) Chadwick’s sign
F) Harley’s sign
G) Conner’s sign

A

A C D E

37
Q

When does Braxton Hicks occur?
A) Beginning of 1st trimester
B) End of 1st trimester
C) Beginning of 2nd trimester
D) End of 2nd trimester

A

B

38
Q

Hegar’s sign is:

A

Palpable softening of lower uterine segment (6 weeks)

39
Q

Goodell’s sign is:

A

Softening of cervix (8 weeks)

40
Q

Chadwick’s sign is:

A

Blue violet hue from congestion on vulva, vagina, cervix (especially vaginal opening) (6-8 weeks)

41
Q

Positive signs of pregnancy include:
A) Chadwick’s sign
B) Fetal heart is heard
C) Goodell’s sign
D) Fetal movement felt by examiner (18-20 weeks)
E) Visualization of fetus through ultrasound (5-6 weeks)

A

B D E

42
Q

A 35 year old female suspects she may be pregnant. The physician notes in the chart that the lower uterine segment is soft. As the nurse you know this is known as:
A) Ballottement
B) Hegar’s Sign
C) Goodell’s Sign
D) Chadwick’s Sign

A

B

43
Q

In terms of adaptations to pregnancy, what happens to the uterus? SATA
A) Hegar’s sign
B) Chadwick’s sign
C) Changes in size, shape, and position
D) Cervical changes (Goodell’s sign)
E) Cervical changes (Braxton Hicks)

A

A C D

44
Q

Ballottement is best described as:
A) Ball inside a box
B) Ball inside a pocket
C) Nail inside a wall
D) Key inside a key hole

A

B

45
Q

Ballottement is:

A

Changes related to fetal presence (ball inside a pocket)

46
Q

A 35-year-old female suspects she may be pregnant. The physician notes in the chart that the lower uterine segment is soft. As the nurse, you know this is known as:
A) Ballottement
B) Hegar’s Sign
C) Goodell’s Sign
D) Chadwick’s Sign

A

B

47
Q

Striae gradarium is:

A

Stretch marks

48
Q

EDB stands for:

A

Estimated date of birth

49
Q

What is the most accurate method to determine EDB?
A) Nagele’s rule
B) 2nd trimester ultrasound
C) 1st trimester ultrasound
D) Nigel’s Rule

A

C

50
Q

How do you calculate Nagele’s Rule?

A

Add 7 days to the first day of the last menstrual period (LMP) and count forward 9 months

51
Q

Joy’s last menstrual period was on January 7, 2022. Calculate the estimated date of birth using Nagele’s rule.

A

October 14, 2022

52
Q

What is fundal height?

A

measures the size of the uterus from the pubic symphysis to the fundas (top of uterus).

Between 22-34 weeks gestational age

53
Q

Quickening is:

A

awareness of fetal movements by the pregnant person (16-22 weeks gestation)

54
Q

Oxytocin:

A

induces uterine contractions in labour
“letdown” reflex during lactation

55
Q

Prolactin:

A

essential for milk production

56
Q

Which of the following is true about maternal nutrition? SATA.
A) Social determinants of health have an impact on dietary intake
B) Good nutrition before/during pregnancy is an important preventive measure
C) Social determinants of health do not have an impact on dietary intake
D) Good nutrition does not matter before pregnancy, it only matters during pregnancy

A

A, B

57
Q

A BMI of less than _____ is considered underweight.

A

18.5

58
Q

A normal weight BMI is between:

A

18.5 - 24.9

59
Q

An overweight BMI is between:

A

25 - 29.9

60
Q

An obese BMI is:

A

30+

61
Q

If a woman has a BMI of 19 pre-pregnancy, how much weight should she gain during pregnancy?
A) 5-9 kg (11-20 lbs)
B) 12.5 - 18 kg (28-40 lbs)
C) 11.5 - 16 kg (25-35 lbs)
D) 7 - 11.5 kg (15-25 lbs)

A

C

62
Q

If a person has a BMI of 18.2 pre-pregnancy, how much weight, in kg, should they gain during pregnancy?

A

12.5 - 18 kg

63
Q

A woman with a BMI of 23 should gain how much weight (kg) during pregnancy?

A

11.5 - 16 kg

64
Q

Pregnant women should visit their healthcare provider once per month until ____ weeks
A) 28
B) 26
C) 20
D) 36

A

A

65
Q

A pregnant person should start to visit their healthcare provider every 2 weeks during:
A) weeks 14 - 28
B) weeks 28 - 36
C) weeks 28 - 40
D) weeks 37 - 40

A

B

66
Q

A pregnant person should start to visit their healthcare provider every week during:
A) weeks 37 - 40
B) weeks 36 - 40
C) weeks 28 - 36
D) weeks 30 - 40

A

A

67
Q

TRUE or FALSE:
A high risk pregnancy does not require more frequent visits

A

FALSE

68
Q

Which of the following are screening tests that occur in the 2nd trimester? SATA
A) ABO & RH typing
B) CBC / HIV
C) Quadruple screen: blood test
D) Ultrasound for nuchal translucency (NT)
E) Ultrasound to assess gestational age, growth, abnormalities, heart activity

A

C, E

69
Q

In what weeks does a quadruple screen: blood test occur?
A) 2nd trimester: 14 - 28 weeks
B) 2nd trimester: 15 - 20 weeks
C) 2nd trimester: 14 - 18 weeks
D) 2nd trimester: 20 - 25 weeks

A

B

70
Q

In what weeks does an ultrasound for nuchal translucency (NT) occur?
A) 1st trimester: 11 - 14 weeks
B) 1st trimester: 8 - 12 weeks
C) 2nd trimester: 14 - 18 weeks
D) 2nd trimester: 14 - 20 weeks

A

A

71
Q

What screening tests would occur in the 1st trimester? SATA
A) Urine culture
B) CBC / HIV
C) Ultrasound to assess gestational age, growth, abnormalities, heart activity
D) Ultrasound for nuchal translucency (NT), combined with serum screening for free B-hCG and PAPP-A
E) Rubella titre

A

A, B, D, E

72
Q

Amniocentesis is:

A

prenatal diagnosis (dx) of genetic disorders or congenital anomalies

73
Q

Which of the following are screening tests that occur in the 3rd trimester? SATA
A) Aminiocentesis
B) Gestational diabetes
C) Group B streptococcus (rectal & vaginal swabs)
D) Fetal movement counts
E) Non-stress tests
F) Contraction stress test

A

B, C, D, E, F

74
Q

What is the goal of perinatal education?

A

To assist individual and family to make informed, safe decisions about pregnancy, birth, and early parenthood

75
Q

A birth plan includes: (5)

A
  1. info about where person wants to give birth
  2. who will be at the birth
  3. pain relief?
  4. medical interventions welcomed/not welcomed?
  5. what person wants to happen immediately after the birth with baby
76
Q

What are the 6 practices for supporting culturally safe, humble, trauma-informed perinatal care? CARTSS

A
  1. cultural safety/humility
  2. anti-indigenous racism
  3. respect
  4. trust through relationship
  5. self determination
  6. strength and resilience based practice

PPN301 Maternal & Child Health (8 decks)

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