Online Test Bank Practice Questions

Question 1

The two primary functions of the ovary are:
a) Normal female development and sex hormone release
b) Ovulation and internal pelvic support
c) Sexual response and ovulation
d) Ovulation and hormone production

Answer 1

D

Question 2

The uterus is a muscular, pear-shaped organ that is responsible for:
a. Cyclic menstruation
b. Fertilization
c. Sex hormone production
d. Sexual arousal

Answer 2

A

Question 3

The nurse guides a woman to the examination room and asks her to remove her clothes and put on an examination gown with the front open. The woman states, “I have special undergarments that I do not remove for religious reasons”. The most appropriate response from the nurse would be:
a. You can’t have an examination without removing all your clothes
b. I’ll ask the doctor to modify the examination
c. Tell me about your undergarments. I’ll explain the examination procedure, and then we can discuss how you can have your examination comfortably
d. What? I’ve never heard of such a thing! That sounds different and strange

Answer 3

C

Question 4

A 62-year-old woman has not been to the clinic for an annual examination for 5 years. The recent death of her husband reminded her that she should come for a visit. Her family doctor has retired, and she is going to see the women’s health nurse practitioner for her visit. To facilitate a positive health care experience, the nurse should:
a. Remind the woman that she is long overdue for her examination and that she should come in annually
b. Listen carefully and allow extra time for this woman’s health history interview
c. Reassure the woman that a nurse practitioner is just as good as her old doctor
d. Encourage the woman to talk about the death of her husband and her fears about her own death

Answer 4

B

Question 5

Which test used to diagnose the basis of infertility is done during the luteal or secretory phase of the menstrual cycle?
a. Hysterosalpingogram
b. Endometrial biopsy
c. Laparoscopy
d. Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) level

Answer 5

B

Question 6

A man smokes two packs of cigarettes a day. He wants to know if smoking is contributing to the difficulty he and his wife are having getting pregnant. The nurse’s most appropriate response is:
a. Your sperm count seems to be okay in the first semen analysis
b. Only marijuana cigarettes affect sperm count
c. Smoking can give you lung cancer, even though it has no effect on sperm
d. Smoking can reduce the quality of your sperm

Answer 6

D

Question 7

A couple comes in for an infertility workup, having attempted to get pregnant for 2 years. The woman, 37, has always had irregular menstrual cycles but is otherwise healthy. The man has fathered two children from a previous marriage and had a vasectomy reversal 2 years ago. The man has had two normal semen analyses, but the sperm seem to be clumped together. What additional test is needed?

a. Testicular biopsy
b. Antisperm antibodies
c. Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) level
d. Examination for testicular infection

Answer 7

C

Question 8

A woman inquires about herbal alternative methods for improving fertility. Which statement by the nurse is the most appropriate when instructing the client in which herbal preparations to avoid while trying to conceive?

a. You should avoid nettle leaf, dong quai, and vitamin E while you are trying to get pregnant.
b. You may want to avoid licorice root, lavender, fennel, sage, and thyme while you are trying to conceive.
c. You should not take anything with vitamin E, calcium, or magnesium. They will make you infertile.
d. Herbs have no bearing on fertility

Answer 8

B

Question 9

In vitro fertilization-embryo transfer (IVF-ET) is a common approach for women with blocked fallopian tubes or unexplained infertility and for men with very low sperm counts. A husband and wife have arrived for their preprocedural interview. The husband asks the nurse to explain what the procedure entails. The nurses most appropriate response is:

a. IVF-ET is a type of assisted reproductive therapy that involves collecting eggs from your wifes ovaries, fertilizing them in the laboratory with your sperm, and transferring the embryo to her uterus.
b. A donor embryo will be transferred into your wifes uterus.
c. Donor sperm will be used to inseminate your wife.
d. Don’t worry about the technical stuff; that’s what we are here for

Answer 9

A

Question 10

With regard to the assessment of female, male, and couple infertility, nurses should be aware that:
a. The couples religious, cultural, and ethnic backgrounds provide emotional clutter that does not affect the clinical scientific diagnosis.
b. The investigation takes 3 to 4 months and a significant financial investment.
c.The woman is assessed first; if she is not the problem, the male partner is analyzed.
d.Semen analysis is for men; the postcoital test is for women

Answer 10

B

Question 11

A woman has chosen the calendar method of conception control. During the assessment process, it is most important that the nurse:

a.Obtain a history of menstrual cycle lengths for the past 6 to 12 months.
b.Determine the clients weight gain and loss pattern for the previous year.
c.Examine skin pigmentation and hair texture for hormonal change
d.Explore the clients previous experiences with conception control.

Answer 11

A

Question 12

A woman is using the basal body temperature (BBT) method of contraception. She calls the clinic and tells the nurse, “My period is due in a few days, and my temperature has not gone up”. The nurse’s most appropriate response is:

a.This probably means that you’re pregnant.
b.Dont worry; its probably nothing.
c.Have you been sick this month?
d.You probably didnt ovulate during this cycle.

Answer 12

D

Question 13

A married couple is discussing alternatives for pregnancy prevention and has asked about fertility awareness methods (FAMs). The nurses most appropriate reply is:

a. They’re not very effective, and its very likely you’ll get pregnant.
b. They can be effective for many couples, but they require motivation.
c. These methods have a few advantages and several health risks.
d. You would be much safer going on the pill and not having to worry

Answer 13

B

Question 14

A woman who has a seizure disorder and takes barbiturates and phenytoin sodium daily asks the nurse about the pill as a contraceptive choice. The nurses most appropriate response would be:

a. This is a highly effective method, but it has some side effects.
b. Your current medications will reduce the effectiveness of the pill.
c. The pill will reduce the effectiveness of your seizure medication.
d. This is a good choice for a woman of your age and personal history

Answer 14

B

Question 15

Injectable progestins (DMPA, Depo-Provera) are a good contraceptive choice for women who:

a. Want menstrual regularity and predictability.
b. Have a history of thrombotic problems or breast cancer.
c. Have difficulty remembering to take oral contraceptives daily.
d. Are homeless or mobile and rarely receive health care

Answer 15

C

Advantages of DMPA include a contraceptive effectiveness comparable to that of combined oral contraceptives with the requirement of only four injections a year. Disadvantages of injectable progestins are prolonged amenorrhea (NO PERIOD) and uterine bleeding. Use of injectable progestin carries an increased risk of venous thrombosis and thromboembolism. To be effective, DMPA injections must be administered every 11 to 13 weeks. Access to health care is necessary to prevent pregnancy or potential complications

Question 16

Which contraceptive method best protects against sexually transmitted infections (STIs) and human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)?
a. Periodic abstinence
b. Barrier methods
c. Hormonal methods
d. They all offer about the same protection

Answer 16

B

ex. condoms

Question 17

Which of the following statements is the most complete and accurate description of medical abortions?

a. They are performed only for maternal health.
b. They can be achieved through surgical procedures or with drugs.
c. They are mostly performed in the second trimester.
d. They can be either elective or therapeutic.

Answer 17

D

Question 18

You are a maternal-newborn nurse caring for a mother who just delivered a baby born with Down syndrome. What nursing diagnosis would be the most essential in caring for the mother of this infant?

a. Disturbed body image
b. Interrupted family processes
c. Anxiety
d. Risk for injury

Answer 18

B

Question 19

With regard to the estimation and interpretation of the recurrence of risks for genetic disorders, nurses should be aware that:

a. With a dominant disorder, the likelihood of the second child also having the condition is 100%.
b. An autosomal recessive disease carries a one in eight risk of the second child also having the disorder.
c. Disorders involving maternal ingestion of drugs carry a one in four chance of being repeated in the second child.
d. The risk factor remains the same no matter how many affected children are already in the family

Answer 19

D

Question 20

A woman’s cousin gave birth to an infant with a congenital heart anomaly. The woman asks the nurse when such anomalies occur during development. Which response by the nurse is most accurate?

a. We don’t really know when such defects occur.
b. It depends on what caused the defect.
c. They occur between the third and fifth weeks of development.
d. They usually occur in the first 2 weeks of development

Answer 20

C

The cardiovascular system is the first organ system to function in the developing human. Blood vessel and blood formation begins in the third week, and the heart is developmentally complete in the fifth week

Question 21

A pregnant woman at 25 weeks gestation tells the nurse that she dropped a pan last week and her baby jumped at the noise. Which response by the nurse is most accurate?

a. That must have been a coincidence; babies cant respond like that.
b. The fetus is demonstrating the aural reflex.
c. Babies respond to sound starting at about 24 weeks of gestation.
d. Let me know if it happens again; we need to report that to your midwife

Answer 21

C

Question 22

At approximately _____ weeks of gestation, lecithin is forming on the alveolar surfaces, the eyelids open, and the fetus measures approximately 27 cm crown to rump and weighs approximately 1110 g.

a.20
c.28
b.24
d.30

Answer 22

C

Question 23

The nurse caring for the labouring woman should know that meconium is produced by:

a. Fetal intestines.
c. Amniotic fluid.
b. Fetal kidneys.
d. The placenta

Answer 23

A

As the fetus nears term, fetal waste products accumulate in the intestines as dark green-to-black, tarry meconium

Question 24

A woman asks the nurse, “What protects my baby’s umbilical cord from being squashed while the baby is inside of me?”. The nurse’s best response is:

a. Your baby’s umbilical cord is surrounded by connective tissue called Wharton jelly, which prevents compression of the blood vessels and ensures continued nourishment of your baby.
b. Your baby’s umbilical floats around in blood anyway.
c. You don’t need to worry about things like that.
d. The umbilical cord is a group of blood vessels that are very well protected by the placenta

Answer 24

A

Question 25

The _____ is/are responsible for oxygen and carbon dioxide transport to and from the maternal bloodstream.

a. Decidua basalis
c. Germ layer
b. Blastocyst
d. Chorionic villi

Answer 25

D

Question 26

A woman who is 8 months pregnant asks the nurse, “Does my baby have any antibodies to fight infection?” The most appropriate response by the nurse is:

a. Your baby has all the immune globulins necessary: IgG, IgM, and IgA.
b. Your baby won’t receive any antibodies until he is born and you breastfeed him
c. Your baby does not have any antibodies to fight infection.
d. Your baby has IgG and IgM

Answer 26

D

During the third trimester, the only immune globulins that crosses the placenta, IgG, provides passive acquired immunity to specific bacterial toxins. The fetus produces IgM by the end of the first trimester. IgA is not produced by the baby. By the third trimester, the fetus has IgG and IgM. Breastfeeding supplies the baby with IgA.

Question 27

Sally comes in for her first prenatal examination. This is her first child. She asks you (the nurse), “How does my baby get air inside my uterus?” The correct response is:

a. The baby’s lungs work in utero to exchange oxygen and carbon dioxide.
b. The baby absorbs oxygen from your blood system.
c. The placenta provides oxygen to the baby and excretes carbon dioxide into your bloodstream.
d. The placenta delivers oxygen-rich blood through the umbilical artery to the baby’s abdomen

Answer 27

C

Question 28

A pregnant woman states that her last
menstrual period began on August 13, 2017. What is her expected date of birth?
a) August 20, 2018
b) May 13, 2018
c) May 20, 2018
d) April 13, 2017

Answer 28

C

Question 29

Which of the following best describes a woman who has been pregnant 3 times, with her first pregnancy resulting in twins, the second and third resulting in singletons?
a) Gravida 3
b) Gravida 4
c) Gravida 5

Answer 29

A

Question 30

A client asks, “Can my partner and I still engage in sexual intercourse while I’m
pregnant?” The nurse’s response is based on which of the following?
a) Throughout the pregnancy, coitus interruptus is the preferred method for
sexual activity.
b) Although sexual desire may change, intercourse is safe during an
uncomplicated pregnancy.
c) Engaging in intercourse must be avoided until the client is at least 16 weeks pregnant.
d) The couple should refrain from engaging in sexual intercourse during the last trimester.

Answer 30

B

Question 31

Which of the following describes a
woman who had a stillborn delivery at 35
weeks and an abortion at 6 weeks?
a) G2 P2
b) G1 P1
c) G2 P1
d) G1 P2

Answer 31

C

Question 32

When explaining to a pregnant client about the need to take supplemental vitamins with iron during her pregnancy, the nurse would instruct the client to take the iron with which of the following to promote maximum absorption?
a) Milk.
b) Tea.
c) Hot chocolate.
d) Orange juice

Answer 32

D

The nurse would instruct the pregnant client to take the iron supplement with a source of vitamin C, such as orange juice, to promote maximum absorption. Vitamin C helps the body absorb iron more efficiently. Milk, tea, and hot chocolate can decrease the absorption of iron and should be avoided when taking iron supplements.

Question 33

A client asks the nurse why vitamin C intake is so important during pregnancy. Which of the following would be the nurse’s best response?
a) “Vitamin C is required to promote blood clot and collagen formation.”
b) “Supplemental vitamin C in large doses can prevent neural tube defects.”
c) “Eating moderate amounts of foods high in vitamin C helps metabolize
fats and carbohydrates.”
d) “Studies have shown that vitamin C helps the growth of fetal bones.”

Answer 33

A

Question 34

A 36-year-old primigravida at 22 weeks’ gestation, experiencing no complications to date, is seen in the nurse midwife’s office for a routine visit. While lying supine on the examination table, she tells the nurse that she is feeling dizzy. After observing that the client is pale and perspiring freely, which of the following would the nurse do first?
a) Turn the client onto her left side.
b) Obtain the client’s pulse and blood pressure.
c) Assess the client for vaginal spotting.
d) Lower the client’s head between her knee

Answer 34

A

Question 35

The nurse is taking an initial history of a prenatal client. Which of the following, if detected by the nurse practitioner, would indicate a positive, or diagnostic sign of pregnancy?
A. Positive pregnancy test
B. Goodell’s sign
C. Uterine enlargement and amenorrhea
D. Fetal heartbeat with a Doppler

Answer 35

D

Question 36

A patient reports excessive vomiting in the first trimester of the pregnancy, which has resulted in nutritional deficiency and weight loss. The urinalysis report of the patient indicates ketonuria. Which disorder does the patient have?
A. Preeclampsia
B. Hyperthyroid disorder
C. Gestational hypertension
D. Hyperemesis gravidarum

Answer 36

D

Question 37

After being rehydrated in the emergency department following vomiting, a 24-year-old primipara in her 18th week of pregnancy is at home and is to rest at home for the next two days and take in small but frequent fluids and food as possible. Discharge teaching at the
hospital by the nurse has been effective if the patient makes which statement?

A. “I’m going to eat five to six small servings per day, which contain such foods and fluids as
tea, crackers, or a few bites of baked potato.”
B. “A strip of bacon and a fried egg will taste good as long as I eat them slowly.”
C. “As long as I eat small amounts and allow enough time for digestion, I can eat almost anything, like barbequed chicken or spaghetti.”
D. “I’m going to stay only on clear fluids for the next 24 hours and then add dairy products like eggs and milk.”

Answer 37

A

Question 38

The nurse is developing a teaching plan for a patient who is 8 weeks pregnant. The nurse should tell the patient that she can expect to feel the fetus move (quickening) at which time?
A. Between 10 and 12 weeks’ gestation
B. Between 16 and 20 weeks’ gestation
C. Between 21 and 23 weeks’ gestation
D. Between 24 and 26 weeks’ gestation

Answer 38

B

Question 39

Which of the following patients would be at high risk of developing preeclampsia? Select all that apply.
A. A patient who is pregnant with her 3rd child
B. A patient who is 32 weeks pregnant
C. A patient who is 40 yrs old
D. A patient who is overweight
E. A patient who is pregnant with twins

Answer 39

C, D, E

Question 40

A blunt abdominal trauma causes fetal hemorrhage in a 38-week pregnant patient. The nurse learns that the patient is Rh-negative. What action does the nurse take?
A. Initiate magnesium sulfate per protocol.
B. Administer oxytocin (pitocin).
C. Administer prescribed Rho (D) immunoglobulin.
D. Prepare the patient for magnetic resonance imaging (MRI)

Answer 40

C

Question 41

A patient with pregnancy-induced hypertension probably exhibits which of the following symptoms?
A. Proteinuria, headaches, vaginal bleeding
B. Headaches, double vision, vaginal bleeding
C. Proteinuria, headaches, double vision
D. Proteinuria, double vision, uterine contractions

Answer 41

C

Question 42

A client at 28 weeks gestation is admitted to the labor and birth unit. Which test would most likely be used to assess the client’s comprehensive fetal status?
A. Ultrasound for physical structure
B. Nonstress test (NST)
C. Biophysical profile (BPP)
D. Amniocentesis

Answer 42

C

Question 43

A primigravida in active labor is about 9 days post-term. The client desires a bilateral pudendal block anesthesia before delivery. After the nurse explains this type of anesthesia to the client, which of the following locations identified by the client as the area of relief would
indicate to the nurse that the teaching was effective?
A. Back
B. Abdomen
C. Fundus
D. Perineum

Answer 43

D

Question 44

A postpartum patient was in labor for 30 hours and had ruptured membranes for 24 hours. For which of the following would the nurse be alert?
A. chorioamnionitis
B. Endometriosis
C. Salpingitis
D. Pelvic thrombophlebitis

Answer 44

A

Chorioamnionitis is a bacterial infection that occurs when the membranes surrounding the fetus are ruptured for an extended period, such as during prolonged labour. The risk of infection increases as the length of time from rupture to delivery increases. Symptoms of chorioamnionitis may include fever, uterine tenderness, foul-smelling discharge, and fetal tachycardia. Treatment usually involves antibiotics and, in some cases, delivery of the baby. Endometriosis, salpingitis, and pelvic thrombophlebitis are separate conditions that are not typically associated with prolonged labor or ruptured membranes

Question 45

The nurse plans to instruct the postpartum client about methods to prevent breast engorgement. Which of the following measures would the nurse include in the teaching plan?
A. Feeding the neonate a maximum of 5 minutes per side on the first day
B. Wearing a supportive brassiere with nipple shields
C. Breast-feeding the neonate at frequent intervals
D. Decreasing fluid intake for the first 24 to 48 hours

Answer 45

C

Breastfeeding stimulates milk production and helps to prevent engorgement. The baby should be fed whenever he or she shows signs of hunger, usually every 2-3 hours in the first few weeks of life. It is important to ensure that the baby is latching on correctly and feeding effectively to prevent sore nipples and other breastfeeding problems. Wearing a supportive bra can also help prevent engorgement, but nipple shields are not typically recommended unless there is a specific problem with nipple soreness or damage. Limiting feeding time or decreasing fluid intake can actually increase the risk of engorgement and is not recommended

Question 46

Normal lochial findings in the first 24 hours post-delivery include:
A. Bright red blood
B. Large clots or tissue fragments
C. A foul odour
D. The complete absence of lochia

Answer 46

A

Lochia is the term used to describe the vaginal discharge that occurs after childbirth as the uterus sheds its lining. In the first 24 hours after delivery, the lochia is typically bright red and may contain small clots or fragments of tissue. The amount of lochia may vary from woman to woman, but it is generally moderate to heavy in the first few days after delivery before gradually tapering off over the next few weeks. A foul odor or the presence of large clots or tissue fragments may indicate an infection or other complication and should be reported to a healthcare provider. The complete absence of lochia would be abnormal and could indicate a retained placenta or other complication.

Question 47

A pregnant person has two living children. Their first pregnancy ended in a stillbirth at 32 weeks gestation, her second pregnancy ended with the birth of her daughter at 35 weeks, her third ended with the birth of her son at 41 weeks. How would this woman’s obstetric history be recorded using GTPAL system?
a) G4 T1 P2 A0 L2
b) G3 T1 P2 A0 L2
c) G4 T0 P1 A1 L2
d) G3 T2 P2 A0 L2

Answer 47

B

Question 48

A nurse works in a small northern Indigenous community. Four teens are pregnant and due to deliver in three to six months. What complication are teens most at risk for developing in the first six weeks postpartum?
a) Shock
b) Hemorrhage
c) Postpartum depression
d) Deep vein thrombosis

Answer 48

C

Question 49

During a prenatal appointment, a client who is 5-months pregnant states “I’m worried because a week ago, a dark line started to appear on my belly. Is this normal?” What is the most appropriate response from the CHN?
a) Yes, this is normal. This is called cholasma which is caused by hormonal changes during pregnancy.
b) Yes, this is normal. This is called linea nigra which is caused by hormonal changes during pregnancy.
c) Yes, this normal and occurs in all pregnancies. It is caused by hormonal changes and will fade in a few weeks.
d) No, this is not a normal sign. I will contact your doctor right away to let them know about this change.

Answer 49

B

Question 50

A nurse is conducting a postpartum assessment on a client who gave birth 4 hours ago. Which of the following would be assessed? Select all that apply.
a) Bleeding
b) Fundus
c) Pain
d) Diet
e) Episiotomy

Answer 50

A, B, C

Question 51

With regard to the development of the respiratory system, maternity nurses should be understand that:

a. The respiratory system does not begin developing until after the embryonic stage.

b. The infants lungs are considered mature when the lecithin/sphingomyelin (L/S) ratio is 1:1, at about 32 weeks.

c. Maternal hypertension can reduce maternal-placental blood flow, accelerating lung maturity.

d. Fetal respiratory movements are not visible on ultrasound scans until at least 16 weeks

Answer 51

C

Question 52

Many parents-to-be have questions about multiple births. Maternity nurses should be able to tell them that:

a. Twinning and other multiple births are increasing because of the use of fertility drugs and delayed childbearing.

b. Dizygotic twins (two fertilized ova) have the potential to be conjoined twins.

c. Identical twins are more common in white families.

d. Fraternal twins are same gender, usually male

Answer 52

A

Question 53

Some of the embryos intestines remain within the umbilical cord during the embryonic period because the:

a. Umbilical cord is much larger at this time than it will be at the end of pregnancy.

b. Intestines begin their development within the umbilical cord.

c. Nutrient content of the blood is higher in this location.

d. Abdomen is too small to contain all the organs while they are developing

Answer 53

D

Question 54

A new mother asks the nurse about the white substance covering her infant. The nurse explains that the
purpose of vernix caseosa is to:

a.Protect the fetal skin from amniotic fluid.

b. Promote normal peripheral nervous system development.

c. Allow transport of oxygen and nutrients across the amnion.

d. Regulate fetal temperature

Answer 54

A

Question 55

A woman who is 16 weeks pregnant asks the nurse, Is it possible to tell by ultrasound if the baby is a boy or girl yet? The best answer is:

a. A babys sex is determined as soon as conception occurs.

b. The baby has developed enough that we can determine the sex by examining the genitals through ultrasound.

c. Boys and girls look alike until about 20 weeks after conception, and then they begin to look different.

d. It might be possible to determine your babys sex, but the external organs look very similar right now

Answer 55

B