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MS1 FOM > Week 2 - complete > Flashcards

Week 2 - complete Flashcards

1
Q

What is the difference between statistical significance and clinical significance

A

Stats may not be clinical significant

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2
Q

How do you calculate clinical value?

A

CV = therapeutic effect / cost

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3
Q

What is PICO model used for?

A

Used to assess the relevance of a clinical study to determine if its relevant to a case/patient

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4
Q

What does PICO stand for?

A

P: patient/population/problem
I: intervention
C: comparison/control
O: outcome

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5
Q

What are cells made up of?

A

Macro and micromolecules

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6
Q

What do enzymes do?

A

Lower Ea of metabolic process to increase the speed

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7
Q

What factor can affect the speed of a chemical reaciton?

A

increased [substrate] = higher rate of product formation

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8
Q

What do homeostatic control systems involve?

A

sensors, integrating centers, and effectors

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9
Q

What are 4 characteristics of homeostatic control systems?

A

Competition, redundancy, priority, and adaptability

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10
Q

Are positive feedback loops homeostatic? Why?

A

They are NOT homeostatic because the response REINFORCES the stimulus

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11
Q

What is a way to remember ions in fluid in body compartments?

A

Salty banana: K inside, Na Cl outside

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12
Q

What % of body weight is total body water?

A

60%

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13
Q

what proportion of TBW is ICF and ECF?

A

ICF: 2/3 of TBW
ECF: 1/3 of TBW

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14
Q

What ions are in ICF vs ECF

A

ICF: rich in K+
ECF: rich in Na, Cl, Ca

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15
Q

What fractions make up ECF? In what proportions?

A

ECF = interstitial fluid (75%) and plasma (25%)

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16
Q

What are some diseases that involve issues with ions?

A

Dehydration, Addison’s disease, diabetes insipidus

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17
Q

What are some main functions of ions in the body?

A

Maintain tissue functions: RMP, muscle contraction, nutrient absorption

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18
Q

What is osmosis?

A

Movement of water down its concentration gradient

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19
Q

What is osmolality vs osmolarity

A

osmolality: number of osmols/kg water
osmolarity: number of osmols/L solution

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20
Q

What is the osmolality of ECF?

A

~290mOsM

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21
Q

What is tonicity?

A

THe ability of a solution to cause osmosis across a biological membrane

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22
Q

What body fraction is affected by changes in osmolarity FIRST?

A

ECF first, which causes ICF to change

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23
Q

Free water loss results in WHAT to ICF/ECF volume and osmolarity?

A

ECF becomes hyperosmotic/hypetonic -> cell osmolality increases but ICF and ECF dehydrate

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24
Q

Water intoxication results in what for ICF and ECF?

A

ECF hypoosmotic/hypotonic -> ICF and ECF swell but osmolality decreases

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25
Q

For water overload or loss cases, what should you prescribe? why?

A

Hypo or hyperTONIC solutions, not hypo/hyperOSMOTIC solutions: because you need the solution to trigger changes in osmosis across the membranes

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26
Q

Solute loss triggers what in ICF and ECF?

A

ECF osmolality decreases -> water enters ICF -> ICF swells and ECF dehydrates

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27
Q

What does solute load trigger for ICF and ECF?

A

ECF osmolality increases -> H2O leaves ICF -> osmolality inc in both but ICF volume shrinks

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28
Q

Describe what cellular changes are induced by excess diarrhea/vomiting?

A

Fluid loss results in hypernatremia -> increase cell excitability -> seizures

Can also result in loss of electrolytes -> K+ shift from ICF to ECF -> decrease cell excitability -> fatigue

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29
Q

What are 3 types of cellular transport?

A

Simple diffusion, facilitated diffusion, active transport

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30
Q

What molecules use simple diffusion?

A

small lipophilic molecules, O2, CO2, steroid hormones, alcohol

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31
Q

What molecules use facilitated diffusion?

A

Large polar molecules

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32
Q

What 4 factors affect diffusion across bio membranes?

A

concentration gradient
lipid solubility
molecular size
membrane area

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33
Q

What are 2 types of active transport? Describe

A

Primary and secondary

Primary: uses ATP directly
Secondary: uses [gradient] generated from primary transport

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34
Q

What are 3 subtypes of secondary active transport? Describe

A

Uniport: one molecule moves
Symport: two molecules move in same direction
Antiport: two molecules move in opposite directions

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35
Q

What are 3 characteristics of carrier-mediated transport?

A

slower
prone to competition
limited by saturation

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36
Q

What are 5 types of cell signaling?

A

Autocrine
Paracrine
Cell-cell contract
Synaptic
Endocrine

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37
Q

Describe autocrine signaling

A

Within cell

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38
Q

Describe paracrine signaling

A

Chemical messengers, short distance

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39
Q

Describe cell-cell contact signaling

A

Intracellular mediators diffuse via gap junctions

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40
Q

What are 2 stains used in histology?

A

Hematoxylin and Eosin

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41
Q

Compare hematoxilyn vs eosin staining

A

Hematoxylin: basic stain that stains acids blue
Eosin: acidic stain that stains bases pink

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42
Q

What are 2 classifications of junctional complexes?

A

Anchoring junctions and communicating junctions

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43
Q

What are 4 types of anchoring junctions

A

Tight junctions, adherens junctions, desmosomes, hemidesmosomes

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44
Q

What is the function of tight junctions? Where are they located?

A

Barrier. Located at apical surface

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45
Q

What proteins are involved in tight junctions?

A

JAMs, claudins, occludins, F-actin

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46
Q

What are the 3 main functions of tight junctions

A

fence, barrier, signal transduction

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47
Q

What are adherens junctions for?

A

cell-cell adhesion

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48
Q

What are desmosomes for?

A

Cell-cell adhesions

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49
Q

What proteins are involved in adherens junctions vs desmosomes?

A

Adherens junctions: cadherins
Desmosomes: cadherins and intermediate filaments

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50
Q

What are hemidesmosomes for?

A

Cell basement membrane adhesion

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51
Q

Describe location of tight junctions, adherens junctions, desmosomes, and hemidesmosomes in cells?

A

Tight junctions: apical surface
Adherens and desmosomes: between cells (sides)
Hemidesmosomes: cell basement membrane

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52
Q

What are gap junctions used for

A

Communication

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53
Q

What proteins are invovled in gap junctions?

A

Connexins

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54
Q

Describe connexins?

A

Many different types which intermix to increase channel diversity. Different connexins = different molecules can pass through

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55
Q

Is epithelial vascular or avascular?

A

Avascular

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56
Q

What is epithelial tissue defined by?

A

Whether its single layer or multi-layer

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57
Q

What are the 3 types of single layer epithelial tissue?

A

Simple squamous, simple cuboidal, simple columnar

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58
Q

What do simple squamous epithelia look like? Where are they located?

A

Flat cells, in blood vessels and intestine epithelia

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59
Q

What are the main functions of simple squamous epithelia?

A

Diffusion and filtration, barrier

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60
Q

Describe simple cuboidal epithelia. Where are they located?

A

Round/cube shaped cells. Found in ducts, kidney tubules

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61
Q

What is the main function of simple cuboidal epithelia?

A

Absorption and secretion

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62
Q

Describe simple columnar epithelia. Where are they found?

A

Tall cells, nucleus at bottom. Found in intestinal villi, trachea inner lining

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63
Q

What are simple columnar epithelial cells for?

A

Absorption and secretion

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64
Q

What are the types of multi-layer epithelial tissue?

A

stratified squamous, pseudo-stratified, transitional

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65
Q

Stratified squamous epithelial tissue may include what?

A

Keratin

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66
Q

What is pseudo-stratified epithelial tissue for?

A

Motility

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67
Q

What is transitional epithelial tissue for? Located where?

A

Located in urinary bladder. For tissue distension

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68
Q

What are the 3 main components of connective tissue?

A

Cells, fibers, and non-fiber components

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69
Q

What is the structural organization of collagen?

A

microfibril -> fibril -> fiber ->bundle

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70
Q

What structure is a collagen microfibril?

A

Triple helix

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71
Q

Where is collagen synthesized?

A

RER of fibroblasts

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72
Q

What vitamin is invovled in collagen formation?

A

Vitamin C

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73
Q

What is one step of collagen synthesis involving Vitamin C?

A

Hydroxylation of Lys and Pro with Vitamin C

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74
Q

What are the steps of collagen synthesis? (What are the products)

A

Preprocollagen -> procollagen -> collagen fibril

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75
Q

How does procollagen become the collagen fibril?

A

Crosslinking at Lys residues

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76
Q

What are 2 collagen diseaeses?

A

Scleroderma and Ehlers-Danlos syndrome

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77
Q

What is scleroderma?

A

Overproduction of collagen

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78
Q

What is ehlers-danlos syndrome caused by? Symptoms?

A

Poorly aligned collagen fibrils resulting in joint hypermobility and skin hyper-elasticity

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79
Q

What is a main characteristic of elastin?

A

Ability to stretch and relax

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80
Q

What are 3 parts of elastin?

A

Proelastin, fibrillin, and MAGP

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81
Q

Where is elastin synthesized?

A

In RER of fibroblast

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82
Q

Describe elastin synthesis (2 seps)

A
  1. Proelastin, fibrillin, and MAGP synthesized in fibroblast RER into immature elastic fiber
  2. Crosslinking of fibers and assemble into mature elastin fibers
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83
Q

What is a disease of elastin? Describe

A

Marfan syndrome. Fibrillin mutation

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84
Q

What are the non-fiber components in connective tissue?

A

Semifluid gel of glycoproteins and proteoglycans

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85
Q

What are 2 glycoproteins in the non fiber component of connective tissue?

A

Fibronectin and laminin

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86
Q

What is the function of the non fiber components of connective tissue?

A

Allows diffusion of water, gases, nutrients, waste, water-soluble molecules, etc

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87
Q

What are the 3 main types of connective tissue?

A

Embryonic
Connective tissue proper
Specialized connective tissue

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88
Q

Describe embryonic CT (what cells?)

A

Mesenchyme: fibroblasts, adipocytes, osteoblasts, chrondroblasts, muscle cells

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89
Q

What are the 2 main types of connective tissue proper?

A

Loose CT and Dense CT

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90
Q

Where is loose CT located? What does it carry?

A

Under epithelia. Carries vessels and nerves

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91
Q

What are the cells in loose CT?

A

Fibroblasts, macrophages, leukocytes, plasma cells

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92
Q

What are the main fibers in Loose CT?

A

type 1 collagen, elastic fivers, T3C reticular fibers

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93
Q

What are the non-fiber componetns in loose CT?

A

glycosaminoglycan, hyaluron, proteoglycans, glycoproteins

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94
Q

What are the 2 main types of dense CT?

A

Irregular and regular

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95
Q

What are the main cells in dense irregular CT?

A

fibroblasts

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96
Q

What are the main fibers in dense irregular CT?

A

T1C and T3C woven together, some elastin

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97
Q

What are the main non-fiber components in dense irregular CT?

A

similar to loose CT, but less abundant

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98
Q

Where is dense irregular CT found in the body? What is its main characteristic?

A

organ capsules, reticular layer of dermis.

Resilient and protective

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99
Q

Where is dense regular CT found? What is its main characteristic?

A

tendons, ligaments, joints.

Highly stress resistant, low in cellular components

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100
Q

What are the main cells in dense regular CT?

A

Fibroblasts arranged in rows

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101
Q

What are the main fiber types in dense regular CT?

A

Mostly T1C, some elastin

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102
Q

What is the strongest type of collagen fiber?

A

T1C

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103
Q

What are the main non-fiber components in dense regular CT?

A

they are low in abundance = contributes to strength

104
Q

What are 3 types of specialized CT?

A

Adipose, hematopoietic tissue, cartilage

105
Q

What are 2 types of adipose?

A

WAT and BAT?

106
Q

Where is hematopoeticic CT found?

A

bone marrow, lymph, spleen

107
Q

What are the main cells in hematopoietic CT?

A

Reticular cells

108
Q

What do reticular cells in hematopoietic CT do?

A

secrete and wrap around T3C bundles

109
Q

What are the main fibers in hematopoietic CT?

A

T3C

110
Q

What are the main non fiber components in hematopoietic CT?

A

Low abundance

111
Q

What are 3 types of cartilage?

A

Hyaline, elastic, and fibrocartilage

112
Q

What are the main functions of hyaline cartilage? (3)

A
  1. shape and flexibility
  2. models fetal bone development
  3. smooth joint movement
113
Q

What are the main functions of elastic cartilage?

A

shape and elasticity

114
Q

What are the main functions of fibrocartilage? (3)

A

Resistance to compression, cushioning, tensile strength

115
Q

Where is hyaline cartilage located?

A

trachea, bronchi, nose, ribs, articular ends, long bone epiphyseal plates

116
Q

Where is elastic cartilage located?

A

epiglottis, larynx, pinnae of ear, auditory canal

117
Q

Where is fibrocartilage located in the body?

A

Articular disks, vertebral disks, jaw, insertions of tendons

118
Q

What is the main cell type in hyaline cartilage? How is it organized?

A

Chondrocytes organized into lacunae

119
Q

What are lacunae AKA?

A

isogenous groups

120
Q

What is the main cell type in elastic cartilage? How is it organized?

A

chondrocytes organized in lacunae

121
Q

What is the main cell type in fibrocartilage? How is it organized?

A

Chondrocytes arranged in rows

122
Q

What are the main fiber types in hyaline, elastic, and fibrocartilage?

A

Hyaline: T2C
Elastic: T2C, elastin
Fibrocartilage: T1C and T2C

123
Q

what is articular cartilage?

A

Type of hyaline cartilage found in joints

124
Q

What does articular cartilage lack? what is the impact?

A

lack perichondrium = poor regeneration

125
Q

What is perichondrium?

A

CT that covers most cartilage in the body

126
Q

What are the 2 layers of the perichondrium?

A

Fibrous layer and chondrogenic layer

127
Q

What is the perichondrium fibrous layer?

A

rich in fibroblasts that secrete T2C

128
Q

What is the function of the perichondrium chondrogenic layer?

A

Rich in chondroblasts tat secrete cartilage matrix

129
Q

What is the growth mechanism/style of chrondrocytes? Describe

A

Appositional growth: chondrocytes divide and add layers

130
Q

What is cartilage interstitial growth?

A

Chondrocytes divide within cartilage, forming isogenic groups

131
Q

What are the 3 areas of bone? describe

A

Epiphysis: ends
Diaphysis: shaft/long part of bone
Metaphysis: between epiphysis and diaphysis

132
Q

What is periosteum?

A

CT covering outside of bone, enriched in collagen

133
Q

What is the endosteum ? where is it located

A

located inside bone. Made of reticular fibers and small amounts of CT running on inside of bone

134
Q

What are 2 types of bone

A

compact/lamellar bone
cancellous/spongy/trabecular bone

135
Q

Describe the organization of compact bone

A

Haversian systems/osteons: lamellae surround haversian canals, and volkmanns channels connect osteons

136
Q

What are haversian canals?

A

Carry blood vessels in bone

137
Q

What are sharpey’s fibers?

A

Project into the outer circumferential lamellae of bone, connect periosteum to bone

138
Q

Describe the structure of cancellous bone

A

Spicule nature: bone epiphysis is cancellous and interacts with cartilage. Has networks of anastomosing trabeculae that form interconnecting spaces containing marrow

139
Q

What are the 4 types of bone cells?

A

Osteoprogenitor
Osteoblast
Osteocyte
Osteoclast

140
Q

What are osteoprogenitor cells?

A

bone marrow derived MSC

141
Q

Where do osteoprogenitor cells reside?

A

in periosteum and endosteum

142
Q

What do osteprogenitor cells develop into?

A

Osteoblasts

143
Q

What do osteoblasts do?

A

secrete bone matrix

144
Q

what is bone matrix AKA?

A

osteoid

145
Q

Where do osteoblasts reside?

A

in periosteum and endosteum osteogenic layer

146
Q

What do osteoblasts initiate? How?

A

Initiate bone mineralization by secreting alkaline phosphatase

147
Q

What do osteocytes do? (2)

A

Maintain calcification of bone

Form interconnected bone cell network

148
Q

How do osteocytes develop?

A

From osteoblasts

149
Q

Where are osteocytes located in bone? How do they interact?

A

They’re enclosed in the bone matrix and contact each other via canaliculi gap junctions

150
Q

What is one important feature of osteocytes?

A

Are mechanosensory, so regulate the activity of OBs and OCs

151
Q

Where are osteoclasts found?

A

Howship’s lacunae

152
Q

Which bone cells are multinucleated vs single nucleated?

A

Osteoblasts and osteocytes: single nucleus
Osteoclast: multinucleated

153
Q

What are osteoclasts derived from?

A

Fusion of macrophages

154
Q

what is the function of OCs? How?

A

resorb bone by producing acid and metalloproteinases

155
Q

which bone cells are stationary vs migratory?

A

stationary: OB, osteocyte
migratory: OC

156
Q

What homeostatic functions are OCs important in? (2)

A

Bone remodelling and calcium/phosphate homeostasis

157
Q

What are the 4 stages of bone remodelling

A
  1. resting stage
  2. bone resorption
  3. transition
  4. bone formation
158
Q

Describe resting stage of bone remodelling

A

area of bone is targeted for OC recruitment and activation

159
Q

Describe bone resorption stage of bone remodelling

A

OC migrate and digest bone, creating howship lacunae area

160
Q

Describe transition stage of bone remodelling

A

OC are replaced by OB and bone matrix is synthesized

161
Q

DEscribe bone formation stage of bone remodelling

A

OBs lay down new bone as needed

162
Q

What are 2 types of bone remodeling?

A

intramembraneous ossification and endochondral ossification

163
Q

What is intramembranous ossification?

A

Bone formation without cartilage template

164
Q

What is endochondral ossification?

A

Bone formation with cartilage template

165
Q

where do intramembranous vs endochondrial ossification take place?

A

Intramembranous: in flat bones (skull, pelvis)
Endochondral: in long bones, vertebrae, pelvis, base of skull

166
Q

What is the cellular organization of skeletal muscle?

A

Myofibril -> muscle fiber -> fascicle

167
Q

what are the perimysium, endomysium, and epimysium?

A

Perimysium wraps around fascicle
Endomysium surrounds each muscle fiber
Epimysium surrounds muscle

168
Q

What are 3 characteristics of skeletal muscle?

A

striated, voluntary, multinucleated

169
Q

What cells repair skeletal muscle? Where are they located?

A

Satellite cells repair. Located on periphery of fibers

170
Q

what is the sarcomere?

A

Functional unit of skeletal muscle, Z line to Z line

171
Q

What protein is in thin filaments? What band?

A

actin; I bands

172
Q

What protein is in thick filament? What bands in sarcomere?

A

myosin; A band

173
Q

what happens during muscle contraction (broadly)?

A

thin filaments slide over thick filament to shorten H zone

174
Q

What shortens during muscle contraction?

A

I bands, H zone, and sarcomere

175
Q

What happens after muscle contraction? What protein is involved, and where is it anchored?

A

Titin, which is anchored at Z line), pulls sarcomere back out

176
Q

Describe the conduction system of skeletal muscle

A

Signal travels down T tubule from sarcoleemma and causes SR to release Ca2+

177
Q

How are T tubules and SR organized in SM?

A

In a triad: 1 T tubule with 2 SR on the side

178
Q

What other molecule is needed for muscle contraction?

A

ATP

179
Q

what is the troponin complex made up of? Where is it located?

A

Made up of T, I, and C troponins. Located on top of tropomyosin along actin filament

180
Q

What does the troponin complex regulate? How?

A

regulates the ability of myosin head groups to find actin to bind.

This happens because Ca2+ binds c-troponin, resulting in a conformational change in tropomyosin, which enables myosin to bind

181
Q

Describe gap junctions in SM fibers

A

No gap junctions in SM fibers

182
Q

which muscle fiber type is the largest? smallest?

A

Largest: skeletal muscle
Middle: cardiac
Smallest: smooth muscle

183
Q

Which muscle types have gap junctions?

A

Smooth and cadiac

184
Q

What are 2 characteristics of cardiac muscle cells?

A

Branching cardiomyocytes, single central nucleus

185
Q

Describe how cardiac muscle cells regenerate

A

They dont

186
Q

How are cardiac myocytes connected?

A

By gap junctions in intercalated discs

187
Q

What are cardiac myocytes enriched with? what dies this so?

A

Enriched in adherens junctions and desmosomes to maintain 24/7 involuntary function

188
Q

Describe SR in cardiac myocytes vs SM

A

SR is less developed and has fewer terminal cisternae

189
Q

Compare T tubules in cardiac muscle vs skeletal muscle

A

T tubules are wider in CM and are in diads
SM are in triads

190
Q

What are 3 characteristics of smooth muscle?

A

spindle shaped cells
single central nucleus
involuntary

191
Q

Describe Z discs in smooth muscle cells

A

Have dense bodies with a-actinin to anchor actin INSTEAD of Z-discs

192
Q

DEscribe t-tubules in smooth muscle

A

Have caveolae instead of T-tubules

193
Q

What are 2 types of smooth muscle?

A

visceral and multi-unit

194
Q

Compare visceral vs multiunit smooth muscle

A

visceral: spontaneous contractions, peristaltic motion (GI, uterus)
Multiunit: requires nervous stimulation to contract

195
Q

How is nervous tissue organized?

A

Neurons are grouped into fasicles and surrouned by endoneurium. Perineureum surrounds fascicles; epineurium surrounds entire nerve

196
Q

what does peripheral nerve tissue look like under the microscope

A

wavy tissue

197
Q

What is the nerve cell body called?

A

Perikaryon

198
Q

Where are organelles in the nerve cell?

A

In perikaryon and extending into dendrites

199
Q

What is between perikaryon and axon?

A

Axon hillock

200
Q

What are 3 types of neurons?

A

efferent, afferent, and interneurons

201
Q

Which neurons are motor vs sensory?

A

motor: efferent.
sensory: afferent

202
Q

Characterize efferent neurons

A

multinucleated from brain and ganglia to effector cells

203
Q

characterize afferent neurons

A

pesudo-unipolar or bipolar in ganglia from effectors to CNS

204
Q

Characterize interneurons

A

multipolar integration between sensory and motor neurons

205
Q

how do neurons transmit signals (broadly)?

A

by delivering vesicles with NE or ACh along their axons to the synaptic cleft; these NTs then stimulate receptors on postsynaptic membrane

206
Q

which nerves can/cant divide? how?

A

CNS nerves dont divide. PNS can repair by Schwann cells re-innervating tissue

207
Q

what is the myelin sheath made up of?

A

concentric layers of lipids and proteins that insulate the axon

208
Q

Describe how Schwann cells myelinate VS oligodendrocytes

A

one Schwann cell myelinates a segment of a single axon

one oligodendrocyte myelinates many axons

209
Q

What are nodes of ranvier?

A

gaps between myelin cells that facilitate fast saltatory conduction

210
Q

What are 3 types of supporting cells in the CNS?

A

astrocytes, microglia, and ependymal cells

211
Q

What are main functions of astrocytes?

A

cells that form a scaffold network between capillaries, fiver, and neurons

maintain blood brain barrier

212
Q

what is the function of microglia?

A

transform into phagocytic cells in damaged CNS. Form a defence system

213
Q

What is the function of ependymal cells?

A

form single epithelium of ventricles and spinal canal

214
Q

Which nervous system supporting cell is migratory?

A

microglia

215
Q

Which nervous system supporting cell is ciliated? Why?

A

Ependymal cells
to help with propulsion of CSF

216
Q

What is the first step in an AP?

A

When a nerve is sufficiently stimulated, the membrane polarizes from -70mV to -55mV

217
Q

What is the second step in AP generation?

A

voltage gated Na channels rapidly open and Na enters the cell, depolarizing it to +45mV, initiating the AP

218
Q

What is the third step in AP generation?

A

VG K channels open as Na channels are inactivated. K+ exits cell, which repolarizes to -70mV

219
Q

What is the fourth step in AP generation?

A

K continues to leave cell as K channels slows close, membrane hyperpolarizes to -90mV

220
Q

What is the fifth step in AP generation?

A

K channel close, and membrane returns to RMP as VG channels return to resting configuration

221
Q

What is a relative vs absolute refractory period?

A

While VG Na channels are still inactivated, and only a greater than normal stimulus is able to stimulate an AP (relative only)

222
Q

What is nerve conduction like in myopathy?

A

nerve conduction is normal but muscle amplitude is reduced

223
Q

what is nerve conduction like in neuropathy?

A

nerve conduction typically abnormal, especially in demyelination cases

224
Q

What is presynaptic rundown?

A

Sustained exercise results in decreased amount of ACh released per nerve impulse, resulting in fatigue

225
Q

What is the first step in stimulating a muscle contraction

A

AP on motor nerve depolarizes the axon terminal and voltage gated Ca2+ channels open, resulting in Ca flowing in and ACh being released into the synaptic cleft

226
Q

Describe the relationship between Ca and ACh in the axon terminal

A

larger [Ca] = more ACh release

227
Q

What is the second step in stimulating a muscle contraction

A

ACh diffuses across synaptic cleft and binds to nicotinic receptors, resulting in the opening of chemically gated channels

228
Q

What is the third step in stimulating a muscle contraction

A

Na flows into myocyte and K flows out, resulting in local depolarization

229
Q

what is local depolarization at the motor end plate called?

A

end plate potential

230
Q

What does an EPP trigger?

A

VG Na channels to open, triggering an AP

231
Q

What is the fourth step in stimulating a muscle contraction

A

EPP triggers an APP

232
Q

What is the fifth step in stimulating a muscle contraction

A

AP propagates down t-tubules, voltage sensors change shape and open Ca channels on SR

233
Q

What is the sixth step in stimulating a muscle contraction

A

Ca2+ binds troponin, making tropomyosin uncover myosin binding sites on actin

234
Q

What is the 7th step in stimulating a muscle contraction

A

Myosin binds actin, forming the crossbridge and a power stroke occurs -> muscle contracts

235
Q

How long will a muscle continue to contract?

A

As long as the NMJ is stimulated, and ACh and Ca are available

236
Q

How do muscles relax?

A

ACh-ase breaks down ACh in the NMJ, and ACh is taken back up in the axon terminal

237
Q

What happens to Ca after a muscle contraction?

A

it is pumped back into the SR by CaATPase

238
Q

What is dysfunctional in cystic fibrosis?

A

CFTR channel

239
Q

What does CFTR dysfunction result in

A

Na and Cl ions and H2O remain inside cells rather than leaving them. In the respiratory tract this results in viscous mucus

240
Q

What are some clinical manifestations of CF?

A

Thicker pancreas secretions = diarrhea
Thick mucus in lungs = blocks breathing
Sweat gland = higher sweat [Cl]
Male infertility
Liver cirrhosis

241
Q

What is myasthenia gravis?

A

Reduced muscle contraction resulting from dysfunctional nicotinic receptors on motor end plate = reduced signal from ACh

242
Q

What is a treatment for myasthenia gravis?

A

AChase inhibitors

243
Q

What are 4 types of medical imaging?

A

Radiograph
CT
MRI
Ultrasound

244
Q

Which type of medical imaging is best for viewing soft tissues?

A

MRI

245
Q

How do radiographs distinguish anatomical structures?

A

based on different tissue opacities

246
Q

What is summation?

A

Because radiographs are 2D, anatomical structures overlap

247
Q

How many views do you need to visualize anatomy with a radiograph?

A

2

248
Q

What is a CT scan?

A

Thin axial x-ray slices that form a 3D image

249
Q

How is a CT better than a radiograph?

A

increased accuracy and precision for measuring small abnormalities

250
Q

What is the unit of measurement in a cT scan?

A

voxel = small 2D measurement of volume

251
Q

How does a MRI work?

A

Powerful magnet and radio waves visualize tissues based on H2O content by altering H atom polarization

252
Q

What color do bones vs soft tissues appear in rads vs MRI?

A

rads: bones white, tissues grey

MRI: bones black, soft tissues lighter

253
Q

How can you adjust MRI visualization? describe

A

T2 vs T1 weighting
T2 weighted: shows damaged/pathologic tissues best; bright signal

T1 weighted: black/grey image only

254
Q

What are some drawbacks of MRI?

A

Most expensive, longest time to produce an image. Contraindicated with metal in body

255
Q

How does US visualize tissues?

A

high frequency sound waves

256
Q

What can US be used for (2)?

A

To assess anatomy or structure function (e.g. movement of blood)

257
Q

How do air appear on US?

A

air appears bright

MS1 FOM (5 decks)

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