Week 2 Flashcards

1
Q

what classes primary amenorrhoea

A

never had a period
not gone through puberty

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2
Q

what classes secondary amenorrhoea

A

someone who has had periods but they have stopped for at least 6 months

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3
Q

causes of amenorrhoea at the hypothalamic level

A

weight loss
stress
drugs

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4
Q

define amenorrhoea

A

abnormal absence of menstruation

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5
Q

causes of amenorrhoea at the pituitary level

A

prolactinoma
pituitary tumour

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6
Q

causes of amenorrhoea at the ovarian level

A

PCOS
Premature ovarian failure

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7
Q

Causes of amenorhhoea at the uterine level

A

congenital genitourinary absence
asherman’s syndrome

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8
Q

physiological causes of amenorrhoea

A

pregnancy
lactation

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9
Q

other causes of amenorrhoea

A

iatrogenic
thyroid dysfunction
hyperandrogenism

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10
Q

define hirsutism

A

excess hair growth in a male pattern due to increased androgens and increased skin sensitivity to androgens

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11
Q

most common cause of hirsutism

A

PCOS

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12
Q

classic presentation of PCOS

A

anovulation (amenorrhoea, oligomenorrhea, irregular cycles)

associated with symptoms of hyperandrogenism
- hirsutism, acne, alopecia

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13
Q

how does abnormal gonadotrophin secretion present in PCOS

A

Increased LH concentration
- Increased LH receptors in PCOS ovaries
- Support ovarian theca cells

Decreased FSH
- Low constant levels result in continuous stimulation of follicles without ovulation
- Decreased conversion of androgens to oestrogens in granulosa cells

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14
Q

Which androgens, involved in androgen biosynthesis are measured when testing for PCOS

A

DHEA
Androstenediol
Androstenedione
Testosterone
Dihydrotestosterone

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15
Q

describe androgen biosynthesis and action (PCOS)

A

Increased androgen production from theca cells under influence of LH

Disordered enzyme action
- Ovarian enzyme expression
- Peripheral conversion

Decreased SHBG
- Produced in liver, binds to testosterone
- Only free testosterone is biologically active

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16
Q

Describe insulin secretion and action (PCOS)

A

Increased insulin in response to glucose load
Increased insulin resistance
Causes Vs association?
- Insulin stimulated theca cells of the ovaries
- Increased ovarian androgens
Insulin reduces hepatic production of SHBG - increased free testosterone

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17
Q

Two main treatment methods for PCOS

A

Weight loss
Insulin sensitizers

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18
Q

How does weight loss and insulin sensitizers help to reduce symptoms of PCOS

A

Insulin sensitisers act on weight loss.
Both of above act to reduce insulin.
This acts on liver to increase SHBG and on the ovary to decrease androgens.
These work to reduce free testosterone which leads to increase in ovulation and a decrease in hirsutism.

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19
Q

Describe metformin

A

For obese and non-obese
Improves insulin sensitivity
Leads to decrease LH levels and increased SHBG and hence decrease in FAI.

Not useful in infertility
not very effective against hirsutism
May have a place in management of women at high risk of diabetes

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20
Q

Mechanism of COCP on hirsutism

A

ovarian androgen suppression

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21
Q

mechanism of corticosteroids on hirsutism

A

adrenal androgen suppression

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22
Q

mechanisms of spironolactone and cyproterone acetate on hisutism

A

androgen receptor antagonist

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23
Q

mechanism of finasteride on hirsutism

A

5 alpha reductase inhibition

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24
Q

mechanism of eflornithine on topical inhibitorhisutism

A

topical inhibitors

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25
Q

difference between community and hospital midwives

A

community - monitor up until labour. based in GP. routine check appointments.

hospital - responsible for mother and baby during labour

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26
Q

number of appointments a pregnant mother has

A

first pregnancy - 7
second/third etc pregnancy - 5

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27
Q

what happens at week 12

A

dating scan - ultrasound
- hospital by sonographer
- check development and placenta
potentially combined screening test

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28
Q

what happens at week 20

A

anomaly scan
- detailed ultrasound
screening for HIV, syphilis and Hep B

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29
Q

what happens at week 8

A

first appt with midwife at GP
- patient given plan of care
- height, weight and BMI measured
- bp measured and urine dipstick
- risk factors for pre-eclampsia
- offer dating and anomaly scan appts
- assess patients mental health

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30
Q

advanatges and disadvantages of midwife led units

A

more relaxing, may know the midwife, may be closer to home

if seperate to hospital, no access to certain pain relief such as epidural
may need to transfer to consultant-led unit if complications

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31
Q

advantages and disadvantages to consultant-led unit

A

direct access to obstetrician, anaesthetists and epidural.
special care unit close-by

may not know midwife
may need to stay on postnatal ward

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32
Q

describe chorionic villus sampling

A

sample is taken from the placenta using ultrasound guidance

carried out at 11-14 weeks

1 in 100 risk of miscarriage

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33
Q

describe amniocentesis

A

samples amniotic fluid containing fetal cells using a needle and ultra sound guidance

cells grown in culture then chromosomes analysed for abnormalities associated with down’s syndrome and cystic fibrosis etc.

15 weeks

1 in 100 risk of miscarriage

results in ~1 week

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34
Q

describe non-invasive prenatal testing

A

aka cell free DNA screening

cfDNA migrate into maternal blood stream via apoptotic trophoblast cells shed from placental tissue

maternal blood test at 10 weeks

not diagnostic but NO risk to pregnancy

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35
Q

components of combined screening

A

maternal age

nuchal translucency
free beta HCG
pregnancy associated plasma protein A

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36
Q

difference in PAPP-A in normal and downs syndrome pregnancies

A

in downs syndrome the distribution value is lower than normal but there is significant overlap

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37
Q

difference in fbhCG in normal and downs syndrome pregnancies

A

in downs syndrome the distribution value is higher than normal but there is significant overlap

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38
Q

difference in nuchal transluceny in downs syndrome

A

fluid filled space behind neck is larger than normal at about 3mm. this is only present in the first trimester

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39
Q

what is the value considered at increased risk

A

greater than or equal to 1 in 150

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40
Q

what chromosomal abnormalities are associated with down’s, edwards’ and patau’s syndromes

A

D - trisomy 21
E - trisomy 18
P - trisomy 13

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41
Q

most common cause of trisomy

A

nondisjunction when gametes are formed during meiosis. Instead of separating into 2 gametes, a pair of 21s will end up in one gamete. After fertilisation with another gamete, each cell will have three 21.

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42
Q

cause of trisomy present in 4% of cases

A

unbalanced translocation where the extra 21 is attached to another chromosome, commonly 14

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43
Q

cause of trisomy in 1% of cases

A

mosaics with both normal and trisomy 21 cells. In these cases, nondisjunction has occured after fertilisation during mitotic division

44
Q

characteristic features of down’s syndrome

A

learning difficulties

slanting eyelids
small nose
large tongue
low set ears
single palmar crease

45
Q

what are downs syndrome patients at higher risk of

A

heart conditions
infections
leukaemia
epilepsy
GI issues, constipation
hypothyroidism
eyesight and hearing

46
Q

clinical features of edward’s syndrome

A

learning difficulties
low birth weight
decreased muscle tone
low set ears
club feet
overlapping fingers

47
Q

severe side effects of edwards syndrome

A

congenital heart and kidney disease
breathing issues
GI defects
hernias

48
Q

describe survival in patau’s syndrome

A

generally not compatible with life past a few weeks after birth.
many fetuses miscarry before birth and only 5-10% of children survive longer than 1 year - usually due to mosaic

49
Q

clinical features of pataus syndrome

A

learning difficulties
microphthalmia
cleft lip and palate
extra digits
low muscle tone
undescended testes
malformed ears

50
Q

chromosome pattern in klinefelter’s syndrome

A

male patients with an extra X chromosome

XXY

51
Q

chromosome pattern in turner’s syndrome

A

female patients lacking an X chromosome

XO

52
Q

potential clinical features of klinefelter’s

A

reduced IQ
infertility
underdeveloped secondary characteristics (facial and body hair)
potential breast development

53
Q

potential clinical features of turner’s

A

neck webbing at birth
lymphedema at birth
short stature
infertility

54
Q

what is erection mediated by

A

parasympathetic plexus at the level of S2 and S3

accompanied by increased skeletal muscle tension, increased heart rate and hyperventilation

55
Q

what occurs when female’s are turned-on

A

vagina and clitoris engorge with blood
circumference and length of vagina increase
labia minora deepen in colour
increased secretions
uterus elevates
resp rate, heart rate and blood pressure increase

56
Q

physiology of ejaculation

A

reflex contractions of the bulbocavernosus and ischiocavernosus
- spinal reflex under sympathetic control

contraction of structures such as ductus deferens, seminal vesicles and prostate

filling of urethra stimulates nerves in the genital region which contracts the muscles of the penis resulting in forcible expulsion of semen

57
Q

physiology of female orgasm

A

stimulation of the clitoris and the labia result in progression towards orgasm

vaginal lubrication increases and labia become more engorged due to a marked increase in blood flow to the vagina

during orgasm, clitoris retracts and a succession of contractions occur in vaginal walls and pelvic floor

58
Q

average volume of ejaculate

A

any volume above 1.5ml is normal. this can range up to 5ml per ejaculate

59
Q

how many nerve endings are there in the clitoris

A

8000 (double that of the penis)

60
Q

what is priapism

A

painful erection that occurs for several hours and occurs in the absence of sexual stimulation. When blood is trapped in the penis and unable to drain.

61
Q

criteria for sexual disorder diagnosis

A

symptoms need to have persisted for a minimum of 6 months.

they need to have been experienced in all or almost all sexual encounters

they need to have caused clinically significant distress

62
Q

mechanism of viagra

A

aka sildenafil

protects cGMP from degradation by cGMP-specific phosphodiesterase type 6 in the corpus cavernosum of the penis.

NO in the CC binds to guanylate cyclase receptors, resulting in increased levels of cGMP = vasodilation and increased blood flow to the penis

63
Q

what is gastrulation

A

when the two layered disc turns into three germ layers

64
Q

induction in developmenr

A

one cell population/tissue (inductor) acts on another tissue (responder)

stimulates a specific developmental pathway

65
Q

what does the notochord turn into in vertebrates

A

nucleus pulposus of intervertebral disc

66
Q

structure of notochord

A

flexible rod

ventral to neural tube

67
Q

what does the notochord and mesoderm induce on the ectoderm

A

induces the overlying ectoderm to thicken and form the neural plate

68
Q

initial event in neurulation

A

cells of the neural plate making up the neuroectoderm

69
Q

what happens after the neural plate is induced

A

lengthens and lateral edges elevate
- forming neural folds and neural groove

70
Q

how does the neural plate turn into the neuraltube

A

neural folds approach each other on the midline and fuse

this forms the tube, which then sinks in and overlying ectoderm repairs

71
Q

describe bending of the neural plate

A

cell wedging - microtubules and microfilaments change cell shape.

hinge points - median hinge point and dorsolateral hinge points

72
Q

stages of neural tube formation

A

day 19 - neural groove
day 20 - neural crest
day 22 - neural tube
day 25 - anterior closure
day 27 - posterior closure

73
Q

describe closure of the tube

A

fusion begins in cervical region and proceeds in cephalic and caudal directions.

open ends form the anterior and posterior neuropores
- connect with overlying amniotic cavity

73
Q

examples of induction in development

A

noggin and chordin

activators of inhibition - inactivate BMPs (absence of BMP4 causes patterning of neural tube and somites)

73
Q

role of sonic hedgehog

A

critical role in development - make floorplate of neural tube patterning of brain and spinal cord,
somite patterning,
limb bud development

74
Q

process of sonic hedgehog signalling

A

notochord presents signal to adjacent neural tube
ventral (most) cells respond to the signal and make the neural tube floorplate
floorplate now makes its own SHH

75
Q

effect of SHH on sclerotome

A

cells to undergo an epithelio-mesenchyme transformation
they can then migrate, move towards signal and form the vertebral column

76
Q

effect of SHH on dermomyotiome

A

induces competence to respond to signals from surface ectoderm

77
Q

role of SHH in neural tube closure of upper spine

A

DLHPs are absent due to inhibition by BMP 2.

SHH expression is strong which inhibits noggin. WIth no noggin then theres no inhibition of BMP and so there are no DLHPs

78
Q

role of SHH in neural tube bending in lower spine

A

SHH is reduced. Niggin is un-inhibited and it antagonises BMP2, which allows DLHPs to form.

79
Q

what heppsn when there is incomplete closure of neural tube

A

anterior neuropore failure - anencephaly

posterior neuropore failure - spina bifida

80
Q

describe spina bifida cyctica

A

meningocele - cyst on lower spine due to bulging of the meninges at the split in the spine.

myelomeningocele - cyst on lower spine due to bulging of meninges. However much more severe than above as it involved damage of spinal nerves as they grow into the sac.

81
Q

describe spina bifida occulta

A

mild version of SB.
Spinal cord still well protected and so no damage to the cord. Tends to be no issues

82
Q

diagnosis of neural tube defects

A

raised levels of alpha-feto protein
ultrasound

83
Q

ways to reduce incidence of neural tube defects

A

folic acid taken prior to conception and in early stages of pregnancy

84
Q

how many weeks is full term in the mother

85
Q

what are the three trimetesters

A

1st - up to 12 weeks
2nd - 12 to 24 weeks
3rd - 24 to 40 weeks

86
Q

describe the pre-embryonic period

A

fertilisation of ovum by sperm

multiple cell divisions leading to implantation of blastocyst into uterine endometrium around days 5-7

trophoblast cells invade the decidua to start to establish the placenta

87
Q

what produces hCG

A

syncytiotrophoblasts (following implantation of blastocyst)

88
Q

function of hCG

A

maintains integrity of corpus luteum (mimics LH) to promote continued progesterone and oestrogen secretion and prevent menstruation

89
Q

when is the fetal period

A

weeks 9-birth

represents rapid growth and physiological maturation of organ systems

90
Q

describe lung maturation

A

lungs filled with fluid
breathing movement - expulsion of fluid into amniotic sac via trachea

24 weeks - secondary pneumocytes start producing surfactant
amount is insufficient until 35 weeks

91
Q

describe renal system maturation

A

new nephrons formed until week 36

kidneys produce dilute urine but otherwise minimal function

fetus swallows approx 7ml amniotic fluid an hour and produce approx 300ml/kg of urine per day

92
Q

digestive tract maturation

A

not fully functional in fetus due to placenta.

maturation of enzymes for digestion and absorption.

crypts and villi develop during weeks 8-24

meconium production

93
Q

describe fetal circulation maturation

A

hematopoiesis in fetal liver becomes dominant in second trimester

most erythrocytes contain fetal haemoglobin which has greater affinity for oxygen than adult haemoglobin

94
Q

endocrine function in foetus

A

glands produce small amounts of hormones from 2nd trimester
- contribute to development and labour

before birth, large adrenal cortex to produce androgens
- converted to oestrogen in placenta

foetal posterior pituitary gland secretes oxytocin to initiate contractions at peak values

95
Q

maternal adaptations to pregnancy

A

rr and tidal volume increase
blood volume increase by about 50%
nutrient requirements increase
glomerular filtration rat eincreases by about 50%

96
Q

function of hPl

A

promotes growth and differentiation of mammary gland tissue for lactation
stimulatory function on maternal tissues - ensures glucose and protein available to foetus

97
Q

function of relaxin

A

increases pubic symphysis flexibility and cervix dilation
suppresses release of oxytocin by hypothalamus and delyas onset of labour contractions

98
Q

function of placental growth hormone

A

suppresses/replaces maternal GH
enhances nutrient availability to foetus by stimulating lipolysis and gluconeogenesis

99
Q

hormones that breast maturation

A

T1 - oestrogen promotes growth and branching of the ductal system
T2 - progesterone promotes development of lobules and alveolar cells to proliferate, enlarge and become secretory
T3 - lobules continue to grow into areas of fat and connective tissue

100
Q

endocrine coordination for paturition

A

progesterone levels reduce
oxytocin from foetal pituitary enters maternal bloodstream via placenta
oxytocin also from maternal pituitary
prostaglandin production

101
Q

first stage of childbirth

A

dilation stage

cervical softening and dilation
frequency of contractions increase
amniochorionic membrane ruptures
longest phase - hours to days

102
Q

second stage of childbirth

A

expulsion stage

contractions strong and frequent
mother feels urge to push
minutes to 3 hours

103
Q

when is apgar score measured

A

1 minutes and 5 minutes post birth

104
Q

third stage of childbirth

A

placental stage

delivery of placenta up to 1 hour post partum via contractions

can cause postpartum haemorrhage so often done via active management
- oxytocin injection and removal by midwife