Week 1 Flashcards

1
Q

Describe the ovary

A

Produces gametes and hormone - exocrine and endocrine function

3cm long in young, often smaller in elderly

Surface is scarred and pitted

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2
Q

Ovary blood supply

A

Ovarian artery, arises from aorta at level of the kidney

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3
Q

Venous drainage of the ovary

A

Ovarian vein, drains to IVC on right, left renal vein on left

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4
Q

Lymphatics of ovary

A

drain to aortic nodes at level of renal cells

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5
Q

describe the broad ligament

A

peritoneal sheet draped over uterus and uterine tubes
ovaries attached to posterior layer by short mesentery (the mesovarium)

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6
Q

describe the ovarian ligament

A

fibrous cord, links ovary to uterus

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7
Q

describe the suspensory ligament of the ovary

A

lateral wall of pelvis to ovary

carries ovarian artery and vein

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8
Q

describe the round ligament

A

connects the uterus to the labia majora

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9
Q

what is the rectouterine pouch

A

extension of peritoneum into the space between the posterior wall of the uterus and the rectum

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10
Q

what is the uterovesical pouch

A

fold of the peritoneum over the uterus and bladder

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11
Q

two lowest parts of peritoneum

A

rectouterine and uterovesical pouches

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12
Q

describe the uterine tubes

A

in free margin of the broad ligament
about 13cm long
NOT directly connected to ovary

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13
Q

what are the parts of the uterine tubes

A

infundibulum
ampulla
isthmus
interstitial/uterine part

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14
Q

describe the infundibulum of UT

A

funnel shaped opening to peritoneal cavity, fringed by finger like FIMBRIAE

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15
Q

describe the ampulla of UT

A

middle section of uterine tube where fertilisation occurs

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16
Q

describe the isthmus of UT

A

short narrow section of uterine tubes connected to uterine wall

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17
Q

name the parts of the uterus

A

Body
Cervix - neck
Fundus - rounded part at the top
Isthmus - narrowing between body and cervix

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18
Q

what is a bicornuate uterus

A

uterus that hasn’t fused and so has two ‘horns’

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19
Q

regular positioning of the uterus

A

anteversion and anteflexed

20% show retroflexion and retroversion - no symptoms

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20
Q

blood supply to uterus

A

uterine artery, branch of internal iliac artery

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21
Q

venous drainage of uterus

A

uterine vein drains to internal iliac vein

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22
Q

lymphatics of uterus

A

body - para-aortic nodes
cervix - internal iliac nodes

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23
Q

layers of the scrotum wall

A

skin
dartos muscle (wrinkly appearance)
external spermatic fascia
cremasteric fascia
internal spermatic fascia
tunica vaginalis

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24
Q

describe the cremaster muscle

A

skeletal muscle
deep to dermis
runs within spermatic cord
contracts to raise testis in cold weather
- cremasteric reflex

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25
Q

describe the tunica vaginalis

A

closed sac of peritoneum, visceral and parietal layers
space between containing film of peritoneal fluid

excess fluid in TV = hydrocele

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26
Q

describe the duct system of the testis

A

ends of a coiled seminiferous tubule join to form a straight tubule

all the straight tubules join to a network ‘rete testis’

from this network, efferent ductules leave and join the epididymis

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27
Q

describe the epididymis

A

very coiled tube, continuous with ductus deferens

so tightly coiled that it has a gross formv(head, body and tail)

lined by pseudostratified columnar epithelium with stereocilia
- increase area for absorption
- monitor and adjust fluid composition

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28
Q

blood supply of testis

A

testicular artery

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29
Q

venous drainage of testis

A

pampiniform plexus (network of veins surrounding testes, cooling arterial blood)

drains to testicular vein then IVC on right

drains to renal vein on left

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30
Q

lymphatics of testes and scrotum

A

testes to para-aortic nodes
scrotum to inguinal nodes

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31
Q

describe the ductus deferens

A

45cm long

runs in spermatic cord, through inguinal canal

lies on side-wall of pelvis, turns medially to base of bladder

enlarges at end - ampulla

also attached here to seminal vesicle

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32
Q

describe the seminal vesicles

A

convoluted tubular glands
5-10cm in length
secretes an alkaline viscous fluid
- contains fructose (used for ATP production by sperm)
- contains prostaglandins which aid sperm mobility and viability

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33
Q

describe the ejaculatory ducts

A

ducts of seminal vesicle joins with the ductus deferens on each side to form the ejaculatory duct

penetrates the prostate gland, empties into the urethra

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34
Q

describe the prostate gland

A

surrounds beginning of the urethra

secretes a slightly acidic fluid containing citrate (used by sperm for ATP production), acid phosphatase, proteolytic enzymes (liquify coagulated semen)

passes its secretion to the urethra via many prostatic ducts

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35
Q

describe the bulbourethral glands

A

pea sized
produce a mucus-like secretion
ducts open to spongy urethra

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36
Q

Why do we not use human embryos when examining histology

A

Most cadaveric ovaries are post-menopausal and so have different structures. Difficult to get healthy human tissue to section.

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37
Q

What is the site of developing oocytes and follicles

A

Medulla of the ovary

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38
Q

Describe primordial follicles

A

First stage of development
One layer of follicular cells around the outside edge
Oocyte in the middle

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39
Q

Describe primary follicles

A

More than one layer of follicular cells around the outside edge
Pink ring - zona pellucida (glycoprotein coat)
Oocyte in the middle

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40
Q

What is the antrum

A

Fluid filled space in the middle of a secondary follicle

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41
Q

Describe a secondary follicle

A

Antrum in centre and Oocyte
Granulosa cells surround oocyte
Theca cells surround granulosa
Theca means shell

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42
Q

Function of theca cells

A

Produce androgens which are passed to granulosa cells

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43
Q

Function of granulosa cells

A

Contain an enzyme called aromatase which converts androgens to oestrogens

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44
Q

Describe follicular atresia

A

Spontaneous degeneration (apoptosis)
Can happen at any stage of life
Hormonally controlled
Granulosa cells die first and so cannot support developing oocyte and follicle dies.

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45
Q

Describe the structure of a pregnant ovary

A

Once oocyte is ovulated it takes some granulosa cells with it. The rest of the cells re-organise to form corpus luteum structure.

This is an endocrine structure that supports pregnancy by releasing progesterone from fat (foamy cytoplasm)

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46
Q

Describe primordial germ cells

A

Undergo lots of mitotic. division within the gonads

Cells are diploid

The cells then enter into meiosis to generate haploid gametes capable of fertilisation

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47
Q

What are oogonia

A

cells that are developed into oocytes.

produced by Primordial germ cells dividing by mitosis. They begin meiosis but only get to the point of prophase 1. where they get arrested.

At this stage the oocyte is called a primary oocyte.

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48
Q

What happens in oogenesis when puberty is hit

A

Hormonal influences ‘wake up’ the oocytes.

Oocyte completes meiosis 1 to become secondary oocyte. Then arrested again in metaphase 2.

Primary follicles resume development. Grow and develop to help support oocyte. Follicle is getting reading to eject the follicle containing oocyte into reproductive tract.

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49
Q

What is a “polar body”

A

When the primary oocyte undergoes meiosis 1 it forms two daughter cells.
One secondary oocyte and one ‘first polar body’ containing just nuclear material so that the oocyte can be haploid.

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50
Q

What occurs in oogenesis after fertilisation occurs

A

Oocyte undergoes meiosis 2 to form polar body and ovum (zygote)

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51
Q

First stage in spermatogenesis

A

Spermatogonia stem cell undergoes mitosis to form Type A spermatogonia (repopulation) and type B spermatogonia (go on to synthesise sperm)

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52
Q

What happens in spermatogenesis when puberty is hit

A

Type B spermatogonia undergo mitosis to form primary spermatocytes. These undergo Meiosis 1 and 2 to form 2 secondary spermatocytes and 4 identical spermatids respectively.

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53
Q

Describe spermiogenesis

A

No further division.

Differentiation to form sperm from circular spermatids.
Acrosome forms surrounding the nuclear material which then condenses and changes shape to form head structure.
Flagellum forms
Midpiece containing mitochondria for energy.
Excess cytoplasm is shed and phagocytosed.

74 days

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54
Q

HWere are mature and immature sperm found ina seminiferous tubule

A

Mature - Lumen
Immature - Outsides

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55
Q

Describe sertoli cells

A

Hard to spot, need special staining.

Produce androgen receptor.

Tall columnar cells that extend from BM to lumen.

Provide nutrients, mechanical and hormonal support to developing germ cells. Also involved in phagocytosis and help to create blood-testis barrier.

Cytoplasms connected by tight junctions.

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56
Q

Two compartments of seminiferous tubules

A

Basal compartment and adluminal compartment.

Immature cells are found in the basal compartment where spermatogonia and early spermatocytes are found.

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57
Q

Describe leydig cells

A

Large nuclei found at one end of the cell

Develop in clusters

Hormone producing cell, found near capillaries

Produce androgens in the form of testosterone and pass them to sertoli cells.

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58
Q

how many polar bodies are formed in oogenesis

A

3

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59
Q

What is a necessary cause

A

One that must be present for the outcome to take place, but can be present without the outcome ocurring

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60
Q

what is a sufficient cause

A

if the cause is present then the outcome ALWAYS occurs. But the cause isnt required for the outcome.

61
Q

What is casual inference

A

Causal inference is a thought process, which help us make sense of data on cause and effect.

In causal inference, we use criteria to carefully appraise and interpret all the evidence available to help us formulate a subjective, value judgement on the likelihood of a causal relationship between an exposure and an outcome.

62
Q

what is sensitivity in screening tests

A

how good a test is at correctly identifying people who do have the condition of interest

a/(a+c)

63
Q

what is specificity in screening tests

A

how good a test is at correctly identifying people who do not have the condition of interest

d/(b+d)

64
Q

2 types of receptors

A

cell surface
Intracellular and interact with lipophilic hormones

65
Q

Where are hormones metabolised

A

Liver, and to a lesser extent the kidney

66
Q

where are steroid hormones synthesised

A

from cholesterol

process occurs in mitochondria and smooth ER

67
Q

describe oestrogen

A

mixture of oestrone and oestradiol
- oestrone secreted from ovary or converted from androstenedione
- oestradiol produced by ovary, through conversion of oestrone (via aromatase)

68
Q

describe androgens

A

synthesised in testes (leydig cells), the ovary and the adrenal gland

regulate the development of male primary sex organs, secondary sex characteristics and important in libido and sexual arousal

69
Q

describe progestogens

A

synthesised from cholesterol via pregnenolone

produced primarily in corpus luteum, adrenal glands and placenta

  • endometrial development
  • pregnancy maintenance
  • mammary gland development
70
Q

what are the 3 main sex hormones

A

progestogens
androgens
oestrogens

71
Q

role of hypothalamus in menstrual cycle

A

secretes gonadotropin releasing hormone which stimulates the anterior pituitary to release follicle stimulating hormone and luteinising hormone.

72
Q

describe hypothalamic control

A

neurosecretory cells produce GnRH (gonadotrophin releasing hormone)

secreted into portal vessels in pulsatile manner

activates receptor within anterior pituitary

73
Q

describe the anterior pituitary gland

A

secretes peptide hormones - gonadotropins
- FSH
- LH
- act on ovary

74
Q

describe the posterior pituitary

A

secretes oxytocin
- involved in childbirth and lactation

75
Q

describe the role of the ovaries in menstrual cycle

A

levels of FSH and LH trigger follicle maturation and regulate steroid hormones production in the ovary

76
Q

describe follicle stimulating hormone

A

initiates recruitment of follicles

supports growth of the follicle, especially the granulosa cells

77
Q

describe luteinising hormone

A

supports theca cells
receptors expressed on maturing follicle
LH surge triggers ovulation

78
Q

describe folliclular phase

A

characterised by growth of dominant follicle
- progesterone production is low
- oestrogen is rising due to conversion of androgens to oestrogens via aromatase

79
Q

function of kit-Ligand

A

signals to stromal cells and recruits them to become theca cells lining the follicle

80
Q

describe development of the secondaru follicle

A

FSH secretion increases
LH levels increase
Theca develops - follicle gets independent blood supply
Granulosa cells develop FSH, oestrogen and androgen receptors

81
Q

describe levels of FSH and LH in development of secondary follicle

A

LH and FSH synthesis is stimulated but secretion is inhibited

FSH levels decrease. FSH and LH levels diverge as oestradiol inhibits FSH more than LH

Developing follicles produces hormone inhibin which inhibts FSH secretion but not LH

82
Q

describe feedback in the follicular phase

A

as oestrogen levels rise they feedback on the hypothalamus to stop producing GnRH and the anterior pituitary to stop producing LH and FSH. However, as oestrogen levels get really high in days 12-14 this triggers positive feedback on the hypothalamus and anterior pituitary, causing a surge in LH and triggering ovulation.

83
Q

effect of oestrogens on the endometrium

A

thickening of the stroma
elongation of uterine glands
growth of spiral arteries

84
Q

describe ovulation

A

rising oestrogens increase responsiveness to GnRH and its secretion

Oestradiol peaks, progesterone rises

High oestradiol triggers LH secretion by gonadotropes

LH surge

Ovulation occurs

Oestradiol decreases

85
Q

effects of LH on the follicle and the oocyte

A

stimulates enzymes that initiate breakdown of the follicle wall and release of mature oocyte.

Also triggers completion of first meiotic division of the oocyte.

86
Q

describe the luteal phase

A

formation of corpus luteum, this secretes progesterone and a little oestrogen

progesterone stimulates development of secretory endometrium

LH and FSH levels decrease due to levels of oestradiol, progesterone and inhibin.

oestradiol and progesterone levels decrease late.

87
Q

What happens if implantation occurs

A

corpus luteum does not degenerate but remains, supported by human chorionic gonadotropin that is produced by the developing embryo (hCG tested for in pregnancy tests)

88
Q

what happens if implanatation does not occur

A

no hCG produced, so the corpus luteum degenerates and the menstrual cycle restarts

89
Q

what occurs in menstruation

A

regression of corpus luteum and a reduction in progesterone

leukocyte infiltration of endometrium

constriction and breakdown of spiral arteries - ischaemia

menstruation begins.

90
Q

3 layers of the uterine wall

A

Endometrium
Myometrium
Perimetrium

91
Q

How to identify the endometrium from the myometrium

A

presence of glands

92
Q

2 layers of the endometrium

A

Stratum functionalis
Stratum basalis

93
Q

Describe the stratum functionalis

A

Superficial
Thick
Top portions of glands
Temporary, unorganised
Spiral arteries
Shed in menstruation

94
Q

Describe the stratum basalis

A

Darker
More cells = more nuclei = darker staining
Straight arteries
Base of glands
Not shed in menstruation

95
Q

What happens to glands in the secretory stage

A

Become larger
Secrete a carbohydrate, glycogen rich secretion.
Become coiled/twisting around

96
Q

What kind of tissue is endometrial stroma

A

Framework of connective tissue found beneath epithelial lining.

97
Q

Which layer of the uterine wall is the thickest and why

A

Myometrium

Allows for strong contractions to expel the foetus during childbirth and the dead endometrial tissue during menstruation

98
Q

Describe structure of glands in the proliferative stage

A

Thin and straight

99
Q

what happens to the corpus luteum after ovulation

A

it degenerates and becomes a fibrous scar called the corpus albicans

100
Q

What is the name of the thick connective tissue capsule enclosing the testes

A

tunica albuginea

101
Q

what is typical mendelian inheritance

A

inherited from a single gene

102
Q

what is incomplete penetrance

A

it is possible to inherit the genes but not have the condition

103
Q

what are modifier genetic variants

A

genes that you inherit alongside the condition that can worsen the condition

104
Q

examples of AR conditions

A

spinal muscular atrophy
sickle cell disease
cystic fibrosis
haemochromatosis
congenital adrenal HYPERplasia
Tay-sachs

105
Q

what are obligate carriers

A

females who must be carriers based on the affected males in a sex-linked condition.

106
Q

what are manifesting carriers

A

due to skewed x inactivation, females are slightly affected by a sex-linked condition

107
Q

how to spot difference between AD and X-linked D inheritance on pedigree

A

X-linked Dominance has no male-male transmission

108
Q

examples of x-linked dominant inheritance

A

Rickets
Incontinentia pigmenti
Rett syndrome

109
Q

Describe mitochondrial DNA

A

made up of little circles, much smaller that dna in nucleus. Only 16.6 kilobase (16,600) pairs. Nuclear genome is 3200 million base pairs.

37 genes

No introns

Inherited only from the mother

syndromes often affect muscle, brain and eyes

110
Q

what is heteroplasmy

A

a mix of copies of several chromones in each mitochondrion

111
Q

what is the threshold effect

A

condition occurs when a threshold of variant copies is reached

mitochondrial DNA

112
Q

what is genetic anticipation

A

when a triplet repeat expansion gets bigger as you go down the generations in the family and so the disease gets worse with each individual. (increasing severity and earlier ag eof onset)

  • HD
  • fragile X syndrome
  • Myotonic dystrophy
113
Q

what is gonadal mosaicism

A

mutation in autosomal dominant condition in that the child is affected and the parent isnt.

114
Q

differences in mutations in proto-oncogenes and tumour-suppressor genes

A

tumour suppressor genes - loss of function

proto-oncogenes - gain of function

115
Q

describe sporadic cancer

A

common
late onset
single primary tumour

116
Q

describe familiar cancer

A

uncommon
early onset
often multiple primaries

117
Q

role of tumour suppressor genes

A

some inhibit progression through the cell cycle
some propmote apoptosis
some act as DNA repair genes

118
Q

Example of proto-oncogene

118
Q

examples of tumour suppressor genes

A

BRCA1, BRCA2, MLH1, MSH2, APC

118
Q

what are DNA repair genes

A

a type of TSGs
act to minimise genetic alterations
Important in some common hereditary cancer predisposition syndromes
- breast/ovarian and colorectal cancer

119
Q

in what form are most cancer predisposition syndromes inherited

A

autosomal dominant

mostly due to an inherited altered TSG and then subsequent inactivation of the wild-type gene copy
(two hit hypothesis)

120
Q

what to look for when diagnosing familial cancer

A

family history
multiple primary tumours
early age of onset

121
Q

statistics for how many breast cancer cases are familial

122
Q

what genes are altered most commonly in breast cancer

A

BRCA1
BRCA2

(male breast cancer suggests BRCA2)

123
Q

what genes are altered less commonly in breast cancer

A

TP53
PALB2
PTEN
CDH1

124
Q

statistics for BRCA1 mutation cancers

A

approx 72% risk of breast cancer by 80yo
approx 44% risk of ovarian cancer by 80yo

(population risk 10% and 1.5% respectively)

125
Q

statistics for BRCA2 mutation cancers

A

Female
- 69% risk of breast cancer by 80
- 17% risk of ovarian cancer by 80

Men
- 4% for breast cancer by 80
- 27-41% for prostate cancer by 80

126
Q

function of bRCA1 and BRCA2 proteins

A

DNA repair by homologous recombination of double-strand breaks

127
Q

pattern of inheritance for familial colon cancer

A

mostly autosomal dominant
mostly Lynch disease (2-3%)

some: familial adenomatous polyposis, causes 0.5% of CRC

128
Q

Describe Lycnch syndrome

A

aka HNPCC (hereditary nonpolyposis colon cancer)

CRC risk of 50-60%
Due to inheritance of mutation in MMR system genes (important for accurate DNA replication)

129
Q

genes causing HNPCC

A

MLH1 - 50%
MSH2 - 40%
MSH6 - 7-10%
PMS2 - <5%

130
Q

describe familial adenomatous polyposis

A

mutations in the APC gene - chromosome 5

hundreds of polyps form in colon

(can also cause congenital hypertrophy of the retinal pigment epithelium in 80%)

Annual bowel screening from 11yo

131
Q

describe MYH/MUTYH polyposis

A

autosomal recessive

like a mild form of FAP

Normal function is the base excision repair gene

high risk of carcinoma when mutated

2 yearly colonoscopy

132
Q

Describe Li fraumeni syndrome

A

rare
Autosomal dominant cancer predisposition
- Breast cancer
- Brain tumours
- Sarcoma
- Leukaemia
- Adrenocortical carcinoma

Mutations in master control gene TP53

Chance of cancer: 50% by 30yo, 90% by 50yo

133
Q

examples of AD conditions

A

inherited breast, ovarian or colon cancer
APKD
NF1
Huntingtons

134
Q

what is a consanguineous family

A

incestous

These families are more likely to display AR inheritance

135
Q

pedigree pattern for each form of inheritance

A

AD - vertical
AR - horizontal
XR - knight’s move
XD - similar to Ad, but no male-male transmission

136
Q

3 forms of atypical inheritance

A

genetic anticipation
gonadal mosaicism
mitochondrial

137
Q

what does the ductus deferens develop from

A

the mesonephric ducts

138
Q

what are antral follicles

A

follicles containing an immature egg

139
Q

what are the 9 bradford hill criteria

A

strength, consistency, specificity, temporality, biological gradient, plausibility, coherence, experiment, and analogy.

140
Q

describe huntington disease

A

autosomal dominant
onset between 30 and 50
progressive chorea, dementia and psychiatric symptoms
CAG repeat units, expansion of tract to 40+ repeats causes insoluble protein aggregates and neurotoxicity.
No cure
presymptomatic testing

141
Q

Describe myotonic dystrophy

A

Autosomal dominant with genetic anticipation
Progressive muscle weakness in early adulthood
Myotonia and cataracts

unstable length mutation of a CTG repeat
affected if 50+ repeats

abnormal DMPK mRNA
indirect toxic effect upon slicing of other genes

142
Q

describe cystic fibrosis

A

autosomal recessive
1 in 20 carriers
1 in 2500 newborns affected in UK

screening of newborns by immunoreactive trypsin level
confirmation by DNA testing and/or sweat testing

CFTR mutations
defective chloride ion channel
increased thickness of secretion
most common mutation: F508del
- prevents normal folding and insertion into the plasma membrane

143
Q

what is cascade screening

A

identification of mutations permits prenatal diagnosis if desired and the subsequent testing of relative to identify carriers

144
Q

What 2 things are needed for a relationship to be causal

A
  1. The exposure precedes the outcome
  2. The outcome is to some extent determined by the presence of absence of the exposure
145
Q

What is the PPV

A

likelihood someone with a +ve test has disease

146
Q

What is NPV

A

likliehood someone with -ve test doesnt have disease