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M1 Block 4 > Week 2 > Flashcards

Week 2 Flashcards

1
Q

BSE: Goal is to understand a population based on:

A

Goal is to understand a population based on a sample

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2
Q

BSE: Descriptive statistics have 3 branches including

A
  • Distribution
  • Measures of Central Tendency: mean, median, mode
  • Measures of variability: how far do things vary from the mean
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3
Q

BSE: What is the difference between a population and sample?

A
  • Population: The collection of units to which we want to generalize a set of findings or a statistical model (the whole)
  • Sample: A smaller (but hopefully representative) collection of units from a population used to determine truths about that population
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4
Q

BSE: Mean and Standard Deviation are obtained from a sample but are used to:

A

Mean and Standard Deviation are obtained from a sample but are used to estimate the mean and SD of the population

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5
Q

BSE: What does Measuring the ‘Fit’ of the model mean?

A
  • The mean is a model of what happens in the real world: the typical score
  • It is not a perfect representation of the data
  • How can we assess how well the mean represents reality?
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6
Q

BSE: If have a large standard deviation, describe what will happen to the distribution

A
  • Large standard deviation = wide distribution
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7
Q

BSE: If have a small standard deviation describe what happens to the distribution

A
  • If have a small standard deviation the distribution is narrow (and tall?)
  • ideal, want distribution to be close to the measure of central tendency
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8
Q

BSE: The normal distribution ideally has a _______________ mean, median, mode

A

The normal distribution ideally has the same mean, median, mode

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9
Q

BSE: What is a Gaussian distribution?

A
  • Another name for normal distribution
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10
Q

BSE: What percentage of a sample lies within 1 standard deviation from the mean/median/mode?

A

68.3% should lie -1 SD and + 1 SD from the mean/median/mode

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11
Q

BSE: What percentage of the sample lies between the 2 SD from mean/median/mode?

A

95% for -2 SD & + 2 SD

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12
Q

BSE: What percentage of the sample lies between the 3 SD from mean/median/mode? F

A

~ 99% for - 3 SD & + 3 SD

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13
Q

BSE: T/F can have more than 1 mode for a sample

A

True, can have a singular mode, bimodal, mulitmodal

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14
Q

BSE: T/F: Normal distribution has a skew

A
  • False, normally mean, median, mode
  • Skew is symmetry of distribution
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15
Q

BSE: What is skew? What is + or negative skew?

A
  • Skew is symmetry of distribution
  • Positive skew: scored bunched at low values with the tail pointing to high values
  • Negative skew: scored bunched at high values with the tail pointing to low values
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16
Q

BSE: What is highest in a positive skew? Why?

A

Mean > median > mode
B/c the outliers are pulling/increasing the value of the mean

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17
Q

BSE: What is normally highest in a negative skew?

A

Mode > Median > Mode

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18
Q

BSE: What is Kurtosis?

A

A distribution with an abnormal distribution

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19
Q

BSE: What does bimodal distribution suggest?

A
  • Suggests 2 populations within a sample
  • i.e. “students who understand neuro vs students who do not understand neuro”
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20
Q

BSE: Level of Measurement-Give examples of Ratio

A
  • Height
  • Weight
  • BP
  • Kelvin
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21
Q

BSE: Levels of Measurement-give examples of nominal

A
  • Variables that have two or more categories with no intrinsic order
  • I.e. gender, blood type, types of housing
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22
Q

BSE: What is the best central tendency measure for nominal data?

A

Mode

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23
Q

BSE: What is the best central tendency measure for skewed or ordinal data?

A

Median

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24
Q

BSE: What is ordinal data?

A
  • Variables with two or more categories
  • “How much do you like my sweater?” “Not very much,” “it’s okay,”Yes, a lot”
  • But not able to place a definitive value on
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25
Q

BSE: When is mean the best central tendency measure?

A
  • When using data distribution that is continuous and symmetrical, such as when your data is normally distributed
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26
Q

BSE: What is the most appropriate measure of central tendency when the data has outliers?

A

Median

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27
Q

BSE: What is the best central tendency for ratio data?

A

Mean

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28
Q

BSE: Levels of Measurement-what is the difference between Interval and Ratio?

A
  • Interval: variables for which their central characteristics is that they can be measured along a continuum and they have a numerical value
  • Ratio: Interval variables, but with the added condition that ZERO of the measurement indicates that there is none of that variable. I.e. 0 BP, 0 Ht, 0 Wt
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29
Q

BSE: In a box plot, what does the box represent?

A

Median

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30
Q

CPR: What portion of the medulla controls quiet inspiration?

A
  • Dorsal respiratory group stimulates the diaphragm via the phrenic nerve for quiet inspiration
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31
Q

CPR: T/F-the dorsal respiratory group controls quiet inspiration while the ventral respiratory group controls quiet expiration

A

False
DRG controls quiet inspriation
VRG controls active expiration and inspiration, only
- Quiet expiration does not require any muscles or stimulation

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32
Q

CPR: At what PaO2 will peripheral chemoreceptors start to fire?

A
  • When PaO2 is less than 70 mmHg will start to increase ventilation
  • Strongest activity when PaO2 is less than 60 mmHg
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33
Q

CPR: Normally, what is the main driving force for respiration?

A
  • Driven by CO2
  • O2 drives some, but not as powerful for influencing respiration
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34
Q

CPR: The central chemoreceptors for neural control of respiration are considered neurons. Describe the implications of this.

A
  • Neurons can be blocked such that in general anesthesia uses extremely high levels of CO2/drugs to override and inhibit central chemoreceptors
  • The inhibition of central chemoreceptors will not be able to stimulate the DRG
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35
Q

CPR: T/F-changes in PaCO2 and arterial pH have the same influence of respiration due to their relationship in the bicarbonate buffer

A
  • False, arterial CO2 levels are more powerful in controlling respiration rate
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36
Q

CPR: What is the PaCO2 in metabolic acidosis?

A
  • PaCO2 level is lower than normal b/c there is hyperventilation to reduce the H+ content
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37
Q

CPR: Describe the PaCO2 influences in Respiration rate during the following conditions:
1. Metabolic acidosis
2. Sleep
3. Narcotics
4. Anesthesia

A
  1. PaCO2 sensitivity is high so strong effect on RR
  2. PaCO2 sensitivity is lower, so can have higher PaCO2 levels before respiration rate changes
  3. PaCO2 sensitivity is increasingly lower, so body allows higher PaCO2 levels
  4. PaCO2 sensitivity is lowest so high PaCO2 allowed with minimal changes to respiration rate
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38
Q

CPR: What is the pneumotaxic center?

A
  • Decreases inhibition of the DRG (dorsal respiration center)
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39
Q

CPR: What does the Apneustic center do?

A

Stimulates DRG to increase inspiration

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40
Q

CPR: When levels of O2 are normal in the blood, describe how it influences respiration

A
  • When O2 levels are normal there is no influence to respriation
  • Only when PaO2 < 60 mmHg does O2 levels of influence respiration
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41
Q

CPR: What are J receptors?

A
  • Located in the interstitial space of the lung
  • Respond to irritation of the lungs and reduce the depth of breathing
  • Induce shallow, rapid breaths of patients with inflammation or edema
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42
Q

CPR: How does body temperature influence respiration?

A
  • Think increased body heat, increased metabolic work which produces CO2
  • The body will then need to remove the increased levels of CO2 which is done by influencing and increasing respiration
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43
Q

CPR: What is hypercapnia?

A
  • High level of CO2 in the blood
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44
Q

CPR: In COPD exacerbation, why don’t treat with pure O2?

A
  • In obstructive diseases can have hypercapnia and hypoxemia
  • The hypercapnia needs to be reduced by increasing expiration
  • When CO2 levels are high and O2 levels are sufficiently low (< 60 mmHg) then O2 will be the main driving force for respiration
  • If administer pure O2 too fast then the body will think the levels are okay and return respiration back to normal which will disallow removal of CO2/H+ = Acidosis
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45
Q

CPR: Describe why PaCO2 does not drive ventilation during expiration

A
  • During exercise, the ventilation will go up correspondingly with the PaCO2 production
  • Getting rid of PaCO2 at same rate as production so PaCO2 level is stable and thus cannot influence RR
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46
Q

CPR: T/F-Increased ventilation during exercise is the driven by PaCO2 levels rather than PaO2

A
  • False, the exact mechanism of increased ventilation is not influenced by O2 or CO2!
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47
Q

CPR: Describe the changes in PaCO2, PaO2, pH, and O2-Hb curve during exercise

A
  • PaCO2 & PaO2 not changed due to increased ventilation matching production and needs of body
  • pH likely doesn’t change but can lower due to lactic acid production
  • O2 affinity for Hb will lower to be able release O2 too tissues & Curve will shift right
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48
Q

CPR: What is Cheyne-Stoke breathing?

A
  • Occurs in patient with stroke or heart failure & is an abnormal response to increase in PaCO2
  • Takes longer for the brain to respond to increased levels of PaCO2
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49
Q

BSE: What term corresponds to this definition:

It also includes facilitating the
informed consent process and recommending mutually agreed-upon
diagnostic and/or therapeutic steps, or health promotion and disease
prevention strategies

A

Informed Consent

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50
Q

BSE: What term matches this definition:
- KNOWLEDGE OF OSTEOPATHIC PRINCIPLES, PRACTICE, AND OMT
- Compare and contrast the relative value, advantages, and disadvantages of different OMT techniques.

A

Competency Domain 1

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51
Q

BSE: What is the goal of competency domain 3?

A
  • Have knowledge and be able to explain principles or health, disease, and diagnostic and tx options to patients
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52
Q

BSE: What is the purpose of competency domain 4?

A

Communicate best clinical evidence, including osteopathic principles and practice, to patients and colleagues

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53
Q

BSE: What is the purpose for section 6.1 of informed consent?

A
  • Explain and apply the ethical principles of autonomy
  • Identify the patient’s ability to participate in shared decision-making
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54
Q

BSE: What is the goal of section 6.2 of informed consent?

A
  • Exhibit respect and compassion for the patient’s autonomy
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55
Q

BSE: What is the purpose of Informed Consent section 6.3?

A
  • Respect patient autonomy and the right of the patient to be fully involved in decisions about care
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56
Q

BSE: What is the goal of Informed consent section 6.4?

A
  • Properly establish the physician-patient relationship by examining, diagnosing, and treating in a consensual manner, and conscientiously maintaining the relationship consistent with the proper legal and ethical standard
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57
Q

BSE: What is informed consent competency domain section 7?

A
  • Work to improve and promate care and culture of patient savety
  • Maximize their resources to benefit the community at large
  • Only one of the 7 competencies that doesn’t explicitly refer to informed consent or closely related concepts
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58
Q

BSE: What is Torts?

A
  • Compensation of victim
  • Plaintiff vs. Defendant
  • Civil level
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59
Q

BSE: What is the difference between battery and assault ?

A
  • Battery: harmful or offensive contact
  • Assault: an act intended to cause, apprehension of harmful or offensive contact
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60
Q

BSE: List 2 occurences requiring informed consent not including medical treatment, surgery, or examination

A
  • Participation in medical research
  • Participation in medical teaching experiences
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61
Q

BSE: What are 4 key concepts to obtaining informed consent in Kentucky?

A
  • Reasonable physican standards
  • Reasonable patient standards
  • Linguistic barriers
  • Cultural barriers
62
Q

BSE: What is a confidence interval?

A
  • Using the sample mean to estimate the true mean
  • Related to inferential statistics
63
Q

BSE: What is a confidence interval?

A
  • Using the sample mean to estimate the true mean
  • Related to inferential statistics
64
Q

BSE: ______ of values are found within 2 standard deviations from the mean

A

95% of values would be found within 2 SD from the mean which helps explain confidence interval

65
Q

BSE: 95% of values would be found within ____ SD

A

95% of values would be found within 2 standard deviations from the mean

66
Q

BSE: What is the central limit theorem?

A
  • If your sample size is large enough, the distribution of means will approximate the normal distribution even if the population is not normal (Gaussian)
67
Q

BSE: How do you calculate standard error?

A

SE = σ / sqr rt (n)
where σ = sample standard deviations (95%)
n = population

68
Q

BSE: What is the difference between a 99% and 95% confidence interval?

A
  • 99% confidence interval is wider and less precision but more accurate because true mean more likely to be present
  • 95% confidence interval is more precise because narrower. But less accurate because true mean could lie outside
69
Q

BSE: How many standard deviations are within 99% of the confidence interval?

A

3 standard deviations

70
Q

BSE: 2.5 Standard deviations lie within _____% of a confidence interval

A

99

71
Q

BSE: When do you use standard error?

A
  • Sample > 30
  • Sampling distribution is normal with a mean = to a population mean
  • SD equal to the standard error of the mean
  • Standard error is the SD of the same means
72
Q

BSE: What is standard error?

A
  • Standard error is the standard deviation of sample means
  • It is a measure of how representative a sample is likely to be of the population
73
Q

BSE: What is a better way to say “95% confidence interval contains the true mean with probability 95%”

A

“ 5% change the interval does not contain the true mean”

74
Q

BSE: In stats, if there are overlaping confidence intervals, what can you determine

A
  • If the confidence intervals overlap tells you the mean could come from the same population
  • Can suggest there is no effect, of per say a drug
75
Q

BSE: In stats, what can you deduce if confidence intervals do **not* overlap?

A
  • Suggests the samples come from two different populations such that if a medicine was being observed, it might suggest the drug produces a different effect
  • The result would be statistically significant if P < 0.05
76
Q

BSE: What can be said about the SD if the sample size increases?

A

The SD will decrease since the denominator increases

77
Q

BSE: Central tendency and variability is an example of __________ statistics

A

descriptive

78
Q

BSE: Confidence intervals are a type of _____________ statistics

A

Inferential stats

79
Q

BSE: Give an example of independent probability & define

A
  • If flip coin once & get heads.
  • Will the next flip be dependent on the previous flip? No
  • Occurrence of one thing tells you nothing about the occurrence of another
80
Q

BSE: When calculating independent probability, what do you do to the chances

A

Multiply

Chance of red hair = 0.01
Chance of having syphilis = 0.05
Chance of meeting a redhead with syphilis = 0.01 * 0.05 = 0.0005 or 0.05% chance

81
Q

BSE: What is nonindependent probability and give an example?

A
  • One probability relies on the previous
  • I.e. have a bag of orange and blue balls. If randomly draw 1 orange ball, the next draw will be affected by the first.
82
Q

BSE: How do you calculate nonindependent probability concepts

A
  • Multiply but will likely have fractions, i.e have a bag of 10 balls, 5 orange, 5 blue
  • Draw 1 orange ball is 5/10 chance
  • Next draw, 1 orange ball 4/9 chance
  • Portability of drawing 2 orange balls was 5/10 * 4/9 =0.222 or 22% chance
83
Q

BSE: What is a type I error?

A
  • False positive
  • The probability of getting a Type I error is the α-level (usually 0.05)
  • Assuming no effect in the population, if we repeated an experiment 100 times, we would expect on five occasions to obtain a test statistic large enough to make us think there is a genuine effect
84
Q

BSE: Independent events cannot be ____________ exclusive

A

Independent events cannot be mutually exclusive

85
Q

BSE: Independent events cannot be ____________ exclusive

A

Independent events cannot be mutually exclusive

86
Q

BSE: What is a type II error?

A
  • False negative - Occurs when we believe that there is no effect in the population when, in reality, there is - The probability of getting a Type 2 error is the β-level (often 0.2) - If we replicated an experiment 100 times in which an effect exists, we would fail to detect the effect in 20 of the experiments
87
Q

BSE: As the probability of making a Type I error _________, the probability of making a Type II error __________

A

As the probability of making a type I error decreases, the probability of making a type II error increases

88
Q

BSE: What is a null hypothesis

A
  • Says there is no difference between 2 things
89
Q

BSE: How do can you change statistical power?

A
  • Variation
  • Sample size (preferred large)
  • Significance level chosen
  • Size of effect
  • Little scatter (smaller SD)
90
Q

BSE: When comparing variables, what common statistical tests are used for numerical variables?

A
  • Comparing 2 groups being evaluated? T-Test
  • Comparing 3 or more groups being evaled? ANOVA
91
Q

BSE: When comparing variables, what type of statistical tests is used for categorical or proportional variables?

A
  • Small sample size? Fisher exact test
  • Large sample size? Chi-squared test
92
Q

BSE: How can you discern when to use a paired T test?

A
  • When what’s being evaluated have shared characteristics, i.e. husband and wives being compared-they live together
  • Same sample being evaluated, like pre-test vs post-tests for a class, same group is being evaluated
93
Q

BSE: What can be inferred about the measures of central tendency in a normal distribution?

A

Mean, median, mode are identical

94
Q

BSE: How will an increase in prevalence change positive predictive value?

A

An increase in prevalence will increase positive predictive value

95
Q

BSE: Describe the relationship of prevalence and incidence for short term diseases and give an example

A
  • Prevalence = incidence for short duration diseases
  • Ex. common cold prevalence = incidence since it goes away on its own
96
Q

BSE: How do you calculate incidence? What is important to remember when calculating this?

A
  • Incidence = new cases / population that can get disease
  • Need to remove people who have the disease at the start of observation from the population studied, i.e. population who get lung cancer in a 10 yr period, if 2500 have lung cancer at the start of the study they don’t count toward the denominator
97
Q

BSE: If something is deemed very precise, what can you infer about its statistical power?

A

High precision = high statistical power

98
Q

BSE: How to calculate sensitivity?

A

Sensitivity = A / (A+C)

99
Q

BSE: How to calculate Specificity?

A

Specificity = D / (D+B)

100
Q

BSE: How to calculate negative predictive value?

A

NPP = D / (C+D)

101
Q

BSE: What does negative predictive value mean?

A
  • If you test negative for a disease, what is the likelihood you don’t have the disease
102
Q

BSE: What does positive predictive value mean?
How do you calculate it?

A
  • PPV = A / (A+B)
  • If you test positive for a disease, what is the likelihood you have the disease
103
Q

BSE: How to calculate Sensitivity

A

Sensitivity = True positive / True positive + False negative

104
Q

BSE: How to calculate specificity?

A

Specificity = True Negative / False positive + True negative

105
Q

BSE: How to calculate PPV?

A

Positive predictive value = True positive / True positive + False positive

106
Q

BSE: How to calculate NPV?

A

Negative predictive value = False negative / False negative - True negative

107
Q

BSE: How to calculate prevalence?

A

Prevalence = True Positive + False negative / population

108
Q

BSE: Assume 100% sensitivity and 100% specificity of a test. If the sensitive test is negative, what can you infer?

A
  • SN-N-OUT: Sensitive test (if negative) will rule out the disease
  • If a pap smear is negative, you can rule out cervical cancer
109
Q

BSE: Assume 100% sensitivity and 100% specificity of a test. If the specific test is positive , what can you infer?

A
  • SP-P-IN
  • If specific test is positive will rule in disease
  • If colposcopy is positive, person has cervical cancer
  • A specific test is used for ruling in a disease, as it rarely misclassifies those without a disease as being sick
110
Q

BSE: A perfectly sensitive test will have _______ True positive and ______ true negative

A

A perfectly sensitive test will have 100% true positive and 100% true negative

111
Q

BSE: Why do we use sensitive tests for screenings? What kind of test is used after screening? Why?

A
  • With sensitivity, goal is to have mostly true positive with some false positive
  • Use specific test after screening
112
Q

BSE: With increasing disease prevalence, you get:

A

With increasing disease prevalence, you get a higher PPV & Lower NPB

113
Q

BSE: If prevalence is low, what can you infer?
If prevalence is high, what can you infer?

A
  • If prevalence is low, false positive is high
  • If prevalence is high, false negative is high
114
Q

CPR: What is atelectasis?

A

a partial or complete collapse of the lung that occurs when the air sacs within the lung, called alveoli, lose air

115
Q

CPR: Is Bronchiectasis a restrictive or obstructive lung disease?
Describe how this would impact FEV1/FVC ratio

A

Obstructive

  • FEV1 is decreased b/c harder to expel air since increased elastin
  • FVC is decreased but FEV1 is decreased more
  • Ratio reduced overall
116
Q

CPR: Idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis & ankylosing spondylitis are restrictive or obstructive lung diseases?
Describe how this would impact FEV1/ FVC ratio

A
  • Idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis & ankylosing spondylitis are restrictive lung diseases
  • FEV1 is decreased due to decrease compliance
  • FVC is decreased
  • both decrease proportionally, entire ratio goes down
117
Q

CPR: How to calculate Minute ventilation?

A

Vm = Tidalvolume * RR

118
Q

CPR: _________ agonists increase smooth muscle contraction of the bladder and arteriole

A

alpha 1 agonists increase smooth muscle contraction of the bladder and arteriole

119
Q

CPR: From where do the greater splanchnic nerve arise?

A

The greater splanchnic nerve arises from the sympathetic trunk at levels T5-T9

120
Q

CPR: What is the drug of choice for pulmonary artery hypertension? By what mechanism does it act? This drug is known to be expensive, what is a cheaper alternative

A
  • Bosentan
  • Enodthelin-1 receptor agonist
  • Sildenafil/Viagra
121
Q

OPP: When using AP XR for identifying structures that pass through the diaphragm, what is the pneumonic and what does it mean?

A
  • ” I 8 10 eggs at 12
  • IVC = T8
  • Esophagus = T10
  • Aorta = T12
122
Q

OPP: How can you tell if a chest XR is captured during inspiration

A
  • Should show 10th-11th posterior ribs
123
Q

OPP: Where is the costophrenic angle and what is significant about it in XR?

A
  • Located laterally and distally on the ribs proximal to the hemidiaphragm
  • If there is blunting at this angle can indicate pleural effusion
124
Q

OPP: On chest XR, what is the order of structures from superior to inferior on patient L side of body?

A
  • Highest is aortic arch
  • Second is pulmonary artery
  • Lower is atrial appendage
125
Q

OPP: On chest XR, what is the order of structures from superior to inferior on patient R side of body?

A
  • Superior vena cava
  • Ascending Aorta
  • IVC
126
Q

CPR: Losartan is a:
explain how it effects the heart and lungs

A
  • Losartan is a nonselective beta-adrenergic antagonist
  • Heart: B1 would increase HR & contractility normally, and blocker would decrease this
  • Lungs: B2 would normally bronchodilator but if blocked, bronchoconstriction
127
Q

BSE: If you increase the cutoff value for + vs - tests, what will occur?

A
  • If increase the cutoff value for a + or - test, will increase false negative values and decrease false positive
128
Q

BSE: What happens if you lower the cutoff value for + or - test results?

A

Lower the cutoff value for + or - test results will increase false positives and decrease false negatives

129
Q

BSE: What do you want to be high in all screening tests?

A
  • Want high specificity in screening tests
130
Q

BSE: What is an ROC curve and what does it compare?

A
  • ROC - receiving operating characteristic curve
  • Compares sensitivity and false positive rate
131
Q

CPR: What does a R shift on hemoglobin-oxygen disassociation curve mean?

A

A “right shift” on the hemoglobin-oxygen dissociation curve means that hemoglobin has a decreased affinity for oxygen, causing it to release oxygen more readily to tissues

132
Q

CPR: What does a L shift on the Oxygen-Hb disassociation curve represent?

A

A “left shift” on the hemoglobin oxygen dissociation curve means that hemoglobin has an increased affinity for oxygen, making it more likely to bind to oxygen and less likely to release it to the tissues, essentially indicating that the blood is holding onto oxygen more readily than usual; this can occur in situations like alkalosis (high pH) or hypothermia

133
Q

BSE: Define “likelihood”

A
  • Likelihood that a given test result would be expected in a patient with the target disorder compared to the likelihood that the same result would be expected in a patient without the target disorder
134
Q

BSE: What does LR + ratio mean?

A

LR + = probability of a positive test in an individual with a disease / probability of a positive test in an individual without a disease

135
Q

BSE: What does LR - ratio mean?

A

LR - = probability of a negative test in an individual with a disease / probability of a negative test in an individual without a disease

136
Q

BSE: What does 1-specificity = ?

A

1 - specificity = False positive rate

137
Q

BSE: What does 1 - Sensitivity = ?

A

1 - sensitivity = False negative rate

138
Q

BSE: What is a “good” LR + value?
What is a preferred LR- value?

A
  • LR+ want to be greater than 10
  • LR - want to be less than 0.1
139
Q

BSE: What does an LR+ > 10 indicate?

A

LR + > 10 indicates a highly specific test

140
Q

BSE: What does an LR- < 0.1 indicate?

A

LR- < 0.1 indicates a highly sensitive test

141
Q

BSE: How do you calculate risk?

A

Risk = new cases/ persons at risk

142
Q

BSE: For epidemiology, in case control studies, what measure of association might you use?

A

Odds ratio

143
Q

BSE: For epidemiology, for cohort studies, what measure of association might you use?

A

Use risk

144
Q

BSE: Define odds ratio & when to use it?

A
  • Used in case-control studies
  • Represents the odds of exposure among cases (disease) vs odds of exposure among controls (not disease)
145
Q

BSE: Define relative risk and when to use it

A
  • Used in cohort studies
  • Risk of developing disease in the exposed group divided by risk in the unexposed group
146
Q

BSE: For rare diseases what can you infer about odds ratio and relative risk?

A

For rare diseases, you can approximate odds ratio approximates relative risk

147
Q

BSE: When have an odds ratio or relative risk and performing confidence interval, what must you not do

A

Cannot have 1 in the confidence interval or it is not statistically significant

148
Q

BSE: What does number needed to harm mean and how to calculate it?

A
  • NNH: How many people need to give a drug to cause harm
  • NHH = 1/ Absolute Risk
149
Q

BSE: Why do you want a low NNT as 1?
Why do you want a high NNH?

A
  1. Low NNT of 1 means, give a drug and it treats everyone, lower number = better treatment
  2. Want to have to give a lot of the drug to people in order to harm/ number of patients who need to be exposed to a risk factor for 1 patient to be harmed
150
Q

BSE: How do you calculate attack rate?

A

AR = ill / (ill + well) X 100 (during a time period)

151
Q

BSE: How to calculate odds ratio?

A

OR = ad/bc

152
Q

BSE: How to calculate Relative risk?

A

RR = [a/ (a+b) ] / [ c/ (c+d) ]

M1 Block 4 (5 decks)

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