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M1 Block 4 > OPC Comprehensive > Flashcards

OPC Comprehensive Flashcards

1
Q

What is the movement of the sacral base during inhalation

A

Sacral base moves posterior
ILA moves anterior

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2
Q

During treatment of sacrum with a torsion dysfunction, how do you know if treat with 1 leg vs. 2?

A

2 leg: is L on L or R on R
1 leg: is R on L or L on R

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3
Q

What is the sacral base doing during exhalation

A

Sacral base moves anterior
ILA moves posterior

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4
Q

In the sacrum, what is the purpose of testing the MTA

A
  • MTA should match the seated flexion test
  • Evaluating the heights
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5
Q

What does a pathologic dysfunction of the sacrum indicate about L5?

A

Pathologic dysfunction on sacrum = L5 Type II

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6
Q

What does a physiologic dysfunction of the sacrum indicate about L5

A

Physiologic dysfunction of the sacrum indicates there is a Type I dysfunction

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7
Q

What does nutation mean?

A

Sacral flexion

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8
Q

What does counter nutation mean?

A

Sacral extension

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9
Q

What does TART stand for?

A

T: Tissue Texture Changes
A: Asymmetry
R: Range of Motion
T: Tenderness

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10
Q

What level of the vertebrae is the sternal notch?

A

T2

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11
Q

What is the rib associated with the sternal angle?

A

Rib 2

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12
Q

What is the level of the spine associated with spine of the scapula?

A

T3

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13
Q

What level of the spine is associated with the inferior angle of the scapula?

A

T7

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14
Q

What level of the spine is associated with the iliac crest?

A

L3-L4

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15
Q

What level of the spine is associated with PSIS?

A

S1-S2

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16
Q

What dermatome is associated with the nipple line?

A

T4 Dermatome

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17
Q

Which dermatome is associated with the umbilicus?

A

T10 Dermatome

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18
Q

What anatomic landmark is associated with T2?

A

Sternal notch

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19
Q

What anatomical landmark is associated with Rib 2?

A

Sternal angle

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20
Q

What anatomic landmark is associated with T3?

A

Spine of scapula

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21
Q

What anatomical landmark is associated with T7?

A

Inferior angle of the scapula

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22
Q

What anatomical landmark is associated with L3-L4?

A

Iliac crests

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23
Q

What anatomical landmark is associated with S1-S2?

A

PSIS

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24
Q

What anatomical landmark is associated with T4 dermatome?

A

Nipple line

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25
Q

What anatomical landmark is associated with T10 dermatome?

A

Umbilicus

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26
Q

What is the difference between the physiologic vs anatomic barrier of motion?

A

Physiologic: max point to which a patient can actively move a joint

Anatomic: max point to which a patient’s joint can be move passively

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27
Q

What is the difference between restrictive and pathologic motion barrier?

A
  • Restrictive: what is diagnosed for somatic dysfunction within physiologic ROM
  • Pathologic: result of disease/trauma/surgery/arthritis etc.
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28
Q

What axis and plane does flexion/extension occur in?

A

Flexion/Extension
- Axis: Transverse
- Plane: Sagittal

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29
Q

What axis and plane does rotation occur in?

A

Rotation
- Axis: vertical
- Plane: transverse plane

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30
Q

What axis and plane does sidebending occur in?

A

Sidebending

  • Plane: Coronal
  • Axis: Anterior/Posterior axis
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31
Q

List 5 possible tissue texture changes

A
  1. Temperature
  2. Texture
  3. Moisture
  4. Tension
  5. Edema
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32
Q

What tissue temperature change occurs in acute conditions?

A

Warm/Hot/Increased Temperature

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33
Q

What tissue temperature changes occur in chronic conditions?

A

Cool/slight change

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34
Q

What tissue texture changes occur in acute conditions?

A

Boggy/Spongy/Edematous

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35
Q

What tissue texture changes occur in chronic conditions?

A

Thin/Smooth

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36
Q

What tissue moisture changes occur in acute conditions?

A

Increased/moist

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37
Q

What tissue moisture changes occur in chronic conditions?

A

Dry

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38
Q

What tissue tension changes occur in acute conditions?

A

Rigid/board like

39
Q

What tissue tension changes occur in chronic conditions?

A

Ropy/stringy/fibrotic

40
Q

What tissue tenderness changes occur in acute conditions?

A

Sharp/intense/stabbing/throbbing

41
Q

What tissue tenderness changes occur in chronic conditions?

A

Achy
Dull
Burning
Gnawing

42
Q

What tissue edema changes occur in acute conditions?

A

Edema occurring

43
Q

What tissue edema changes occur in chronic conditions?

A

No edema present

44
Q

What tissue erythema changes occur in acute conditions?

A

Redness that lasts

45
Q

What tissue erythema changes occur in chronic conditions?

A

Pale,redness fades quickly or blanching occurs

46
Q

What is Fryette’s 3rd principle?

A

Motion in any one plain limits motion in the others

47
Q

What portions of the spine do Fryette’s principles apply to?

A

Thoracic
Lumbar vertebrae only

48
Q

List the common compensatory pattern:

A
  • OA: Sidebent R, Rotated L
  • Thoracic Inlet: Rotated R
  • Thoraco-lumbar: Sidebent R, Rotated L
  • Lumbosacral Junction: Sidebent L, Rotated R
  • Sacrum: Rotated L
49
Q

Describe the biomechanical model of osteopathic treatment

A

Focuses on removing structural dysfunction hindering normal motion

50
Q

Describe the Respiratory-Circulatory model of osteopathic treatment

A

Focuses on removing restriction with a goal of improving the motion of air, venous & lymphatic drainage as well as the flow of CSF

51
Q

Describe the Metabolic/Energetic model of osteopathic treatment

A

Focuses on improving structural relationships with the goal of decreasing physiologic work

52
Q

Describe the Neurologic model of osteopathic treatment

A
  • Focuses on removing dysfunction with a goal of restoring appropriate autonomic balance
  • Viscerosomatic reflexes
53
Q

Describe the Behavioral model of osteopathic treatment

A
  • Focuses on the actions/lifestyle of the patient with a goal of normalizing emotion/stress to decrease musculoskeletal manifestations
54
Q

On cervical spine where does the vertebral artery not pass through?

A

Does not pass through C7

55
Q

What innervates the sternocleomastoid?

A

CN XI

56
Q

In C spine, what does translation to the Left do?

A

Induces sidebending to the R

57
Q

In C spine, what does translation to the R do?

A

Indues sidebending to the L

58
Q

What is the superior facet orientation of the C spine?

A

BUM
Backwards
Upwards
Medial

59
Q

What does the transverse ligament of the atlas do?

A

Holds the dens in place
- Weakened in persons with Down’s syndrome & RA

60
Q

Describe sidebending and rotation in OA

A

Sidebending and rotation occur in opposite directions

61
Q

Describe the direction of sidebending and rotation in the lower cerical spine

A

Sidebending and rotation occur in the same direction

62
Q

How to screen AA in the neck?

A
  • Flex to 45 degrees to lock out rotation in the lower vertebrae
  • Rotation only
63
Q

What is the main motion of T spine?

A

Rotation

64
Q

What are the three joints found at the thoracic spine?

A
  • Costovertebral: head of rib and vertebral body
  • Costotransverse: articular part of the tubercle & TP
  • Costochondral: anterior end of rib & costal cartilage
65
Q

What form the thoracic inlet?

A

T1
1st rib
Manubrium

66
Q

What forms the thoracic outlet?

A

Scapulae
1st rib
Clavicles

67
Q

What is the difference between Functional scoliosis and Anatomic scoliosis?

A

Functional scoliosis: changes with sidebending into the convexity

Anatomic scoliosis: does not change with sidebending into the convexity (often related to undiagnosed anatomic short let)

68
Q

How to evaluate Adams Test?

A

Curve bends opposite side of high shoulder

69
Q

How many cervical vertebrae are there?

A

7

70
Q

How many thoracic vertebrae are there?

A

12

71
Q

What is the orientation of the superior facets of the thoracic vertebrae?

A

BUL

Backwards
Upwards
Lateral

72
Q

When are muscles used in respiration?

A

Forced Exhalation

73
Q

What secondary muscles are associated with rib 1 for forced respiration?

A

Rib 1: Anterior and middle scalene

74
Q

What secondary muscles are associated with rib 2 for forced respiration?

A

Rib 2: Posterior scalene

75
Q

What secondary muscles are associated with ribs 3-5 for forced respiration?

A

Pectoralis minor

76
Q

What secondary muscles are associated with ribs 6-8 for forced respiration?

A

Serratus anterior

77
Q

What secondary muscles are associated with ribs 9-10 for forced respiration?

A

Ribs 9-10: Latissimus dorsi

78
Q

What secondary muscles are associated with ribs 11-12 for forced respiration?

A

Ribs 11-12: Quadratus lumborum

79
Q

What does nutation mean?

A

Flexion of the sacrum occurring during exhalation

80
Q

What does counternutation mean?

A

Extension of the sacrum occurring during inhalation

81
Q

Which ribs are typical?

A

3-9

82
Q

Which ribs are false ribs?

A

8-10

83
Q

Which ribs are true ribs?

A

1-7

84
Q

What are ribs doing during inhalation

A
  • IOU
  • Inhalation: Out and Up
85
Q

What ribs are doing during exhalation:

A
  • EID
  • Exhalation: Down and In
86
Q

Which ribs are predominantly pump-handle?

A

1-5

87
Q

Which ribs are predominantly bucket handle?

A

6-10

88
Q

What does + standing flexion test mean?

A

Dysfunction of innominant occurs on the side of the + standing flexion test

89
Q

What does a hard end feel on a particular ITA indicate?

A
  • Hard end fell is to confirm which side is dysfunctional
  • ITA should match side of + standing flexion text
90
Q

Describe a viscerosomatic reflex?

A

Viscerosomatic reflex occurs when organ pathology manifests in somatic tissue

91
Q

What is the sympathetic innervation of the head and neck from?

A

T1-T4

92
Q

What bones make up the innominate?

A

Ilium
Ischium
Pubic bones

93
Q

The innominate articulates with the femur at the _____________ and the sacrum at the _____________.

A

Innominate articulates with the femur at the acetabulum
Innominate articulates with the sacrum at the SI joint

M1 Block 4 (5 decks)

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