Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

NURS 1900 > Week 2 > Flashcards

Week 2 Flashcards

1
Q

Why are vital signs important ?

A

They determine a baseline for future assessments

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

what are the guidelines for vital sign measurements ?

A

1) unregulated care providers may measure the vital sigs and the nurse responsible has to interpret and act on these measurements
2) use equipment that is functional and appropriate for the size and age of the patient
3) select equipment based on the persons conditions and characteristics
4) minimize environmental factors that may affect vital signs
5) use an organized step by step approach
6) approach patient in calm, caring manner while demonstrating profiency
7) use vital signs to determine indications for prescribed medication administration
8) Analyze vital sign measurement results
9) when vital signs appear abnormal, have another nurse take the vital signs
10) involve in the patient/and or caregiver in the vital sign assessment and finding

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is core temperature ?

A

temperatures of structures deep within the body

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

what do temperature control mechanisms do?

A

They keep the core temperature constant

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

normal body temperature range

A

36C to 38C - body surface temperatures fluctuate depending on blood flow to the skin and amount if heat lost to the external environment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

thermoegulation

A

the balance between heat lost and heat produced

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

what is the role of the hypothalamus ?

A

To control body temperature - it sense changes in the body temperature - when its too hot the nerve cells in the anterior hypothalamus go above the set point, impulses are then sent to reduce body temp - the posterior hypothalamus senses the temp is below the set point then impulses are sent to increase the body temp

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

what is a set point

A

A comfortable temperature

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

which part of the hypothalamus recognize an increase in body temp above set point

A

the anterior hypothalamus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

which part of the hypothalamus recognizes a decrease in body temp below the set point

A

the posterior hypothalamus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

what mechanisms are used to increase body temp

A

Vasoconstriction of blood vessels to decrease flow to skin and the extremities - muscle shivering

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

what mechanisms are used to decrease body temperature when its too high

A

sweating, vasodilation, inhibition of heat production

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Which process produces heat ?

A

metabolism - as metabolism increases more heat is produced and when metabolism decreases heat production decreases

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

when does heat production occur ?

A

rest, voluntary movement, involuntary shivering, non-shivering thermogenesis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Basal metabolic rate

A

heat produced at absolute rest

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

which hormone affects BMR ? how does it affect BMR?

A

the thyroid hormone affects bmr by promoting the breakdown of body glucose and fat

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

male sex hormone

A

testosterone increases BMR- men have a higher BMR than women

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Exercise

A

exercise increases BMR and heat production

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Shivering

A

is an involuntary body movement - significant energy is required for shivering which increases body temp - this heat equalizes body temperatures

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Why are babies and older individuals at risk for hypothermia

A

they are less likely to generate heat via shivering or preserve heat via vasoconstriction which puts them at risk for hypothermia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Non shivering thermogenesis

A

main source of heat generation in newborns - sympathetic nerve ending release norepinephrine to respond to chilling which stimulates fat metabolism in richly vascularized brown adipose tissue to produce internal heat that is then conducted to the surface

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

how is heat lost

A

conduction, evaporation, convection, radiation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Radiation

A

transfer of heat from the surface of one object to the surface of another without direct contact - radiation increases as the temp difference increases - if the environment is hotter than person we absorb heat - radiation can increase through removing clothing patients position enhances radiation - standing more SA to radiate heat - fetal position covered by something decreases heat

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Conduction

A

transfer of heat from direct contact - touch colder surface you will lose heat - touch a hotter surface the body gains heat

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Convection

A

transfer of heat away from body by air movement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Evaporation

A

transfer of heat when liquid is changed to gas - sweat

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Diaphoresis

A

visible perspiration which occurs primarily on the forehead and upper thorax - excess evaporation can cause skin scaling and itching, as well as drying of the nares and pharynx

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

what determines a persons ability to control body temperature

A

1) the degree of temp extreme 2) the persons ability to sense feeling comfortable or uncomfortable 3) though processes or emotions 4)the persons mobility or ability to remove or add clothes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Factors affecting body temperature ?

A

1) age - infants lose 30% of there heat from there heads - temp regulation is unstable until children hit puberty
2) exercise
3) hormone level - women have greater body fluctuations than men - progesterone increases body temp - menopause causes hot flashes which is caused the instability of the vasomotor controls
4) Circadian Rhythm - lowest between 0100 and 0400 hours - body temp rises steadily to about 1800 hours then declines back down to early morning levels
5) stress
6) environment (poikilothermia - depends on the level of the injury, high cervical injuries have a greater loss of ability to regulate temperature
7) temperature alterations ( Fever or pyrexia - the heat loss mechanisms cannot keep up with the rise in body temp - below 39C its ok) - pyrogens can cause a rise in body temperature - pyrogens are antigens, triggering the immune system responses - during the period the person may experience chills and shivers even though body temp is rising - once the chill phase subsides a new set point of high temp is achieved - the person feels dry and warm - once the pyrogens are removed the third phase of febrile (showing symptoms of fever) occurs (white blood production is stimulated, increased temp decreases iron in blood plasma which suppresses bacteria growth ) - when the fever breaks someone becomes afebrile (not showing symptoms of fever)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

why are fever patterns important ?

A

helps with making diagnosis - fever pattern differ depending on the pyrogen - fever of unknown pyrogen refers to a fever that does not have a determined cause

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

risks of fever

A

during fever cellular metabolism increases ad oxygen consumption rises - energy use increases due to increase in metabolism - increases metabolism required an increase in oxygen - risks of myocardial hypoxia produces angina (chest pain) - cerebral hypoxia produces confusion - oxygen therapy may be needed - water loss is excessive which causes dehydration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

hyperthermia

A

body temperature that is elevated as a result of the body inability to promote heat loss or reduce heat production which results from an overload of the body’s thermoregulatory mechanisms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Heatstroke

A

prolonged exposure to the sun or high environmental temperatures can overwhelm the bodies heat loss mechanisms - people old, very young, alcoholism, spinal cord injury, diabetes, cardiovascular disease, hypothyroidism - symptoms are confusion, delirium, excess thirst, nausea, muscle cramps, visual disturbances, giddiness, hot dry skin, vital signs as high as 45C increase HR and low BP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Heat Exhaustion

A

profuse diaphoresis results in excessive water and electrolyte loss - fluid volume deficit

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Hypothermia

A

heat loss prolonged exposure to cold overwhelms body’s ability to produce heat - loss of memory, depression, poor judgement, uncontrollable shivering - severe hypothermia causes death - 35C or less

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Frostbite

A

ice crystals form inside cells can result in circulatory and tissue damage (earlobes, tip of the nose, fingers, and toes) white, waxy, firm to touch, loss of sensation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

where are core temperatures measured ?

A

pulmonary artery, esophagus, urinary bladder

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

intermittent temperatures are measured from ?

A

mouth, rectum, tympanic membrane

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Types of thermometers

A

1) electronic thermometer
2) clinical strip thermometers - remove after 60sec tend to overestimate
3) glass thermometers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

during acute care, how may a health care provider try t0 intervene ?

A

the healthcare provider may try to find the cause by isolating the pyrogen via lab analysis - once the lab results are available the prescribed healthcare provider with give the correct antibiotics for the pyrogen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What happens when children get fevers ?

A

children usually get fevers from viruses - they immature temperature control mechanisms - febrile seizures are uncommon for children older than 6 years of age - children are also at risk of losing large amounts of water in proportion to there BW

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

what medications can be given to decrease fever ?

A

Antipyretics example:

nonsteroidal (acetaminophen, salicylates, indomethacin, and ketorolac) by increasing heat loss

corticosteroids reduce heat production

nonpahrmalogical methods would be via conduction, evaporation, convection, or radiation (hypothermia blankets, tepid sponge baths, bathing with alcohol water solution, ice packs, cooling fans)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

what are the solution for heatstroke ?

A

moving patient to cooler environment - reducing clothing - placing cool wet towels over skin -

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

what are the solutions for hypothermia ?

A

removing wet clothes, wrapping patient in blanket, forced air warming blankets, placed under blanket next to warm person in non healthcare setting, drink hot liquids - keep patients head covered
AVOID ALCOHOL AND CAFFIENE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

stroke volume

A

60 to 70 ml of blood enters the aorta with each ventricular contraction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

what happens with each stroke volume ejection ?

A

blood is pushed out of the heart - the walls of the aorta distend - this creates a pulse wave which reaches the peripheral arteries

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Pulse Rate

A

is the number of pulsing sensations occurring in one minute

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Cardiac output

A

the volume of blood pumped by the heart during 1 minute

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

how do you determine how much ml of blood is pumped out of the heart per minute ?

A

beats per minute (pulse rate) x stroke volume (ex: 70bpm x 70ml = 4900 ml per min)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

As heart rate increase…..

A

the heart has less time to fill - without a change in stroke volume - bp decreases

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

as the heart slows….

A

filling time increases - blood pressure increases

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

which artery is mainly used for the assessment of pulse ?

A

Radial artery - when a patient suddenly worsen the carotid artery is used - if the radial pulse cannot be used then the apical pulse can be assessed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

when should apical pulse be assessed ?

A

when patient takes medication that affects heart rate - apical pulse is more accurate assessment of cardiac function - infants an young children the apical or brachial pulse should be checked

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

heart sounds to focus on….

A

a normal slow rate (S) is low pitched and dull “lub” - higher pitched and shorter “dub” - count the number of lub dubs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Tachycardia

A

abnormally fast heart rate, more than 100bpm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Bradycardia

A

slow heart rate, less than 60 bpm

57
Q

what is a pulse deficit ?

A

an inefficient contraction of the heart rate that fails to transmit a pulse wave to the peripheral pulse site

58
Q

how to detect a pulse deficit ?

A

two people are req - one to asses the radial (brachial pulse) and the other to assess the radial pulse - the difference between the two is the pulse deficit ( radial pulse is 78 bpm and apical is 92 bpm the difference is 14 which is the pulse deficit

59
Q

Dysrythmia

A

an interval between each pulse or heartbeat that is early, late, or missed beat - if detected an EMG needs to be done

60
Q

what is the strength of a pulse

A

the strength of a pulse reflects the volume of the blood ejected against the arterial wall with each heart contraction

61
Q

what is the equity of pulses

A

pulses on both sides of the body need to be assessed to compare their characteristics - carotid pulse should not be assessed simultaneously b/c excessive pressure

62
Q

Ventilation

A

the movement of gases in and out of the lungs

63
Q

Diffusion

A

the movement of oxygen and CO2 between the RBCs and alveoli

64
Q

Perfusion

A

the distribution of RBCs to and from the pulmonary capillaries

65
Q

adult breathing pattern

A

12 to 20x per minute

66
Q

elevation in co2 levels

A

causes the respiratory control system in the brain to increase the rate and depth of breathing - this is done to remove excess co2 (hypercarbia) increased exhalation

67
Q

what happens when arterial O2 levels drop….

A

chemoreceptors in the carotid artery and the aorta become sensitive to HYPOXEMIA (low O2 levels) - the receptors send signals to the brain tp increase the rate and depth of ventilation

68
Q

what happens during inhalation ?

A

the respiratory center sends impulses along the PHRENIC NERVE, causing the diaphragm to contract - abdominal organs move downward and forward

69
Q

Tidal Volume

A

the amount of air that moves in and out of the lungs with each respiratory cycle (normal person inhales 500ml of air)

70
Q

Eupnea

A

is the normal rate and depth of ventilation

71
Q

why does sighing happen ?

A

eupnea is interrupted by sighing - sigh is prolonger deeper breathe which is a protective physiological mechanism for expanding small airways and alveoli that were not ventilated during normal breath

72
Q

why should you not let the patient know that you are assessing breathing ?

A

they may alter there breathing rate and depth - its better to measure respiration when measuring pulse

73
Q

what is apnea monitor

A

An apnea monitor is a respiratory monitoring device- used frequently with infants

74
Q

what is ventilatory depth

A

depth of respiration is assessed by observing the degree of excursion or movement in the patients chest wall - deep respiration is the full expansion with full exhalation

75
Q

Arterial Blood gases

A

pH: 7.35–7.45 mm Hg
PaCO2: 35–45 mm Hg
PaO2: 80–100 mm Hg
SaO2: 95%–100%

76
Q

Pulse oximetry (SpO2)

A

normal levels are 95 - 100% less than 85% is abnormal

77
Q

Specific tests of the complete blood cell count (CBC)

A

Hemoglobin: 135–180 g/L in male patients; 120–160 g/L in female patients
Hematocrit: 0.43–0.49 in male patients; 0.38–0.44 in female patients
Red blood cell count: 4.7–5.74 × 1012/L in male patients; 4.2–4.87 × 1012/L in female patients

78
Q

how is ventilatory rhythm assessed ?

A

the best way is to observe the abdominal movements -women’s abdominal movements are best observed from there upper chest because they use their thoracic muscles

79
Q

what happens when there is foreign body that interferes with the movement of air in and out of the lungs ?

A

the intercoastal spaces in the rib cage retract during inspiration

80
Q

what does a long expiration phase indicate ?

A

the outward flow is obstructed

81
Q

what is SaO2 ?

A

it is the saturation of hemoglobin (SaO2) - which is the percentage of Hemoglobin that is bound with oxygen in the arteries- normal range is 95 to 100%

82
Q

what is SvO2?

A

it is the saturation of venous blood - which is lower the SaO2 value - the normal value is 70%

83
Q

what is a pulse oximeter ?

A

permits the indirect measurement of oxygen saturation - an LED emits light wavelengths that are absorbed differently by oxygenated and deoxygenated hemoglobin molecules

84
Q

what is blood pressure ?

A

it is the force exerted on the walls of an artery by the pulsing blood under pressure from the heart

85
Q

what is systolic blood pressure ?

A

is it the maximum pressure when ejection occurs

86
Q

What is diastolic blood pressure ?

A

it is the minimal pressure exerted against the arterial walls - when the ventricles relax and the blood remaining in the arteries exert diastolic pressure

87
Q

how is blood pressure measured ?

A

mmHg is the unit used - systolic/diastolic

88
Q

what is pulse pressure ?

A

it is the difference between systolic and diastolic pressure

89
Q

relation of cardiac output and blood pressure ?

A

when the cardiac output increases - more blood is being pumped against arterial walls causing the blood pressure to rise- a greater heart increases the cardiac output

90
Q

what happens when heart rate increases rapidly ?

A

when heart rate increases rapidly than it decreases the hearts ability to fill, resulting in bp decreasing

91
Q

relation of blood pressure & peripheral resistance ?

A

the size of arteries and arterioles remain partially constricted to maintain constant blood flow - the local arteries and arterioles change size to adjust blood flow to local tissues - peripheral vascular resistance is the resistance to blood flow

92
Q

relation of blood volume and pressure ?

A

the volume of blood circulating within the vascular system affects blood pressure - more volume increases than more pressure is exerted against the arterial walls ( when circulation BV decreases due to hemorrhaging or dehydration than bp decreases)

93
Q

relation of blood pressure & viscosity ?

A

the thickness of the blood does affect the pressure - HEMATOCRIT (% of red blood cells in the blood) determines the blood viscosity - when hematocrit rises, the heart has to pump more forcefully to pump the viscous fluid which causes an increase in BP

94
Q

relation of elasticity and Blood pressure ?

A

walls of the artery normally are elastic to accommodate pressure changes but when certain diseases like arteriosclerosis where the arteries lose there elasticity the resistance to blood flow is greater - systemic pressure rises - systolic pressure is greater than diastolic pressure-

95
Q

relation of blood pressure & age ?

A

blood pressure varies throughout age - children have increasing (infant 65 to 115 mmHg systolic/42 to 80 diastolic) - adults bp increases with advanced age normal would be (l140/90 mmHg) - people with diabetes (130/80 mmHg)

96
Q

why would older people have higher systolic pressure ?

A

this is due to decrease elasticity in the vessels - bp higher than 140/90 is HYPERTENSION

97
Q

relation between stress and BP?

A

anxiety, fear, pain and emotional stress cause a stimulation of the Sympathetic nervous system

Heart Rate, Cardiac Output, Ventricular Resistance Increase

BP increases

98
Q

does ethnicity affect blood pressure ?

A

hypertension is higher in ethnic groups - environmental factors may be a contributing factor

99
Q

gender differences between blood pressure ?

A

men have higher BP after puberty and women have higher BP during menopause than men of a similar age

100
Q

does blood pressure vary throughout the day ?

A

yes, bp rises in the late afternoon and evening and declines in the early morning

101
Q

do medications affect blood pressure ?

A

yes, medications can indirectly and directly affect bp - antihypertensive drugs and other cardiac medications may lower bp

102
Q

what other factors affect blood pressure ?

A
  1. activity ( bp drops several hours after exercise and during exercise bp rises to meet oxygen demands)
  2. eating (bp rises in older people 1 hour after eating)
  3. obesity (factor in hypertension)
  4. smoking ( bp rises and drops back to normal 15 min after smoking)
103
Q

what is white coat hypertension?

A

bp rises during visit to health care provider

104
Q

what is masked hypertension ?

A

bp reading is normal with HCP but elevates when at home

105
Q

what is cardiovascular disease ?

A

people with a family history of hypertension have a risk of getting cardiov. disease - risk factors are obesity, smoking, salt intake, lifestyle, alcohol consumption, sedentary lifestyle)

106
Q

what is hypotension ?

A

the dilation of the arteries in the vascular bed, loss of substantial blood volume, or the failure of the heart muscle to pump adequately

107
Q

what symptoms are associated with hypertension ?

A

pallor, skin mottling, clamminess, confusion, increased HR, decreased urine output

108
Q

what is orthostatic hypotension (postural hypotension) ?

A

when a normotensive person develops symptoms of low blood pressure when rising to an upright position - when volume depleted person stands, bp drops significantly, HR increases to compensate for the drop in CO

109
Q

who is at risk for orthostatic hypotension ?

A

dehydrated individuals, anemic, prolonged bed rest or recent blood loss

110
Q

what is Sphygmomanometer ?

A

cloth or occlusive vinyl, pressure manometer,

111
Q

what are the two types of sphygmomanometer ?

A

aneroid (glass enclosed circular gauge - require regular calibration) & mercury

112
Q

how should blood pressure reading be done ?

A

when the patient is supine sitting position or standing position -

113
Q

what is an auscultatory gap ?

A

the temporary disappearance of sound -

114
Q

Define Disease ?

A

an objective state of health of ill health - the pathological process can be detected by medical science

115
Q

Define Illness ?

A

Is a subjective experience of the loss of health

116
Q

Define Health ?

A

Objective process of characterized by functional stability, balance and integrity

117
Q

Define Wellness ?

A

Subjective experience

118
Q

What are the different Health Conceptualizations ?

A
  1. Health as Stability: maintenance of physiological, functional, and social norms
  2. Health as Actualization: Actualization of human potential
  3. Health as Actuslization and Stability
  4. Health as Resource
  5. Health as Unity
119
Q

What is Labonte’s multidimensional conceptualization view of health ?

A
  1. feeling vitalized and full of energy
  2. Having satisfying social relationships
  3. Having feeling of control over ones life and living condition
  4. being able to do things that one enjoys
  5. having a sense of purpose
  6. feeling connected to community
120
Q

In modern times, what are the three approached to health ?

A
  1. Medical Approach: represents a stability orientation to health - health problems are defined as Physiological risk factors which are physiologically defined characteristics that are precursors to or risk factors for diease
  2. Behavioural Approach: lifestyles, environment, human biology and the organization of health care - this health field concept was widely used - the behavioural approach places responsibility for health on the individual which favours health promotion strategies
  3. Socioenvironmental Approach: health is closely tied to social structures such as air pollution and poor water quality
121
Q

What are the major determinants of health ?

A
  1. Income and social status: people with lower income have ower life expectanices, more likely to have chronic health problems, lower self esteem, lower sense of self - children born into low income families have low birth weights and are more likely to have chronic diseases
  2. Social Support Networks: social suppot affects health behaviours, health, and healthcare utilization, - studies have found that higher levels of support and mastery were associated with lower psychological stress
  3. Education and Literacy: literacy can affect both directly or indirectly - education increases job oppurtunity and income security - people with higher education smoke less, are more physically activem and have healthier foods
  4. Employment and working conditions: workplace stress is associated with physical injuries, high blood pressure, Cardiovascular disease, depression, and an increase in tobacco and alcohol use
  5. Physical Environments: lack of adequate housing is a concern and affects health directly, food security, second hand soke increases suddent infant death syndrome
  6. Biological and Genetic Endowment: hereditary is strongly ifluenced, age is also a social determinant of health
  7. Individual Health practice and Coping skills: Physical inactivity, poor nutrition, tobacco use
  8. Healthy Child Development (early life)
  9. Health services
  10. Gender
  11. Culture
  12. Social Environments: the array of values and norms of a society that influence in varying ways the health and well being of populations
122
Q

Define Health Promotions ?

A

is directed toward increasing the level of well being and self actualization

123
Q

Define disease prevention ?

A

action to avoid or forestall illness/disease

124
Q

what are the three levels of disease prevention ?

A
  1. Primary Prevention: activities that protect against disease before sigs and symptoms occur
  2. Secondary Prevention: activities that promote ealy detection of disease once pathogenesis has occured so that prompt treatment can be initiated (ex: prevention screening for cancer)
  3. Teritary Prevention: activities that are intiated in the convalescence stage of disease and are directed toward minimizing residual disability and helping people live productively with with limitations
125
Q

What are the different health promotion strategies?

A
  1. Build Healthy Public Policy
  2. Create supportive environments
  3. Strengthen Community Action
  4. Develop personal skills
  5. Reorient Health services
126
Q

What is the Indian Act ?

A

identified the federal governments role in providing health care services to first nations inuit

treaties were signed before the confedarion of with the british government and after with the government of Canada

These treaties enabled the direct delivery of healthcare to indigeneous people regardless of where they live in Canada including Primary Health Care (PHC) and emergency services o remote and isolated reserves

127
Q

What is the Truth and Reconciliation Commission (TRC) ?

A

considered and brough attention to the events and impacts of indian residential schools - TRC merged both truth and reconciliation in order to repair bonds and relationshios between Canadas indigineous and non indigineous people

128
Q

What are inpatients and outpatients ?

A

Inpatients who stay at an institution for diagnosis, treatmen, rehabilition and outpatients are ones who visit an institution for select services

129
Q

What are the different institutional sectors ?

A
  1. Hospitals: major healthcare agencies - most specializing in acute care services
  2. Long term care Facilities: 24 hour immediate and custodial care for residents of any age with chronic or debilitating illness or disabilities
  3. Psychiatric Facilities
  4. Rehabilitation centres
130
Q

What are the different Community Sectors ?

A
  1. Public Health: public health is committed to ensuring conditions and circumstances in which people can be healthy through appropriate screening, assessment, developement, monitoring and support
  2. Physician Offices
  3. Community health centres ad Clinics
  4. Assisted Living
  5. Home Care: provision of health care services and equipment to patients and families in their homes, residential settings, hospitals and ambulatory clinics
  6. Adult Day Support Programs: is an alternative to hospitalization
  7. Community and volunteer agencies
  8. Hospice & pallative care
  9. Occupational Health
131
Q

What are the levels of care ?

A
  1. Level 1: Health promotion
  2. Level 2: Disease and Injury prevention
  3. Level 3: Diagnosis and Treatment: which contains three subleves (Primary care which is the first contact the patient makes with the health care system that leads to decision making regarding a course of action - Secondary Care usually occurs in hospital or home settings and involves specialized medical service - Tertiary Care is specialized care in diagnosing and treating complicated health problems, tertiary care occurs in regional, teaching, university, or specialized hospitals
  4. Level 4: rehabilitation - the aim of rehabilitation is to improve the health and quality of life of those facing life altering conditions regardles of age of circumstances
  5. Level 5 Supportive Care: consists of health, personal, and social services provided over a prolonged period to people who are disabled, who do not functional independtly or have a terminal disease
132
Q

What is Critical Thinking ?

A

it is defined as a process and a set of skills

critical thinking requires purposeful and reflective reasoning to examine these ideas, assumptions, beliefs, principles, conclusions and actions within the context of the situation

The use of Evidence informed Knowledge which is knowledge based on research or clinical expertise which makes you an informed clinical thinker and improves patient outcomes

Critical thinking not only requires cognitive skills but also requires a nurses habit to ask questions, to be well informed, to be honest in facing personal biases, and always being able to reconsider and think differentlly about issues

Learning to apply these skills and establish critical thinking required time and practice

133
Q

What are the levels of critical thinking in nursing ?

A
  1. Level 1 Basic: thinking is concrete and based on a set of rules and priciples
  2. Level 2 Complex: you begin to seperate your thinking process from those of expert others and to analyze and examine choices more independently - consider other options
  3. Level 3 Commitment: assuming responsibility and accountability for your choices
134
Q

What are the components of critical thinking ?

A
  1. Specific Knowledge Base: knowledge base includes information and theory from the basic sciences, humanities, behavioural scieneces, and nursing - Building sound knowledge base demands that you also develope Information Literacy Skills which indicates proficency in knowing when information is needed and how to affectively find, retrieve, evaluate, and apply research findings
  2. Experience
135
Q

What are the critical Thinking competencies ?

A
  1. Scientific Method: is a systemic ordered approach to gathering data and solving problems that is used in nursing, medecine, and various other disciplines - consists of five steps (Identification of the problem, collection of data, formulation of reseacrh questions or hypothesis, testing of the question or hypothesis, evalution of the results of the test or study
  2. Problem Solving: imvolves evaluating the solution over time to be sure that it is still effective
  3. Decision Making: is a product of critical thinking that focuses on problem resolution
136
Q

What are Specific Critical Thinking Competencies in clinical situations ?

A
  1. Diagnostic Reasoning and Clinical Inference: Diagnostic reasoning is a process of determining the patients jealth status after you make physical and behavioural observations and after you assign meanings to the behaviours, physical signs, and symptoms exhibited by the patient - Clinical Inference is the process of drawing conlcusions from related pieces of evidence - Clinical Reasoning is a term used to describe the cognitive process of thinking about patients issues, making inferences, and deciding on the action to be implemented on a particular situation
  2. Clinical Decision Making: focuses on defining patient problems and selectiong appropriate interventions - clinical judgement consists of 4 components (noticing and grasping the situation, interperting or developing a sufficent understanding of the situation to respond, responding or deciding on a course of action, reflecting on the actions and the outcomes
137
Q

What are the standards for critical thinking ?

A
  1. Intellectual Standards: guideline or principle for rational thought
  2. Professional standards: consists of a ethical criteria - the code of ethics for registered nurses are based on core values that serve as a guide to ethical decision making
138
Q

What are the ways of developing critical thinking skills ?

A
  1. Case Based Learning: allows you to explore problems and engage in decision making w.o harming the patient
  2. Reflective Writing: uses the process of reflection - reflection allows you to examine your assumptions
  3. Concept Mapping: visual representation of patient problems ad interventions that depicts there relationship with one another

NURS 1900 (7 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions