Week 14 Flashcards

1
Q

What are the functions of the kidneys?

A
control of solutes and fluid status
blood pressure control
acid /base
drug metabolism / excretion
endocrine functions
metabolic waste excretion
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2
Q

What is the primary role of the kidneys?

A

to maintain fluid and electrolyte homeostasis in response to blood pressure and hormones

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3
Q

What is the function of the glomeruli?

A

filter plasma

not supposed to let through protein / cells / large molecules

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4
Q

What is the function of the tubules?

A

adjust filtrate content, with collecting ducts absorbing water

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5
Q

Describe measuring urinary protein excretion

A

24hr urine collection (grams/24hrs)

protein: creatinine ratio (PCR) on morning spot sample (mg/mol)
albumin: creainine ratio (mg/mol)

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6
Q

Describe haematuria

A

can be blood detectable on dipstick (non-visible haematuria)
visible haematuria-can come from anywhere in the urinary tract (kidneys, stones, infection, malignant, cysts, inflammation)

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7
Q

What is measured in U&Es?

A
sodium
potassium
chloride
urea
creatinine
eGFR
\+/- bicarbonate
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8
Q

Describe creatinine

A

breakdown product of muscle so plasm concentration affected by muscle mass
concentration affected by plasma volume
affected only slightly by diet
up to 15% secreted by renal tubule, so total urinary excretion = glomerular filtration + tubular secretion
Trimethprim blocks this - artificially raised

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9
Q

Describe urea

A
used less than plasma creatinine concentration because urea concentration is more affected by non kidney factors:
diet
dehydration
tissue breakdown - e.g corticosteroid
liver failure (lower levels
up to 40% may be reabsorbed
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10
Q

What is clearance?

A

volume of plasma which would be cleared of the substance per unit of time

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11
Q

What is renal clearance?

A

urine concentration X urine volume
/ plasma concentration of substance
usually expressed as ml/min
usually described as glomerular filtration rate

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12
Q

What is used to calculate the eGFR?

A

plasma creatinine concentration
age (adults only)
gender
race

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13
Q

Describe in what way eGFR assumes stable renal function

A

if today’s plasma creatinine concentration = 100micromols/L, but the patent has no kidneys or is making no urine, GFR=0
important for drug dosing
not suitable for AKI

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14
Q

Describe the staging of chronic kidney disease

A

> 90 - with another abnormality otherwise regard as normal = 1
60-89 - with another abnormality otherwise regard as normal = 2
30-59 - moderate impairment - 3
15-29 severe impairment = 4
<15 advanced renal failure = 5

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15
Q

Describe the basics of glomerulonephritis

A
inflammatory diseases involving the glomerulus and tubules
rare
variable natural history 
may be primary or secondary
few specific treatments
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16
Q

What are the targets for injury in glomerulonephritis?

A
mesangial cells
basement membrane (collagen IV)
epithelial cells (podocytes)
capillary endothelial cells
vasculature
tubular structures
integrity of glomerulus and tubules
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17
Q

What are the extrinsic mechanisms of glomerulonephritis?

A
antibodies
immune complexes
complement
cytokines
lymphocytes
other infiltrating cells
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18
Q

What are the intrinsic mechanisms of glomerulonephritis?

A
cytokines
growth factors 
TGF-beta, PDGF, IFN gamma
vasoactive factors
proteinuria
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19
Q

Describe kidney biopsy

A

required for clinical diagnosis of glomerulonephritis
biopsy of kidney cortex examined under:
light microscopy (glomerular and tubular structure)
immunoflourescence (looking for Ig and complement)
electron microscopy (glomerular basement membrane and deposits)
many diseases are a clinical and pathological spectrum

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20
Q

Describe RPGN

A

rapidly progressive glomerulonephritis - rapid rise in serum creatinine
crescentic damage
vasculitis / lugs. IgA: often have other clinical features

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21
Q

Describe nephritic syndrome

A

blood and protein in urine, high blood pressure, rising sCr
proliferative / acute inflammation
IgA / lupus / post-infectious

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22
Q

Give overview of nephrotic syndrome

A

> 3.5g/day proteinuria, low salt, oedema
non-proliferative, podocyte damage
minimal change/ FSGS/ membranous

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23
Q

Describe nephrotic syndrome

A

3.5g proteinuria per 24 hr
serum albumin <30
oedema

hyperlipidaemia
risk of venous thrombosis and infection also increased

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24
Q

Describe IgA nephropathy

A

infection? production of IgA
mesangial deposition of IgA
lysis of mesangium proliferation of MC, matrix production, healing or scarring
glomerulosclerosis, tubular loss, hypertensive damage
may be secondary to HSP, cirrhosis, coeliac disease
abnormal production of IgA, C3 deposition

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25
Q

What are the clinical features of IgA nephropathy?

A
haematuria
proteinuria
hypertension
renal impairment
resolve, persist, progress to ESFR
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26
Q

How is IgA nephropathy treated?

A

antihypertensives
ACE I
ARBs

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27
Q

Describe the pathophysiology of membranous GN

A

primary - production of Ab
Secondary - tumour? drugs? CTD?
deposition of, or formation of, IC in the GBM and mesangium
altered GBM charge, altered permeability, thickened GBM
glomerulosclerosis
tubular loss
hypertensive damage

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28
Q

Describe the clinical features of membranous GN

A

proteinuria
nephrotic syndrome
hypertension
renal impairment

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29
Q

Describe membranous GN

A

disease of adults
presents with the nephrotic syndrome
can be secondary to malignancy, CTD, drugs
anti-phospholipase A2 receptor antibody in 70%
IC in basement membrane / sup-epithelial space

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30
Q

How is membranous nephropathy treated?

A

treat underlying disease if secondary
supportive non -immunological - ACEi, statins, diuretics, salt and fluid restriction
specific immunotherapy - steroids, alkylating agents (cyclophosphamide), cyclosporin, alternatives (rituximab)
outcomes - complete remission, partial remission, ESRD, relapse, death

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31
Q

Describe minimal change disease

A

commonest form of GN in children
causes nephrotic syndrome
EM - foot process fusion
idiopathic but may be secondary to malignancy
acute presentation - may follow URTI
GFR - normal or reduced due to intravascular depletion
relapsing course

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32
Q

What is the treatment of minimal change disease?

A

high dose steroids (prednisalone 1mg/kg for up to 8 weeks

cyclophosphamide / calcineurin inhibitor

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33
Q

Describe the pathophysiology of post infectious GN

A
infection - streptococci, production of Ab/IC
deposition of AB/IC in mesangium etc
complement activation 
infiltration of leukocytes
destruction of glomerular cells
proliferation of epithelial cells
crescent formation
glomerulosclerosis
tubular loss
hypertensive damage
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34
Q

Describe the clinical features of post infectious GN

A
nephritic/ RPGN
haematuria
proteinuria
hypertension
renal impairment
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35
Q

Describe post-infectious glomerulonephritis

A

production of cross reactive Ab after group A strep infection
sub-epithelial I/C deposition
complement consumption and hypocomplementaemia
10-21 day latent period
oliguric ARF
resolves over weeks in most cases
may require dialysis

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36
Q

Describe crescentic GN / RPGN

A

a group of conditions linked by natural history./ histology
crescents on biopsy
progression to ESRF over a few weeks, untreated high mortality

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37
Q

What are common causes of crescentic GN / RPGN

A

goodpastures syndrome - anti-GBM antibody
pauci immune - microscopic polyangiits - MPO antibody (postive pANCA)
granulomatosis with polyangiitis (GPA) - PR3 antibody (positive cANCA
post infectious / bacterial endocarditis
lupus
idiopathic
rarely others - IgA nephropathy

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38
Q

What tests for diabetic nephropathy?

A

HbA1c / random glucose

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39
Q

What tests for vasculitis?

A

ANCA / anti GBM

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40
Q

What tests for membranous GN?

A

ANA/ PLA2R / virology

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41
Q

What tests for lupus?

A

complement / ANA / dsDNA

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42
Q

What tests for MPGN, FSGS?

A

complement / virology (hepB, C, HIV) Igs, RF

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43
Q

What tests for amyloid / light chain deposition?

A

SEP / BJP / SFLC

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44
Q

Name 4 systemic diseases associated with renal dysfunction

A

diabetes mellitus
atheromatous vascular disease
systemic lupus erythematosis
amyloidosis

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45
Q

In what 5 ways can systemic diseases manifest in the kidneys?

A
acute kidney injury
chronic kidney disease
nephritic syndrome 
proteinuria
nephrotic syndrome
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46
Q

Describe the pathophysiology of diabetic nephropathy

A
hyperglycaemia
volume expansion
intra-glomerular hypertension 
hyperfiltration
proteinuria
hypertension and renal failure
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47
Q

Describe the structural changes the glomerulus in diabetes mellitus

A

thickening of the glomerular basement membrane, fusion of foot processes, loss of podocytes with denudling of the glomerular basement membrane, and mesangial matrix expansion

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48
Q

What does the evidence recommend for the reduction of risk of diabetic nephropathy?

A

Tight glycaemic control
Good BP control - ACEi /ARB, SGLT2 inhibitors
aim for BP <130/80

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49
Q

Describe the action of SGLT2 inhibitors

A

prevent reabsorption of glucose and sodium
lowers blood pressure and blood glucose
main side effect- UTIs
can’t be used in late stage kidney disease

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50
Q

Describe the pathogenesis of renovascular disease

A

progressive narrowing of renal arteries with atheroma
perfusion falls by 20%
GFR falls but tissue oxygenation of cortex and medulla maintained
RA stenosis progresses to 70%
cortical hypoxia causes microvascular damage and activation of inflammatory and oxidative pathways
parenchymal inflammation and fibrosis progress and become irreversible
restoration of blood flow provides no benefit

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51
Q

Describe the management of renal artery stenosis

A

BP control (not ACEi / ARB)
statin
if diabetic - good glycaemic control

lifestyle - smoking cessation, exercise, (low sodium diet)

angioplasty - rapidly deteriorating renal failure, uncontrolled high BP on multiple agents
flash pulmonary oedema

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52
Q

Describe amyloidosis

A

deposition of highly stable insoluble proteins material in extracellular space
kideny, heart, liver, gut
specific ultrastructural features (8-10nm fibrils)
high affinity for the constituents of the capillary wall

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53
Q

What is the appearance of amyloid on light microscopy?

A

congo red stain

apple green befreingence

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54
Q

What is the appearance of amyloid on electromicroscopy?

A

amyloid fibrils

cause mesangial expansion

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55
Q

What are the 2 classes of amyloid?

A

AA - systemic amyloidosis - (inflammatory or infection

AL - immunoglobulin fragments from haematological condition - myeloma

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56
Q

HOw is amyloid treated?

A

AA - treat the underlying source of inflammation / infection
AL - treat the underlying haematological condition

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57
Q

Describe systemic lupus erythematosis

A

auto-immune disease
immune complex mediated glomerular disease
multiple auto-ABS - directed against DNA, histones, snRNPs, transcriptional / translational machinery

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58
Q

Describe the pathophysiology of lupus nephritis

A
auto-antiboeis produced against dsDNA or nucleosomes (anti-dsDNA, anti-histone)
form intravascular immune complexes or attach to GBM
activate complement (low C4)
renal ddadmage
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59
Q

Describe the diagnosis of lupus nephritis

A

renal biopsy to confirm diagnosis and stage disease

treatment - immunosuppresion - steroids / MMF/ cyclophosphamide / rituximab

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60
Q

What is a cyst?

A

sac like structure containing fluid
in the kidneys - these arise from the tubules
cause problems by compressing other structures, replacing useful tissue, becoming infected, bleeding, pain

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61
Q

Describe adult polycystic kidney disease

A

commonest inherited kidney disorder
autosomal dominant
PDK1 gene mutation (C16), most common and aggressive
PDK 2 gene mutations

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62
Q

Describe the impact of PKD1 and 2 gene mutations

A

code for polycystic 1 and 2
polycystins are located in the renal tubular epithelia (and in liver and pancreas ducts)
overexpressed in cyst cells
membrane proteins involved in intracellular calcium regulation
mechanism for cyst formation is poorly understood
genetic testing not routine

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63
Q

Describe the natural history of APKD

A

cysts gradually enlarge
kidney volume increases
some compensation
eGFR falls, usually 10 years before kidney fails

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64
Q

Describe the diagnosis of APKD

A

differentiate between simple renal cysts which are common as people get older
should get ultrasound at 21 if family history - 2 cysts, screened again at 30 if no cysts
no family history - 10 or more cysts on each side
CT or MRI more sensitive

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65
Q

What are the renal complications of APKD?

A

50% risk ESRD by age 50

cyst accidents 60%

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66
Q

What are the other complications of APKD?

A
hypertension
intracranial aneurysms
mitral valve prolapse
aortic incompetence 
colonic diverticular disease
liver / pancreas cysts 
hernias - volume of kidneys
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67
Q

What is the management of APKD?

A
supportive
early detection and management of blood pressure
treat complications
manage extra renal associations
renal replacement therapy
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68
Q

Describe Von HIppel Lindau

A

autosomal dominant condition causing multiple bengin and malignant neoplasms
renal cysts and multifocal renal cell carcinomas
other unusual tumours - phaechromoctytoma, haeangioblastoma, clear cell carcinoma of CNS

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69
Q

Describe tuberous sclerosis

A

autosomal dominant
benign hamartomas of multiple systems: brain, eyes, heart, lung, liver, kidney and skin
variable phenotype
up to 80% renal involvement - multiple renal cysts, renal angiomyolipomas, renal cell carcinoma
most have epilepsy, 50% have learning difficulties

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70
Q

Describe medullary cystic kidney disease

A

autosomal dominant
cysts at the corticosteroids-medullary junction
small to normal sized kidneys
hyperuricaemia and gout

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71
Q

Describe Alport’s syndrome

A

usually X-linked -
collagen 4 abnormalities - alpha 3 gene mutation, alpha 4 gene mutation or alpha 5 gene mutation
deafness and renal failure (can affect other organs including eyes)
microscopic haematuria, proteinuria, and ESRF
mainly on dialysis bu age 40
sensineural hearing loss late childhood
female aport’s carrier - 12 % ESFR by age 40

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72
Q

Describe Fabry’s disease

A

X-linked storage disorder
alpha galactosidase A deficiency resulting in accumulation of globotriaosylceramide (Gb3)
Gb3 accumulates in glomeruli, particularly podocytes causing proteinuria and ESFR - average age of onset 34
also causes neuropathy, cardiac and skin features
diagnosis - measure alpha Gal A activity in leukocytes
renal biopsy
management - enzyme replacement therapy

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73
Q

Describe cystitis

A
infection of the bladder
dysuria
frequency 
urgency 
suprapubic pain
haematuria
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74
Q

Describe pyelonephritis

A
infection of the kidney 
cystitis symptoms plus
fever >38
chills / riots 
flank pain
costo-vertebral angle tenderness
nausea / vomiting
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75
Q

What are the risk factors for UTI

A
infancy 
abnormal urinary tract
female
bladder dysfunction / incomplete emptying 
foreign body 
diabetes mellitus 
renal transplant 
immunosuppressants
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76
Q

How are UTIs diagnosed?

A

multisite
microscopy / flow cytometry
urine culture

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77
Q

Describe urine culture for UTI

A

obtain before starting antibiotics

clean catch supra pubic aspiration, catheter specimen

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78
Q

Describe antibiotics treatment of UTI

A

IV - ceftriaxone, gentamicin

oral - trimethoprim , cephalosporin, co-ampxiclav, nitrofurantoin

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79
Q

What are the pros and cons of ultrasound in UTI?

A

radiation free
readily available
good for dilated drainage tracts and cysts

operator dependent
less sensitive for scarring, parenchymal damage

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80
Q

Describe MCUG pros and cons

A

gold standard for VUR and PUV
radiation
invasive - UTI risk

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81
Q

Describe DMSA (static)

A
gold standard for scars
ectopic - duplex
differential fucntion
timing - acute or chronic
differentiating scars vs dysplasia
radiation
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82
Q

Describe MAG3 indirect cystogram

A

used for VUR study with no catheter needed
differential function
need continence and cooperation on bladder emptying
no PUV info available
misses low grade VUR

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83
Q

Describe MAG3 diureses renogram

A

gold standard for obstruction
furosemide also needed
operator interpretation

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84
Q

What are the risk factors for renal scarring?

A
age
high grade VUR
anatomical obstruction
dysfunctional voiding
frequent episodes of APN
therapeutic delay 
bacterial virulence factors 
host response
low birth weight
prenatal dysplasia
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85
Q

Name congenital abnormalities of jidey and urinary tract (CAKUT)

A

vesico-ureteric reflux (VUR)

obstruction of urinary drainage tracts

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86
Q

Describe VUR

A

retrograde passage of urine from the bladder to the upper urinary tract
higher risk of UTI and pyelonephritis
some will resolve spontaneously

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87
Q

Describe the management of VUR and UTI

A

medical - antibiotic prophylaxis for high grade VUR until toilet trained
surgical - recurrent , febrile UTI, new scarring, sting procedure

88
Q

Describe causes of bladder outlet obstruction

A

posterior urethral valve
prostatic hypertrophy
function obstruction - neurogenic bladder
prune belly syndrome

89
Q

Describe posterior urethral valve

A

commonest cause of obstruction in male infants
valve leaflets or circumferential diaphragm
presentation - antenatal hydronephritis, UTI, poor urinary stream, renal dysfunction
chronic renal failure
management- valve resection, antibiotic prophylaxis, CKD care

90
Q

Describe PUJO

A

commonest cause of hydronephritis in children
frequently noted on antenatal ultrasond
abdominal mass, pain, haematuria, UTI

91
Q

Describe vesicle-ureteric junction obstruction

A

anatomical narrowing v functional obstruction

antenatal dilatation: UTI, abdominal mass, haematuria

92
Q

What is AKI?

A

decline of renal excretory function over hours or days, recognised by the rise in serum urea and creatinine

93
Q

What are the classifications of AKI and give examples of each type

A

pre renal - circulatory failure “shock”
Renal - the cells of the kidney
post renal - obstruction

94
Q

Give examples of pre-renal causes of AKI

A
hypotension
hypo-volaemia
hypo-perfusion
hypoxia
sepsis
drugs
toxins
95
Q

What can cause renal obstruction?

A

calculi
tumours (ureter, bladder, prostate, cervix, ovarian)
lymph nodes (compression)
prostate

96
Q

What are the renal causes of AKI?

A

glomerulonephritis
drugs -gentamicin
tubulo-intersitial nephritis,
rhabdomyolysis

97
Q

Describe ATN

A

acute tubular necrosis
any pre renal cause of AKI if severe or prolonged
usually reversible

98
Q

What are the causes of ATN?

A

hypotension
sepsis
toxins

99
Q

What toxins can cause ATN?

A

exogenous - drugs, contrast, poisons

endogenous - myoglobin, haemoglobin, immunoglobulins, calcium, urate

100
Q

How is AKI diagnosis established?

A

bloods - both creatinine and urea up
potassium
urine output usually less than 400ml day
clinical assessment of fluid status (BP, JVP, oedema, heart sounds)
underlying diagnosis (history, exam and meds)

101
Q

Describe the treatment of AKI

A

immediate
airway and breathing
circulation - shock - restore renal perfusion, hyperkalaemia, pulmonary oedema
remove causes - drugs, sepsis
exclude obstruction and consider renal causes
ask for help - renal or ICU

102
Q

How is the cause of AKI established?

A
history and exam
drugs
urinalysis
renal ultrasound
GN screen - ANCA. ANA, immunoglobulins, EP, complement, aGBM, urine bench jones protein
others - blood film, LDH, CK etc
103
Q

What level of potassium is a medical emergency?

A

> 6.5

104
Q

What is the treatment of hyperkalaemia?

A

calcium glucondate 10ml 10% as cardiac membrane stabiliser
insulin 10-15 units actrapid + 50ml 50% dextrose moves potassium into cells
reduce absorption from gut - calcium resonium 15g 4 X day orally

105
Q

How should acidosis be treated in AKI?

A

if raised potassium and HCO3 <16 also worth bicarb supplementation
IV NaBicarb 1.26% IV

106
Q

What are absolute indications for dialysis?

A

refractory potassium >6.5 mol/l

refractory pulmonary oedema

107
Q

What are relative indications for dialysis?

A

acidosis (pH <7.1)
uraemia - pericarditis, encephalopathy
toxins (lithium, ethylene glycol etc)

108
Q

Describe recovery from ATN

A

often a polyuric phase for 48-72 hours
may be up to 6 L urine / day
often subsequent low K, Ca, Mg as low quality urine
tubules fail to concentrate urine

109
Q

What is CKD?

A

kidney damage of GFR <60ml/min for 3 month or more

110
Q

What are problems with serum creatinine as indicator of renal function?

A

slow recognition of loss of the first 70& of renal function
surprise at the sudden rise in creatinine with late renal referral
overestimation of function in women
overestimation of function in elderly
overestimation in inhere low muscle mass groups - amputees, quadriplegics, RA

111
Q

What can cause CKD?

A
diabetic nephropathy
renovascular disease
chronic glomerulonephritis
reflux nephropathy 
ADPKD
obstructive uropathy
112
Q

What are the symptoms of advanced CKD?

A
pruritus
nausea, anorexia, weight loss
fatigue
leg swelling
breathlessness
nocturia
joint / bone pain
confusion?
113
Q

What are the signs of advanced CKD?

A
peripheral and pulmonary oedema
pericardial rub 
rash/excoriation
hypertension 
tachypnoea
cachexia
pallor / lemon yellow tinge
114
Q

What are the general principles of CKD management?

A

targeted screening
interventions to slow rate of progression of CKD and reduce cardiovascular risk
medicines to replace impaired individual functions of the kidney
advanced planning for future renal replacement therapy
renal replacement therapy

115
Q

How can the progression of CKD be slowed?

A
aggressive BP control
good diabetic control
diet
smoking cessation
lowering cholesterol
treat acidosis
116
Q

Describe ACEi use in CKD

A

drug of choice if tolerated
reduction in eGFR of up to 25% in first few weeks is a good thing
will get more of a reduction if critical reduced renal perfusion
sick day rules

117
Q

Describe anaemia in CKD

A

common, particularly late
iron absorption and utilisation suboptimal
replace iron, B12 and folate first if low
ESA eg darbepoietin alfa 30m every 2 weeks
trigger usually Hb<100, target Hb - 100-120
higher associated with adverse CV events

118
Q

Describe bone mineral control in CKD

A

Don’t remove phosphate as well
don’t metabolise vitamin D
calcium low, phosphate huh
more PTH produced - further phosphate elevation and bone depletion
sometimes parathyroid gland can become metaplastic or form nodules and be unresponsive to serum calcium levels

119
Q

Describe CKD- MBD treatment

A

activated vitamin D - alfacalcidol
occasional Mg supplementations
phosphate binders
calcium based - calcium carbonate / acetate
non calcium - sevelamer, lanthanum, aluminium
calcimetic - cinacalcet
paratyhroidectomy

120
Q

What are the options in RRT?

A

conservative care
home based therapies
hospital based therapies - haemodialysis
transplant

121
Q

When should dialysis be started in CKD?

A
individual based on symptoms 
most GFR - 6-8 
no benefit to early start
weight loss and persistent nausea
persistent hyperkalaemia, acidosis, severe hyperphosphataemia or pruritis
problematic fluid overload
best to have permanent access
122
Q

What is pharmacokinetics?

A

the science of the rate of movement of drugs within biological systems, as affected by the absorption, distribution, metabolism and elimination of medications

123
Q

What is pharmacodynamics?

A

tidy of the biochemical and physiological processes underlying drug action

124
Q

What is bioavailability ?

A

fraction of the administered drug dose that reaches the systemic circulation

125
Q

What is the clearance?

A

volume of plasma cleared of drug per unit of time

126
Q

What is half life?

A

time required for serum plasma concentration to decrease by half
determined by clearance and volume of distribution

127
Q

Describe the influence of age on pharmacokinetics

A

decrease in total body water and increases in total body fat

variable changes in first pass metabolism due to variable decline in hepatic blood flow

128
Q

Give examples of water soluble drugs and the impact of ageing on their serum levels

A

lithium, aminoglycosides, alcohol, digoxin

serum levels may go up due to decreased volume of distribtion

129
Q

Give examples of fat soluble drugs and the impact of ageing on their serum levels

A

diazepam, thiopental, trazadone

half life increased with increased body fat

130
Q

Describe the influence of age on the liver

A

acetylation and conjugation fo not change with age
oxidative metabolism through cytochrome P40 system does decrease with ageing, resulting in a decreased clearance of drugs
hepatic blood flow variable

131
Q

Describe the influence of age on pharmacodynamics

A

some effects increased - alcohol, opiates, sedatives, theophyilline

some decreased - diminished HR response to isoproterenol and beta blockers

132
Q

give examples of drug disease interactions

A

patient with PD have increased risk of drug induced confusion
NSAID can exacerbate CHF
urinary retention in BPH patients on decongestants oe anticholinergics
constipation worsened by calcium, anticholinergics, calcium channel blockers
neuroleptics and quinolone lower seizure thresholds

133
Q

Give examples of common drug -drug interactions in the elderly

A

statines and erythromycin and other antibiotics
verapamil and beta blockers
warfarin and multiple drugs
ACEi increase hypoglycaemic effect of sulfonylureas

134
Q

Describe the effects of renal disease on pharmacokinetics and pharmacodynamics

A

decreased elimination
decreased protein binding
decreased hepatic metabolism

altered sensitivity to drug effect
adverse effects

135
Q

Which drugs are affected by decreased elimination in renal disease?

A
aminoglycosides
lithium
digoxin
methotrexate
penicillins
136
Q

Describe reduced protein binding in renal disesae

A
renal failure leads to acid retention
acidic drugs less bound to albumin
increased free drug in plasma 
usually not important
but for phenytoin the target concentration should be lower in renal failure
137
Q

Give examples of nephrotoxins

A

amphoteracin, gentamicin

138
Q

Give examples of important prescribing in renal disease

A
antibiotics - reduce dose
LMWH - reduce dose
metformin - avoid
NSAIDs- avoid
digoxin - reduce dose
phenytoin - reduce dose
ACE inhibitors -caution
139
Q

In what ways the hepatic impairment impact pharmacokinetics and pharmacodynamics?

A

first pass metabolism
activation of prodrugs
decreased protein binding
decreased elimination

altered sensitivity to drugs

140
Q

Which drugs have profound changes in bioavailability when first past metabolism is reduced?

A

cholmethioazole
verapamil
paracetamol

141
Q

Which drugs is the first pass activation reduced when there is hepatic impairment?

A

enalaprilm perindopril

142
Q

Describe high extraction drugs of the liver

A

metabolised at a high rate by the liver
rate varies with delivery
affected by changes in blood flow
morphine, verapamil, lignocaine

143
Q

Describe low extraction drugs of the liver

A

metabolised at a low rate by the liver
independent of blood flow
sensitive to changes in liver enzyme acitivty
chloramphenicol, theophylline

144
Q

describe the effects on pharmacodynamics of drugs in liver impairment

A
sensitive to sedatives
sensitivity to oral anticoagulants 
precipitation of encephalopathy
fluid retention
hepatorenal syndrome
145
Q

Which drugs need care when prescribing to a patient with hepatic impairment?

A
some antibiotics
valproate
warfarin
sedatives
verapamil
146
Q

What impacts can congestive cardiac failure have on drugs?

A

absorption
hepatic elimination
renal elimination
(due to fluid retention)

147
Q

What gastrointestinal conditions can have an effect on drugs?

A

achlorydia
Crohn’s disease
post-operative issues

148
Q

What are the risk factors for prostate cancer?

A
age
familial genetic factor - 1q, 8p, Xp, BRCA2, PTEN, TP53
hormones
racial factors
geographic variations
149
Q

What are the symptoms of prostate cancer?

A
often asymptomatic
painful or slow micturation
urinary tract infection
haematuria
urinary retention
lymphodema

metastatic- bone pain, renal failure - ureteric obstruction

raised PSA level

150
Q

How is prostate cancer diagnosed and screened for?

A

DRE - digital rectal examination
PSA - prostate-specific antigen
TRUS - guided needle biopsy

151
Q

Describe the pathology of prostate cancer

A

majority is primary adenocarcinoma
usually arises in peripheral zone of prostate
gleason grading

152
Q

Describe prostate specific antigen

A

serine protease secreted into seminal fluid
responsible for liquefaction of seminal coagulation
small proportion leaks into circulation
tissue not tumour specific
tends to rise with age
depends on prostate size

153
Q

What are the treatment options for localised prostate cancer?

A
watchful waiting
active surveillance
radiotherapy
radical prostatectomy
cryotherapy
TURP if symptomatic
154
Q

What are two serious metastatic complications of prostate cancer?

A

spinal cord compression

ureteric obstruction

155
Q

What are the treatment options of advanced prostate cancer?

A

androgen ablation therapy - medical castration (LNRH analogue) or surgical castration (orchidectomy)
chemothrerapy
TURP for relief of symptoms
radiotherapy

156
Q

What are the risk factors for bladder cancer?

A
age
race
environmental carcinogens 
chronic inflammation - stones, infection, long term catheters
drugs - phenacetin, cyclophosphamide 
pelvic radiotherapy 
occupation
157
Q

Describe presentation and diagnosis of bladder cancer

A

classically painless frank haematuria
all should have cystoscopy, renal USS/ KUB
cystoscopy is mandatory
some present with microscopic haematuria

158
Q

Describe the pathology of bladder cancer

A

transitional cell carcinoma (superficial / invasive)
squamous carcinoma
adenocarcinoma
other secondaries

159
Q

Describe the initial treatment of bladder cancer

A

diagnosed at flexible cystoscopy
urgent TURBT
CT IVU
bimanual examination carried out at TURBT
intravesicle mitomycin reduces risk of recurrence

160
Q

Describe the treatment of low grade superficial transitional cell carcinoma

A

low risk of progression
flexible check cystoscopy 3 months
30% chance recurrence
course of 6 weekly mitomycin treatments given for specific tumours

161
Q

Describe the treatment of bladder cancer in situ

A

high recurrence risk
high risk of progression to muscle invasive disease
do early check cytlscopy and re biopsy
treat with intravesical BCG immunotherapy
course of 6 weekly installations then further cystoscopy / biopsy
cystectomy if treatment fails

162
Q

Describe the treatment of invasive bladder cancer

A

require radical therapy
radical cystectomy or radiotherapy
radiotherapy poor if multifocal disease r widespread CIS
neo-adjuvant chemotherapy

163
Q

Describe radical cystectomy

A

bladder and prostate / uterus removed
urine diverted into an ilial conduit or an orthotropic neobladder
complex surgery
high mortality
sometimes required after radiotherapy failure

164
Q

Describe the treatment of metastatic bladder cancer

A

often pulmonary
treat with chemotherapy
classic M-VAC- methotrexate, vinblastine, doxorubicin, cisplatin
highly toxic

165
Q

What are the main types of renal cancer

A

renal cell carcinoma
transitional cell carcinoma
sarcoma
metastases

166
Q

What are the risk factors for renal cancer?

A
smoking
obesity
hypertension
acquired renal cystic disease
haemodialysis 
genetics - VHL, tuberous sclerosis
167
Q

What is the presentation of renal cancer

A
80% incidental
systemic symptoms - night sweats, fever, fatigue, weight loss, haemoptysis
classic triad - mass, pain, haematuria
varicocele
lower limb oedema
paraneoplastic syndrome
168
Q

What are the paraneoplastic syndromes associated with renal cancer?

A

polycythaemia
hypercalcaemia (PTH like substance or osteolytic hypercalcaemia)
hypertension
deranged LFTs
ACTH, enteroglucagon, prolactin, insulin, gonadotropins

169
Q

Describe the diagnosis of renal cancer

A
USS
FBC, UE, LFT, CRP, bone profile, LDH
CT kidneys / MRU
renal biopsy
CT chest
170
Q

What is the is the treatment of a small renal mass?

A

biopsy
treatment
nephron sparing surgery, partial nephrectomy, cryotherapy, radical nephrectomy, surveillance

171
Q

What are the indications for NSS?

A

single kidney
CKD
CV risk factors
pT1a tumours

172
Q

Describe radical nephrectomy

A

removal of kidney and Gerota’s fascia

sparing adrenal gland

173
Q

What are the risk factors for testicular cancer?

A

age - 20-45
cryporchidism
HIV
caucasian

174
Q

What are the clinical features of testicular cancer?

A

majority - painless lump

investigations - tumour markers, alpha-fetoprotein, beta hCG, LDH

175
Q

What are the different classes of testicular cancers?

A
seminoma
teratoma
mixed
yolk sac
leydig
sertoli
lymphoma
metastases
176
Q

What is the treatment of testicular cancer?

A

radical orchidectomy
chemotherapy
para-aortic nodal radiotherapy
retroperitoneal lymph node dissection

177
Q

Describe penile cancer

A

rare
associated with HPV virus and smoking
premalignant lesions
even rarer in males circumcised at birth

178
Q

What is the treatment of penile cancer?

A
circumcision 
topical treatment 
penectomy
lymphadenectomy 
chemo-radiotherapy
179
Q

Why do kidney stones form?

A

abnormal urine
urinary obstruction
urinary infection

180
Q

How do stones for from abnormal urine?

A
under-saturated
too much salt
not enough water
lack of inhibitors
abnormal proteins
181
Q

Describe how stones can form as a result of too much salt

A

abnormal blood- too much calcium - hyperparathyroidism, sarcoid etc

too much acid - metabolic syndrome

abnormal urine = renal tubular acidosis

Hypercalciuria - excrete excess calcium with normal serum caclium

hyperoxaluria - primary - kidney dysfucntion
enteropathic - short bowel

182
Q

What are the normal inhibitors of stone formation?

A

citrate
magnesium
pyrophosphate
glyoproteins

183
Q

What are substances that promote stone formation?

A

THP

matrix substance A

184
Q

What factors affect stone formation?

A

low volume
low pH
low citrate
low magnesium

high uric acid
high calcium
high oxalate

185
Q

Describe urinary obstruction of renal stones

A
congenital 
medullary sponge kidney 
PUJ obstruction
mega ureter
ureterocele

acquired
ureteric stricture
anastomotic stricture

186
Q

Describe how urinary infections can lead to stones

A

urease producing organisms

proteus mirablis
splits urea- forms ammonium
raises urine pH
struvite (magnesium, ammonium phosphate and some calcium phosphate)

187
Q

What type of stones are there?

A

calcium - mixed
calcium oxalate monohydrate or dehydrate, calcium phosphate

infection - struvite

uric acid stone- not seen on xray (rising with obesity)

others

188
Q

How do stones present?

A

incidental
pain
haematuria
UTI or sepsis

189
Q

What are the initial investigations for stones?

A

history and exam
bloods - U&E, CRP, FBC
urine - non visible haematuria
imaging - CT KUB

190
Q

Describe the biochemical workup of first stone

A
U&amp;E
calcium
urate
urine dip
sodium nitroprusside
stone analysis
191
Q

Describe the workup for recurrent stones

A
U&amp;E
calcium
urate
venous bicarbonate
2 X24 hour urine analysis
192
Q

How are stones managed?

A

observation
medical therapy - dissolution therapy (urate)
non invasive therapy
invasive therapy

193
Q

What is the medical management of stones causing acute pain?

A

analgesia
NSAIDs or opiates?
medical expulsive therapy

194
Q

What are the surgical options for treatment of kidney stones?

A
extracorporeal shockwave lithotripsy
Rigid uteroscopy and fragmentation / basket extraction
flexible ureteroscopy
percutaneous nephrolithotomy
emergency stent or nephrostomy
195
Q

Describe ESWL

A

best for proximal ureteric stones
generate shockwaves external to break down stones
needs analgesia
stone density

196
Q

Describe ureteroscopy

A

best for ureteric stones or renal <2cm
rigid or flexible
basket and laseer
needs anaesthetic

197
Q

Describe PCLN

A

best for stones >2cm in kidney
direct access to kidney via skin to fragment or extract stones
needs general anaesthetic

198
Q

Describe laparoscopic and open surgery for kidney stones

A

huge ureteric stones
non functioning kidney
reconstruction needed

199
Q

Describe infected obstructed systems

A

urological emergency
full history and exam
sepsis 6
renal function, inflammation markers, coagulation screen
urgent imaging - USS/ CT
urgent decompression of an obstructed infected collecting system by nephrostomy or ureteric stenting

200
Q

What are the absolute indications for RRT?

A

hyperkalaemia
acidosis
uraemia
fluid overload

201
Q

What are the symptoms in CKD which prompt start of dialysis?

A
anorexia
vomiting
itch
restless legs
weight loss
metallic taste
202
Q

What are the aims of dialysis?

A
homeostasis
removal of nitrogenous waste products
maintenance of normal electrolyse 
maintenance of normal extracellular volume
correction of metabolic acidosis
203
Q

What are the two aims of haemodialysis?

A

removal of solutes - potassium, urea (by diffusion)

removal of fluid ) convection

204
Q

Describe diffusion in dialysis

A

movement of solutes by diffusion down a concentration gradient so blood solute concentration falls

205
Q

Describe convection in dialysis

A

movement of fluid by convection down a pressure gradient so blood volume falls

206
Q

Describe the practicalities of HD

A

hospital or home based
standard 4h / 3 days per week
home based treatment gives greater flexibility and empowerment but need carer, space and capital investment

207
Q

How is vascular access achieved in HD?

A

anteriovenous fistula - radiocephalfc / brachiocephalic

tunneled line

208
Q

What are the complications of HS?

A
crash hypertension
dialysis disequilibrium
cramps 
fatigue 
hypokalaemia
air embolism
blood loss
access problems
209
Q

What are the principles of peritoneal dialysis?

A

peritoneal membrane - diffusion

glucose as osmotic agent- osmosis

210
Q

Describe the practicalities of PD

A
home based therapy
better with some residual renal function
different glucose concentrations of dialyse to provide more or less filtration
gradual treatment- not good for AKI
simple procedure once taught 
maintain independence
211
Q

What are the complications of PD?

A
infections - peritonitis 
glucose load - diabetes, weight gain 
hernia, diaphragmatic leak, dislodged catheter 
peritoneal membrane failure
hypoalbuminaemia
encapsulating peritoneal sclerosis
212
Q

Which patients are not suitable for PD?

A

grossly obese
intra-abdominal adhesions
frail
home not suitable

213
Q

What choice considerations are used to decide on RRT?

A
lifestyle 
frailty 
time 
carer
physical -concurrent medical problems, disseminated malignancy, sever dementia, severe psychiatric disease
214
Q

What problems are not addressed by dialysis?

A

anaemia
renal bone disease
neuropathy
endocrine disturbances

215
Q

What are the pros of kidney transplant?

A
no dialysis
better level of renal function
can live more independently 
better life expectancy 
better fertility
216
Q

What are the cons of kidney transplant?

A
immunosuppressive medication
increased cardiovascular risk
increased infection
post tranplant diabetes
skin and other malignancies