week 12 sherpath Flashcards

1
Q

In which time frame would a nurse expect omeprazole to reach its peak concentration?

0.5 hour

1 hour

2 hours

4 hours

A

2 hours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Which statement regarding the pharmacokinetic profile of esomeprazole is inaccurate?

“Esomeprazole is well absorbed after oral administration.”

“The drug is less than 50% protein bound.”

“Esomeprazole is extensively metabolized in the liver.”

“The drug undergoes excretion in the urine.”

A

“The drug is less than 50% protein bound.”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Which statements are true about the pharmacokinetics of omeprazole and esomeprazole?

Select all that apply.

Omeprazole is more protein bound than esomeprazole.

Esomeprazole is metabolized more slowly than omeprazole.

Esomeprazole is excreted in the urine, while omeprazole is excreted in the feces.

Esomeprazole is metabolized in the liver, while omeprazole undergoes biliary -metabolism.

Esomeprazole achieves a higher blood level and has longer-lasting effects compared with omeprazole.

A

Esomeprazole is metabolized more slowly than omeprazole.

Esomeprazole achieves a higher blood level and has longer-lasting effects compared with omeprazole.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Which dosage and administration protocol would a nurse follow with the administration of intravenous esomeprazole to Ms. Contreras?

If given as an injection, it will be given over 1 minute.

It may be given with other intravenous medications.

If given as an infusion, it will be administered over 10 to 30 minutes.

The freeze-dried powder will be reconstituted with 5 mL of dextrose 5% in water.

A

If given as an infusion, it will be administered over 10 to 30 minutes.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Which drug interaction and outcome does the nurse anticipate will occur in Ms. Contreras with administration of esomeprazole?

Digoxin: Increased digoxin exposure

Digoxin: Decreased digoxin exposure

Ibuprofen: Increased ibuprofen exposure

Ibuprofen: Decreased ibuprofen exposure

A

Digoxin: Increased digoxin exposure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Which patient parameters would a nurse ensure are assessed before a patient receives oral esomeprazole?

Select all that apply.

Medication history

Gastrointestinal (GI) history

Risk for and history of osteoporosis

Risk for and history of hypertension

Risk for and history of hypothyroidism

A

Medication history

Gastrointestinal (GI) history

Risk for and history of osteoporosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Which teaching points would a nurse share with a 33-year-old female patient who has been prescribed omeprazole delayed-release capsules for Zollinger-Ellison syndrome?

Select all that apply.

“Take omeprazole at least 1 hour before a meal.”

“Do not crush, chew, split, or open the omeprazole capsule.”

“You may experience headache and diarrhea with omeprazole.”

“Avoid alcohol while receiving omeprazole because it will decrease the absorption of the drug.”

“Use contraception and alert your health care provider if you suspect you are pregnant while taking omeprazole.”

A

“Do not crush, chew, split, or open the omeprazole capsule.”

“You may experience headache and diarrhea with omeprazole.”

“Use contraception and alert your health care provider if you suspect you are pregnant while taking omeprazole.”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Which statement by the nursing student about the mechanism of action of proton pump inhibitors (PPIs) requires further intervention?

“PPIs inhibit active parietal cell acid secretion.”

“They inhibit ATPase that generates gastric acid.”

“They promote irreversible hydrogen or potassium ATPase inhibition.”

“PPIs work by blocking histamine2 receptors, which reduces gastric acid secretion.”

A

“PPIs work by blocking histamine2 receptors, which reduces gastric acid secretion.”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

In which time frame would a patient expect to experience effects from esomeprazole?

1 hour

2 hours

4 hours

6 hours

A

1 hour

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Which statement regarding the pharmacodynamic profile of omeprazole is accurate?

The onset of action of omeprazole is 2 hours.

Omeprazole’s duration of action is up to 24 hours.

The elimination half-life of omeprazole is 0.5 to 1 hour.

The elimination half-life of omeprazole is reduced in patients with liver dysfunction.

A

The elimination half-life of omeprazole is 0.5 to 1 hour.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Which medical conditions would a nurse recognize that oral esomeprazole may be used to treat?

Select all that apply.

Gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD)

Crohn disease

Duodenal ulcers

Nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drug (NSAID)-induced ulcers

Zollinger-Ellison syndrome

A

Gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD)

Duodenal ulcers

Nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drug (NSAID)-induced ulcers

Zollinger-Ellison syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Which patients would a nurse determine require cautious use of or avoidance of esomeprazole?

Select all that apply.

A 70-year-old Asian patient with hypertension

A 73-year-old Caucasian patient with osteoporosis

A 29-year-old Hispanic patient who is breastfeeding

A 54-year-old Caucasian patient with alcoholic cirrhosis

A 38-year-old Hispanic patient with type 2 diabetes mellitus

A

A 70-year-old Asian patient with hypertension

A 73-year-old Caucasian patient with osteoporosis

A 29-year-old Hispanic patient who is breastfeeding

A 54-year-old Caucasian patient with alcoholic cirrhosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Which outcome would a nurse anticipate from the drug interaction that may occur in a patient who is receiving diazepam and has been newly prescribed omeprazole?

Increase in serum concentration of diazepam

Decrease in serum concentration of diazepam

Increase in serum concentration of omeprazole

Decrease in serum concentration of omeprazole

A

Increase in serum concentration of diazepam

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

A patient who is receiving omeprazole has been prescribed clopidogrel following stent placement. Which outcome does a nurse alert the health care provider about resulting from the drug interaction?

Increase in activation of clopidogrel

Decrease in activation of clopidogrel

Increase in activation of omeprazole

Decrease in activation of omeprazole

A

Decrease in activation of clopidogrel

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

A 93-year-old patient with gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) is prescribed esomeprazole. The patient is immobile in a skilled nursing facility, is frail, and experienced a stroke a year ago. Which adverse effects of esomeprazole will the nurse be concerned about in this patient?

Select all that apply.

Diabetes

Dementia

Pneumonia

Osteoporosis

Thyroid dysfunction

Hip or vertebral fracture

A

Dementia

Pneumonia

Osteoporosis

Hip or vertebral fracture

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Match the laxative with its associated drug class.

Osmotic

Stimulant

Selective Chloride Channel Activator

Emollient

Answer choices

Lubiprostone

Docusate sodium

Bisacodyl

Lactulose

Psyllium

A

Osmotic
Lactulose

Stimulant
Bisacodyl

Selective Chloride Channel Activator
Lactulose

Emollient
Bisacodyl

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Which statement by the nursing student regarding the pharmacokinetic parameters of lubiprostone requires further intervention?

“Lubiprostone has low systemic availability with oral administration.”

“The drug is 94% protein bound with minimal distribution outside of the gastrointestinal (GI) tract.”

“Lubiprostone is quickly metabolized in the stomach and jejunum by the cytochrome P450 (CYP450) system.”

“The drug is excreted mostly in urine and some in feces.”

A

“Lubiprostone is quickly metabolized in the stomach and jejunum by the cytochrome P450 (CYP450) system.”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

In which time frame would a nurse expect to note the effects of oral bisacodyl in a patient?

15 to 60 minutes

2 to 4 hours

6 to 12 hours

10 to 12 hours

A

6 to 12 hours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

To which classification of antidiarrheal drugs does bismuth subsalicylate belong?

Opiates

Probiotics

Adsorbents

Anticholinergics

A

Adsorbents

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Which statements regarding the pharmacodynamic parameters of loperamide are accurate?

Select all that apply.

The onset of action for loperamide is 1 hour.

The capsule formulation of loperamide has a time to peak concentration of 30 minutes.

The liquid formulation of loperamide has a time to peak concentration of 2.5 hours.

The duration of action of loperamide is 24 hours.

Loperamide’s elimination half-life ranges from 5 to 6 hours.

A

The onset of action for loperamide is 1 hour.

The liquid formulation of loperamide has a time to peak concentration of 2.5 hours.

The duration of action of loperamide is 24 hours.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Which patient parameters would a nurse ensure are assessed before administering bisacodyl to a 17-year-old female patient?

Select all that apply.

Blood urea nitrogen (BUN)/Serum creatinine (SCr)

Bowel patterns

Blood pressure (BP)

Liver function tests

History of eating disorders

A

Blood urea nitrogen (BUN)/Serum creatinine (SCr)

Bowel patterns

Blood pressure (BP)

History of eating disorders

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

A nurse determines that patients with which conditions can safely receive laxative therapy?

Select all that apply.

Dyslipidemia

Osteoarthritis

Hypothyroidism

Fecal impaction

Intestinal obstruction

A

Dyslipidemia

Osteoarthritis

Hypothyroidism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Which outcome would a nurse anticipate will occur as a result of a drug interaction in a patient who is taking psyllium and has been prescribed tetracycline for an infection?

Increased effects of psyllium

Decreased effects of psyllium

Increased absorption of tetracycline

Decreased absorption of tetracycline

A

Decreased absorption of tetracycline

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Which patient statement about glycerin administration and effects requires further intervention?

“I can expect the laxative effect to occur in about 1 hour.”

“I should try to keep the suppository in for about 15 to 30 minutes.”

“The suppository does not need to melt for a bowel movement to occur.”

“I should insert one suppository into my rectum once or twice daily as needed for constipation.”

A

“I can expect the laxative effect to occur in about 1 hour.”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Which adverse effects would a nurse monitor for in a patient receiving lubiprostone for irritable bowel syndrome?

Select all that apply.

Hypertension

Severe diarrhea

Urinary tract infection (UTI)

Intestinal nerve damage

Upper respiratory tract infection

A

Severe diarrhea

Urinary tract infection (UTI)

Upper respiratory tract infection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Which side effects would the nurse alert Mr. Frank to be monitored for while receiving loperamide?

Select all that apply.

Tinnitus

Drowsiness

Dark stools

Urinary retention

Metallic taste and black tongue

A

Drowsiness

Urinary retention

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Which patients would a nurse determine cannot safely receive treatment with loperamide without consultation with a health care provider?

Select all that apply.

A patient with gout

A patient with liver disease

A patient with ulcerative colitis

A patient who has misused opioids

A patient with type 2 diabetes mellitus

A

A patient with liver disease

A patient with ulcerative colitis

A patient who has misused opioids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Which outcome would a nurse anticipate would occur in a patient taking bismuth subsalicylate and aspirin as a result of a drug interaction?

Increased effect of bismuth subsalicylate

Decreased effect of bismuth subsalicylate

Increased risk for bleeding, bruising, and confusion

Decreased risk for bleeding, bruising, and confusion

A

Increased risk for bleeding, bruising, and confusion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Match the laxative with its associated mechanism of action.

Draws water into the intestine to relieve constipation

Softens and increases bulk of digested food

Increases water in stools to soften it so it is more comfortable to pass

Activates chloride channels to enhance intestinal fluid secretion

Answer choices

Psyllium

Lubiprostone

Mineral oil

Polyethylene glycol

A

Draws water into the intestine to relieve constipation
Polyethylene glycol

Softens and increases bulk of digested food
Psyllium

Increases water in stools to soften it so it is more comfortable to pass
Mineral oil

Activates chloride channels to enhance intestinal fluid secretion
Lubiprostone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Which statements regarding the pharmacodynamics of bismuth subsalicylate are accurate?

Select all that apply.

The onset of action for bismuth subsalicylate is 1 hour.

The duration of action of bismuth subsalicylate is 12 hours.

The time to peak concentration of bismuth subsalicylate is 2 hours.

The elimination half-life of bismuth is 24 hours.

The elimination half-life of salicylate is 2 to 5 hours.

A

The onset of action for bismuth subsalicylate is 1 hour.

The time to peak concentration of bismuth subsalicylate is 2 hours.

The elimination half-life of salicylate is 2 to 5 hours.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Which laxative absorbs fat-soluble vitamins, thereby reducing the body’s absorption of these vitamins from foods?

Psyllium

Bisacodyl

Mineral oil

Lubiprostone

A

Mineral oil

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Which statement regarding the pharmacokinetic and pharmacodynamic parameters of psyllium is accurate?

Psyllium is excreted mostly in the urine.

Psyllium has an onset of action of 1 to 3 hours.

Psyllium reaches its peak concentration in 12 hours.

Psyllium is not absorbed after oral administration.

A

Psyllium is not absorbed after oral administration.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Which phrase describes how loperamide acts to exert antidiarrheal effects?

Destroys bacteria and toxins by lining the gastrointestinal (GI) tract

Replaces bacteria to promote normal bacterial flora in the GI tract

Slows GI motility, reduces electrolyte loss, and decreases fecal volume

Decreases GI contractions as well as reduces gastric secretions through drying effects

A

Slows GI motility, reduces electrolyte loss, and decreases fecal volume

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Which statement regarding the pharmacokinetic parameters of bismuth subsalicylate is accurate?

Bismuth is extensively absorbed with oral administration.

Subsalicylate is minimally absorbed after oral administration.

Bismuth subsalicylate is metabolized in the liver to bismuth and salicylic acid.

The drug is excreted in the feces.

A

Bismuth subsalicylate is metabolized in the liver to bismuth and salicylic acid.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Which outcome does a nurse anticipate will occur as a result of a drug interaction in a patient who is taking the anticoagulant warfarin and bismuth subsalicylate?

Increased absorption of warfarin

Decreased absorption of warfarin

Increased absorption of bismuth subsalicylate

Decreased absorption of bismuth subsalicylate

A

Decreased absorption of warfarin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Which patient teaching points would the nurse share with a patient who is receiving psyllium powder?

Select all that apply.

Do not administer the powder without mixing it with water.

Drink the psyllium solution within 1 hour of mixing.

Drink one glass of water after administration of psyllium.

Mix the psyllium powder well with 8 to 10 oz of water.

Inhalation of the powder may cause runny nose, wheezing, and watery eyes.

A

Do not administer the powder without mixing it with water.

Drink one glass of water after administration of psyllium.

Mix the psyllium powder well with 8 to 10 oz of water.

Inhalation of the powder may cause runny nose, wheezing, and watery eyes.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Which statement by the patient in regard to bisacodyl plus senna administration requires further education?

“I can take this medication as long and as often as I need it.”

“I may experience diarrhea and cramping from taking this medication.”

“I should take the medication with plenty of water to help with absorption.”

“I should wait at least 1 hour after taking bisacodyl and senna to take my other medications.”

A

“I can take this medication as long and as often as I need it.”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

A nurse is caring for a patient who appears to be dehydrated. It has been determined that the patient has been unintentionally overusing laxative therapy. Which patient parameters would be assessed in this patient?

Select all that apply.

Bowel sounds

Blood pressure

Thyroid function

Electrolytes

Fluid intake and output

A

Bowel sounds

Blood pressure

Electrolytes

Fluid intake and output

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Which side effects would a nurse monitor for in a patient who is receiving lubiprostone?

Select all that apply.

Paralysis

Complete heart block

Severe diarrhea

Urinary tract infection (UTI)

Upper respiratory tract infection

A

Severe diarrhea

Urinary tract infection (UTI)

Upper respiratory tract infection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Which patient parameters would a nurse ensure are assessed before administering loperamide to a 71-year-old patient?

Select all that apply.

Glucose level

Blood pressure (BP)

Hydration status

Recent foods consumed

History of viral or bacterial infections, including Clostridium difficile

A

Hydration status

Recent foods consumed

History of viral or bacterial infections, including Clostridium difficile

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Which effect would a nurse anticipate will occur if a patient takes hydrocodone, an opioid, while receiving loperamide?

Additive central nervous system (CNS) stimulant effects

Additive CNS depressant effects

Reduced efficacy of loperamide

Reduced efficacy of hydrocodone

A

Additive CNS depressant effects

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Which patient teaching points would a nurse share with a patient who has been prescribed loperamide hydrochloride?

Select all that apply.

“Loperamide hydrochloride may increase your risk for bleeding.”

“Avoid alcohol while receiving loperamide hydrochloride because there is a risk for central nervous system (CNS) depression.”

“You can expect the tongue to turn black and the stools to darken while receiving loperamide hydrochloride.”

“Use caution when driving or performing tasks that require mental alertness while -receiving loperamide hydrochloride.”

“If diarrhea continues for more than 48 hours after initiation of loperamide hydrochloride, contact your health care provider.”

A

“Avoid alcohol while receiving loperamide hydrochloride because there is a risk for central nervous system (CNS) depression.”

“Use caution when driving or performing tasks that require mental alertness while -receiving loperamide hydrochloride.”

“If diarrhea continues for more than 48 hours after initiation of loperamide hydrochloride, contact your health care provider.”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Match the antiemetic with its drug class

Substance P/Neurokinin 1 Antagonists

Dopamine antagonists

Cannabinoids

Antihistamine

Answer choices

Dexamethasone

Dronabinol

Meclizine

Aprepitant

Ondansetron

A

Substance P/Neurokinin 1 Antagonists
Aprepitant

Dopamine antagonists
Ondansetron

Cannabinoids
Dronabinol

Antihistamine
Meclizine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

In which time frame would a patient expect dronabinol to begin working?

5 to 15 minutes

30 to 60 minutes

2 to 3 hours

4 to 6 hours

A

30 to 60 minutes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Which statement regarding the pharmacokinetics of promethazine is accurate?

The drug is easily absorbed through the gastrointestinal (GI) tract.

Promethazine is minimally protein bound.

The drug does not undergo metabolism.

Promethazine undergoes biliary excretion.

A

The drug is easily absorbed through the gastrointestinal (GI) tract.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Which antiemetic exerts its effects by binding to acetylcholine receptors to block the nausea-inducing signal from communicating to the vomiting pathway?

Aprepitant

Scopolamine

Ondansetron

Promethazine

A

Scopolamine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Which length of time is the anticipated duration of action for meclizine’s effects?

1 hours

2 hours

6 hours

8 hours

A

6 hours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Which side effects would the nurse advise Ms. Smith to monitor for while receiving promethazine?

Select all that apply.

Shivering

Dizziness

Dry mouth

Blurry vision

Tachycardia

A

Dizziness

Dry mouth

Blurry vision

Tachycardia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Which patients would a nurse determine can safely receive treatment with scopolamine?

Select all that apply.

A patient with asthma

A patient with glaucoma

A patient with depression

A patient with breast cancer

A patient with myasthenia gravis

A

A patient with asthma

A patient with depression

A patient with breast cancer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

A nurse is caring for a patient with breast cancer who is experiencing chemotherapy-induced nausea and vomiting. Which side effects and adverse effects would a nurse monitor for if the patient is receiving aprepitant?

Select all that apply.

Urticaria

Thrombocytopenia

Deep vein thrombosis

Extrapyramidal symptoms

Neuroleptic malignant syndrome

A

Urticaria

Thrombocytopenia

Deep vein thrombosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Which patient parameters would a nurse evaluate in a patient receiving meclizine?

Select all that apply.

Heart rate

Gastric pH

Intake/Output

Bowel sounds

Blood pressure

A

Heart rate

Intake/Output

Bowel sounds

Blood pressure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Which antiemetic can a nurse anticipate having the longest duration of action?

Meclizine

Aprepitant

Dronabinol

Scopolamine

A

Scopolamine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Which antiemetic is excreted in urine, feces, and bile?

Meclizine

Dronabinol

Ondansetron

Promethazine

A

Dronabinol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Which statement regarding the pharmacodynamic parameters of intravenous (IV) ondansetron is accurate?

Its onset of action is 15 minutes.

It reaches its peak concentration in 30 minutes.

Its duration of action is 2 to 4 hours.

Its elimination half-life is 3 to 5 hours.

A

Its elimination half-life is 3 to 5 hours.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Which time frame can a nurse expect dexamethasone to reach its peak concentration?

5 to 10 minutes

15 to 30 minutes

45 to 60 minutes

1.5 to 2 hours

A

5 to 10 minutes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Which statement regarding the pharmacokinetic parameters of aprepitant is accurate?

The drug has an oral bioavailability of 25%.

Aprepitant is minimally protein bound (<5%).

The drug undergoes metabolism mostly by CYP3A4.

Excretion of aprepitant is predominantly in the feces.

A

The drug undergoes metabolism mostly by CYP3A4.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Which phrase describes how ondansetron works to treat nausea and vomiting?

Blocks dopamine2 receptors in the chemoreceptor trigger zone

Inhibits cholinergic stimulation of the vestibular and reticular systems

Blocks the serotonin receptors in the chemoreceptor trigger zone and vagal nerve terminals in the gastrointestinal (GI) tract

Binds to acetylcholine receptors deep within the brain to block the nausea-inducing signal from communicating to the vomiting pathway

A

Blocks the serotonin receptors in the chemoreceptor trigger zone and vagal nerve terminals in the gastrointestinal (GI) tract

58
Q

Which patients would a nurse determine cannot safely receive therapy with promethazine?

Select all that apply.

A 50-year-old patient with osteoarthritis

A 27-year-old patient with hypothyroidism

A 1-year-old child with profuse vomiting

A 31-year-old patient who is breastfeeding

A 33-year-old patient with generalized anxiety disorder

A

A 1-year-old child with profuse vomiting

A 31-year-old patient who is breastfeeding

59
Q

A nurse is caring for a patient who will be using a scopolamine patch for motion sickness. In addition to scopolamine, the patient is also taking diphenhydramine, an antihistamine, as needed for allergies. Which patient statement about scopolamine requires further intervention?

“I will apply the patch to my upper arm.”

“The patch should be applied 4 hours before travel.”

“I will apply the patch every 3 days as I am travelling.”

“If I use scopolamine with diphenhydramine, I may have significant dry mouth and dry eyes.”

A

“I will apply the patch to my upper arm.”

60
Q

Which effect would a nurse anticipate might occur from the drug interaction between dronabinol and warfarin?

Increase in warfarin concentration

Decrease in warfarin concentration

Increase in dronabinol concentration

Decrease in dronabinol concentration

A

Increase in warfarin concentration

61
Q

Which electrolyte abnormality would a nurse monitor for in a patient receiving dexamethasone as an antiemetic who is also receiving furosemide, a loop diuretic?

Hypokalemia

Hyperkalemia

Hyponatremia

Hypernatremia

A

Hypokalemia

62
Q

Which frequency would a nurse anticipate seeing promethazine prescribed for a patient with nausea and vomiting?

Once daily

Every 4 to 6 hours

Every 8 to 12 hours

Every 3 days

A

Every 4 to 6 hours

63
Q

Which explanation would a nurse provide a patient about the avoidance of alcohol while taking promethazine?

The combination may cause excessive central nervous system (CNS) effects such as sedation.

Tardive dyskinesia may occur when the combination of alcohol and promethazine is taken.

QT prolongation may occur if the patient consumes alcohol while taking promethazine.

If the patient consumes alcohol with promethazine, there is a risk for psychotic symptoms.

A

The combination may cause excessive central nervous system (CNS) effects such as sedation.

64
Q

Which class of penicillin (PCN) affects bacteria with pseudomonal activity?

Broad-spectrum

Natural

Extended-spectrum

PCN resisters

A

Extended-spectrum

65
Q

For which patient condition would piperacillin be most appropriate?

Pharyngitis with streptococcal species

Intraabdominal infection with Pseudomonas aeruginosa

Urinary tract infection (UTI) with Staphylococcal aureus

Skin infection with Escherichia coli

A

Intraabdominal infection with Pseudomonas aeruginosa

66
Q

Through which route is cephalosporin eliminated?

Kidney

Liver

Intestine

Gallbladder

A

Kidney

67
Q

For which bacterium is oral vancomycin indicated?

Staphylococcal aureus

Streptococcal faecalis

Pseudomonas aeruginosa

Clostridium difficile

A

Clostridium difficile

68
Q

Which antibacterial is in the lincosamide class?

Sulfamethoxazole-trimethoprim (SMX-TMP)

Clindamycin

PCN G

Erythromycin

A

Clindamycin

69
Q

Which antibacterial has low bioavailability following oral administration?

Erythromycin

Sulfamethoxazole-trimethoprim (SMX-TMP)

Cephalexin

Amoxicillin

A

Erythromycin

70
Q

The nurse would anticipate administering clindamycin every 6 hours knowing that it has which half-life?

30 to 60 minutes

2 to 3 hours

5 to 9 hours

8 to 10 hours

A

2 to 3 hours

71
Q

A patient asks the nurse why gentamicin is given intravenously. Which response would the nurse provide?

“Less drug is distributed to the tissues when it is given intravenously.”

“Bioavailability of gentamicin is higher when it is given orally, increasing the risk for adverse effects.”

“Gentamicin is given intravenously rather than orally due to its short half-life.”

“Gentamicin is not absorbed with oral administration.”

A

“Gentamicin is not absorbed with oral administration.”

72
Q

Which pharmacokinetic activity of gentamicin explains why it is nephrotoxic?

Resorption in the renal cortex

Elimination in feces

High protein binding

Metabolism by the kidneys

A

Resorption in the renal cortex

73
Q

Which antibacterials are effective against Pseudomonas aeruginosa?

Select all that apply.

Ciprofloxacin

Tetracycline

Vancomycin

Penicillin G (PCN G)

Gentamicin

A

Ciprofloxacin

Gentamicin

74
Q

Ms. Wanly, who is complaining of flank pain, was prescribed ciprofloxacin. Before initiating the drug, which assessment would the nurse ensure was performed?

Vital signs, including temperature

Chemistry panel, including liver function tests

Urine sample for a culture and sensitivity test

Assessment of adequate fluid intake

A

Urine sample for a culture and sensitivity test

75
Q

Because Ms. Wanly is also taking a beta blocker for hypertension, the nurse would closely monitor for which drug-drug interaction when administering ciprofloxacin?

Prolongation of QT intervals

Decreased bioavailability of ciprofloxacin

Hypersensitivity to the sun

Decreased therapeutic effects of beta blockers

A

Prolongation of QT intervals

76
Q

For which patient would intravenous (IV) vancomycin be contraindicated?

A patient who has a corn allergy

A patient with inflammatory bowel disease (IBD)

A patient with heart failure

A patient taking other ototoxic drugs

A

A patient who has a corn allergy

77
Q

A patient who is on an anticoagulant for a deep vein thrombosis to the lower extremity is to receive ceftriaxone for an infection. For which drug-drug interaction would the nurse monitor?

Worsening diarrhea

Increased intolerance to alcohol

Excessive ecchymosis

Increased swelling to the lower extremities

A

Excessive ecchymosis

78
Q

A nurse is preparing to administer the third dose of gentamicin. Before administering the drug, which laboratory test results would be most important for the nurse to assess?

Gentamicin peak level

Metabolic panel, including renal function

Complete blood count (CBC), including differentials

Gentamicin trough level

A

Gentamicin trough level

79
Q

Which antibacterials are effective against Pseudomonas aeruginosa?

Select all that apply.

Piperacillin

Ceftriaxone

Vancomycin

Cefepime

Penicillin G (PCN G)

A

Piperacillin

Ceftriaxone

Cefepime

80
Q

The nurse is preparing antibacterials for several patients. For which type of infection would a patient receive oxacillin?

Cardiac infection with a staphylococcal species

Severe urinary infection with E. coli

C. difficile infection that is resistant to penicillin (PCN)

Severe tonsillitis with streptococcal species

A

Cardiac infection with a staphylococcal species

81
Q

For which patient would the nurse seek clarification if amoxicillin was prescribed?

Patient who is pregnant and has a urinary infection

Patient who is a diabetic and has a skin infection

Patient who has asthma with a throat infection

A child with a respiratory infection

A

Patient who has asthma with a throat infection

82
Q

A patient developed pseudomembranous colitis after being on oral antibiotics for 4 days. Which drug would the nurse anticipate administering?

Oral gentamicin

Oral vancomycin

Intravenous (IV) gentamicin

IV vancomycin

A

Oral vancomycin

83
Q

Which cephalosporin would the nurse anticipate administering to a patient diagnosed with an infection that is resistant to methicillin (methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus [MRSA])?

Cefepime

Ceftriaxone

Cefoxitin

Ceftaroline

A

Ceftaroline

84
Q

For which reason is cilastatin administered with imipenem?

Cilastatin prevents the elimination of imipenem.

Cilastatin prevents renal metabolism of imipenem.

Cilastatin prevents hepatic metabolism of imipenem.

Cilastatin offers cardiac protection against imipenem.

A

Cilastatin prevents renal metabolism of imipenem.

85
Q

For which patient condition would the nurse seek clarification before administering clindamycin?

Mild renal impairment

Skin infection

Irritable bowel syndrome (IBS)

Advanced liver disease

A

Advanced liver disease

86
Q

Sulfamethoxazole-Trimethoprim (SMX-TMP) has a half-life of 8 to 10 hours. Which dosing schedule would be appropriate for SMX-TMP?

Every 6 hours

Every 8 hours

Every 12 hours

Every 24 hours

A

Every 12 hours

87
Q

Which classes of antibacterials are effective against E. coli?

Select all that apply.

Lincosamide

Sulfonamide

Aminoglycoside

Tetracycline

Fluoroquinolone

A

Sulfonamide

Aminoglycoside

Fluoroquinolone

88
Q

Which statement is an accurate description of the pharmacokinetic action of tetracycline?

Tetracycline is metabolized by the liver.

Tetracycline is absorbed in the lower intestine.

Tetracycline is primarily excreted in feces.

Tetracycline absorption decreases as the dose is increased.

A

Tetracycline absorption decreases as the dose is increased.

89
Q

For which patient condition would tetracycline be indicated as a first-line therapy?

Urinary infection with E. coli

Gastric infection with H. pylori

Pulmonary infection with P. aeruginosa

Ear infection with H. Influenzae

A

Gastric infection with H. pylori

90
Q

Which antibacterial drugs have protein binding of less than 40%?

Select all that apply.

Erythromycin

Gentamicin

SMX-TMP

Tetracycline

Ciprofloxacin

A

Gentamicin

Ciprofloxacin

91
Q

For which prescription for ceftriaxone would the nurse seek clarification?

Ceftriaxone 1 g intravenous (IV) every 8 hours

Ceftriaxone 1 g IV every 12 hours

Ceftriaxone 1 g IV every 24 hours

Ceftriaxone 1 g intramuscular (IM) daily

A

Ceftriaxone 1 g intravenous (IV) every 8 hours

92
Q

Which class of drugs can increase the risk for nephrotoxicity when coadministered with vancomycin?

Oral contraceptives

Nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drugs (NSAIDs)

Loop diuretics

Anesthetics

A

Nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drugs (NSAIDs)

93
Q

Which antibacterial prescription would concern the nurse?

Vancomycin 1 g intravenous (IV) every 12 hours for C. difficile colitis

Amoxicillin 500 mg by mouth every 8 hours for urinary tract infection (UTI)

Cephalexin 500 mg by mouth every 12 hours for pharyngitis

Clindamycin 600 mg IV every 8 hours for skin infection

A

Vancomycin 1 g intravenous (IV) every 12 hours for C. difficile colitis

94
Q

A patient who takes a diuretic was prescribed erythromycin for bronchitis. Which teaching information would the nurse provide to the patient?

Select all that apply.

“Be sure to take this drug every 12 hours with a full glass of water.”

“Erythromycin can cause ringing in the ears. Notify your health care provider if you notice ringing in the ears.”

“You may take the drug with food if the drug causes nausea.”

“You may have pain at the injection site because it is given in the muscle.”

“You may need to increase your potassium supplement.”

A

“Erythromycin can cause ringing in the ears. Notify your health care provider if you notice ringing in the ears.”

“You may take the drug with food if the drug causes nausea.”

“You may need to increase your potassium supplement.”

95
Q

A patient was prescribed Sulfamethoxazole-Trimethoprim (SMX-TMP) for a skin infection. Which instructions would the nurse include in the discharge teaching?

Select all that apply.

“Use an alternate form of birth control.”

“Avoid all alcohol products.”

“Notify your health care provider of any nausea.”

“Be sure to apply sunscreen.”

“Be sure to take the medicine on an empty stomach.”

A

“Use an alternate form of birth control.”

“Avoid all alcohol products.”

“Be sure to apply sunscreen.”

96
Q

Which statement is accurate with respect to the goal of antiviral treatment for viral hepatitis B (HBV)?

To reduce or suppress liver inflammation

To kill all HBV

To enhance the patient’s immune system

To sequester HBV for elimination

A

To reduce or suppress liver inflammation

97
Q

For which medical condition would inhaled ribavirin be appropriate?

Influenza

Viral hepatitis C (HCV)

Respiratory syncytial virus (RSV)

Herpes zoster

A

Respiratory syncytial virus (RSV)

98
Q

The nurse plans to administer oral acyclovir every 4 to 5 hours for herpes zoster because acyclovir has which half-life?

1 to 2 hours

2 to 4 hours

6 to 8 hours

10 to 12 hours

A

2 to 4 hours

99
Q

Which antiviral drug would be prescribed to a patient who has genital herpes simplex?

Oseltamivir

Ribavirin

Lamivudine

Acyclovir

A

Acyclovir

100
Q

To improve the effectiveness of antiretroviral protease inhibitors (PIs), which drug would the nurse anticipate administering?

Maraviroc

Efavirenz

Cobicistat

Darunavir

A

Cobicistat

101
Q

Which statement by the patient indicates an accurate understanding on how to self-administer efavirenz?

“I will take the medicine on an empty stomach.”

“I will take the medicine with milk.”

“I will take the medicine as soon as I remember.”

“I have to sprinkle the capsule in food before taking.”

A

“I will take the medicine on an empty stomach.”

102
Q

Which statement is accurate regarding the pharmacokinetics or pharmacodynamics of darunavir?

Food has no effect on the drug’s absorption rate.

The half-life of the drug is not altered with cobicistat.

The absorption rate of darunavir is extensive and rapid.

The majority of the drug is excreted in feces.

A

The majority of the drug is excreted in feces.

103
Q

Which nursing action is appropriate when raltegravir is prescribed to a patient with renal impairment?

Notify the health care provider.

Administer the drug.

Administer the drug with food.

Hold the drug.

A

Administer the drug.

104
Q

Which HIV antiretroviral drugs inhibit enzymes needed for viral replication?

Select all that apply.

Efavirenz

Maraviroc

Raltegravir

Abacavir

Enfuvirtide

A

Efavirenz

Raltegravir

Abacavir

105
Q

Which condition would the nurse assess for as part of the medical history of a patient with suspected HIV infection?

Viral hepatitis

Influenza

Respiratory syncytial virus (RSV)

Rhinovirus

A

Viral hepatitis

106
Q

For which reason is monotherapy not recommended for the treatment of HIV?

Genetic testing is not possible with monotherapy.

Hypersensitivity reactions are increased.

Monotherapy increases the risk for drug resistance HIV.

Monotherapy requires an increase in frequency and dose.

A

Monotherapy increases the risk for drug resistance HIV

107
Q

For which reason do newer antiretroviral drugs have fewer drug-drug interactions?

Newer antiretroviral drugs are eliminated in urine.

Newer antiretroviral drugs are administered intravenously.

Newer antiretroviral drugs have minimal absorption after oral administration.

Newer antiretroviral drugs are metabolized by glucuronidation within the liver.

A

Newer antiretroviral drugs are metabolized by glucuronidation within the liver.

108
Q

A patient diagnosed with HIV is prescribed efavirenz, abacavir, and lamivudine. Which statement describes how and when the patient would take efavirenz?

Efavirenz should be taken with milk upon rising from bed.

Efavirenz should be taken on an empty stomach at bedtime.

Efavirenz should be taken on an empty stomach just before lunch.

Efavirenz should be taken with a small snack at bedtime.

A

Efavirenz should be taken on an empty stomach at bedtime.

109
Q

Which laboratory results are indicators that antiretroviral therapy (ART) has been successful?

Select all that apply.

Decrease in white blood cells

Decrease in HIV RNA

Decrease in red blood cells (RBCs)

Increase in platelets

Increase in CD4+ cells

A

Decrease in HIV RNA

Increase in CD4+ cells

110
Q

For which patient would oseltamivir be appropriate in the treatment of influenza?

6-month-old patient who has been sick for 24 hours

12-month-old patient who has been sick for 4 days

6-year-old patient who has been sick for 36 hours

30-year-old patient who has been sick for 7 days

A

6-year-old patient who has been sick for 36 hours

111
Q

Which statement is correct about the action of oseltamivir?

Prevents the replication of the virus

Kills the virus

Enhances the immune system

Encases the virus

A

Prevents the replication of the virus

112
Q

A nurse is preparing to administer non-HIV antivirals for influenza. Which prescription would the nurse clarify before administering the antivirals?

Oseltamivir to a patient with influenza type B

Baloxavir marboxil to a patient with influenza type A

Oseltamivir to a patient with influenza type A

Amantadine to a patient with influenza type B

A

Amantadine to a patient with influenza type B

113
Q

For which reason should patients increase their oral fluid intake while on antivirals?

Oral fluids will increase absorption.

Antivirals are excreted in urine.

Antivirals promote urination.

Fluids assist in the distribution of antivirals.

A

Antivirals are excreted in urine.

114
Q

The nurse is preparing to administer antiretroviral drugs to a patient diagnosed with HIV. How many different types of antiretroviral drugs will the nurse anticipate in administering to the patient?

One

Three

Five

Seven

A

Three

115
Q

For which reason should darunavir be taken with food?

Intestinal motility is increased to enhance drug excretion.

Darunavir causes severe gastrointestinal (GI) distress.

Food increases the half-life of darunavir.

Food increases the bioavailability of darunavir.

A

Food increases the bioavailability of darunavir.

116
Q

Which drugs are indicated for patients with HIV?

Select all that apply.

Efavirenz

Abacavir

Oseltamivir

Maraviroc

Ribavirin

A

Efavirenz

Abacavir

Maraviroc

117
Q

Which antiretrovirals have a protein binding of 80% or more?

Select all that apply.

Abacavir

Efavirenz

Raltegravir

Darunavir

Enfuvirtide

Maraviroc

A

Efavirenz

Raltegravir

Darunavir

Enfuvirtide

118
Q

A patient with which condition cannot safely receive ribavirin?

Hepatitis C

Cardiac disease

Autoimmune hepatitis

Anemia

A

Autoimmune hepatitis

119
Q

A child with respiratory syncytial virus (RSV) is receiving aerosolized ribavirin. Which action would the nurse take first when the child’s respiratory function declines during treatment?

Notify the health care provider.

Increase oxygen.

Engage the rapid response team.

Discontinue the treatment.

A

Discontinue the treatment.

120
Q

A patient who is prescribed oseltamivir is to receive an influenza vaccine with live attenuated virus. Which instruction by the nurse is appropriate?

“Get the vaccine after you have stopped oseltamivir for at least 2 days.”

“Get the vaccine now because oseltamivir will help reduce pain at the injection site.”

“Stop oseltamivir 5 days after you get the vaccine.”

“Take plenty of vitamin C because the vaccine can make you sick.”

A

“Get the vaccine after you have stopped oseltamivir for at least 2 days.”

121
Q

A patient, who has been on lamivudine for hepatitis B, was prescribed sulfamethoxazole-trimethoprim (SMX-TMP) for a urinary tract infection (UTI). The nurse notifies the health care provider because of which drug-drug interaction?

SMX-TMP can decrease the effects of lamivudine.

Lamivudine can increase the effects of trimethoprim.

SMX-TMP can increase lamivudine levels.

Lamivudine can negate the effects of SMX-TMP

A

SMX-TMP can increase lamivudine levels.

122
Q

Acyclovir was prescribed to a patient with a history of seizures that have been controlled with phenytoin. Which action by the health care provider would the nurse anticipate because of the drug-drug interaction?

Increase the phenytoin dose.

Increase the acyclovir dose.

Decrease the phenytoin dose.

Decrease the acyclovir dose.

A

Increase the phenytoin dose.

123
Q

Which statement by the patient indicates an accurate understanding of abacavir?

“I have to take the drug with food.”

“I will notify my health care provider if I have trouble swallowing to change it to a solution.”

“I need to avoid all alcohol, including over-the-counter liquid drug preparations.”

“I will notify my health care provider if I have flu-like symptoms.”

A

“I need to avoid all alcohol, including over-the-counter liquid drug preparations.”

124
Q

A patient, who recently started antiretroviral therapy (ART) for HIV infection, asks the nurse why a strict routine for taking the drugs is important. Which reason would the nurse provide?

“Having a strict routine helps in noticing side effects.”

“Having a strict routine helps you plan your day better.”

“Strict drug adherence is important in preventing drug-resistant strains.”

“It reduces some of the side effects of the drugs if the drugs are taken at a certain time of day.”

A

“Strict drug adherence is important in preventing drug-resistant strains.”

125
Q

A nurse preparing to administer abacavir notes the patient has mild renal impairment. Which action would the nurse anticipate taking?

Administer abacavir.

Notify the health care provider.

Administer intravenous (IV) fluids.

Hold the dose of abacavir.

A

Administer abacavir.

126
Q

A patient who has difficulty swallowing solids is prescribed darunavir tablets. Which action by the nurse is correct?

Crush the pill and mix in a small amount of food or water.

Hold the dose until the patient can swallow pills.

Notify the health care provider for a gastrointestinal (GI) consult.

Notify the health care provider to change the prescription to an oral solution.

A

Notify the health care provider to change the prescription to an oral solution.

127
Q

The nurse is educating a patient about the side and adverse effects of antiretroviral drugs. Which side effects will the nurse tell the patient are common?

Select all that apply.

Nausea

Lactic acidosis

Vomiting

Myalgia

Jaundice

Fatigue

A

Nausea

Vomiting

Myalgia

Fatigue

128
Q

For which reason is amphotericin B administered intravenously?

Intravenous (IV) drugs are not metabolized by the liver.

It is poorly absorbed through the gastrointestinal (GI) tract.

The drug can be eliminated faster.

The intestines metabolize the drug.

A

It is poorly absorbed through the gastrointestinal (GI) tract.

129
Q

Knowing that flucytosine is administered every 6 hours, which time frame describes the half-life of flucytosine?

3 to 8 hours

9 to 50 hours

20 to 50 hours

15 days

A

3 to 8 hours

130
Q

Which antifungal inhibits the formation of ergosterol, a major sterol in the fungal cell membrane?

Flucytosine

Fluconazole

Griseofulvin

Amphotericin B

A

Fluconazole

131
Q

Which of the antifungal drugs are classified as echinocandins?

Select all that apply.

Micafungin

Caspofungin

Amphotericin B

Griseofulvin

Ketoconazole

A

Micafungin

Caspofungin

132
Q

Which priority assessment would the nurse conduct in Mr. Winter before administering fluconazole?

Obtain vital signs.

Determine immune status.

Check renal and hepatic function.

Ask about any previous treatment with antifungals.

A

Check renal and hepatic function.

133
Q

Which statement by Mr. Winter indicates an accurate understanding about fluconazole?

“I will need to take the drug twice a day.”

“I must take the drug with high-fat food.”

“I will have to come for an injection of the drug on a weekly basis.”

“I can take the drug with food.”

A

“I can take the drug with food.”

134
Q

The nurse is about to administer fluconazole to a young adult for vulvovaginal fungal infection. Which priority assessment is needed?

Past sexual history

Vital signs

Hemoglobin and hematocrit

Pregnancy test

A

Pregnancy test

135
Q

Which patient condition would require the nurse to clarify a prescription for griseofulvin with the health care provider?

Systemic candida infection

Tinea capitis

Onychomycosis

Tinea corporis

A

Systemic candida infection

136
Q

Flucytosine 37 mg/kg every 6 hours is prescribed to a patient with decreased urine output. Which action would the nurse anticipate?

Assess renal function.

Encourage fluid intake.

Administer the drug as prescribed.

Administer the drug intravenously over 1 hour.

A

Assess renal function.

137
Q

The nurse is preparing to administer several antifungal drugs. Which antifungal drugs would the nurse anticipate administering orally?

Select all that apply.

Fluconazole

Caspofungin

Flucytosine

Griseofulvin

Amphotericin B

A

Fluconazole

Flucytosine

Griseofulvin

138
Q

By which mechanisms does amphotericin B induce its therapeutic effects?

Select all that apply.

Binds to the fungal cell wall

Increases the cell membrane permeability

Inhibits cytochrome 450 (CYP450) enzyme

Converts amphotericin B to 5-fluorouracil

Causes fungal intracellular contents to leak out of the cell

A

Binds to the fungal cell wall

Increases the cell membrane permeability

Causes fungal intracellular contents to leak out of the cell

139
Q

A young adult woman is prescribed an antifungal for vulvovaginal infection. Which statement made by the patient indicates a need for more teaching?

“I will abstain from sexual intercourse until the infection is resolved.”

“I will stop taking the drug while I am menstruating.”

“I will take the drug around lunchtime each day.”

“I will need to wear loose clothing to keep the area cool.”

A

“I will stop taking the drug while I am menstruating.”

140
Q

As the nurse prepares to administer a dose of amphotericin, redness and pain at the intravenous (IV) site are noted. Which action would be appropriate for the nurse to take?

Place a cold pack to the IV site before administering the drug.

Administer the drug through the current site.

Flush the IV catheter with saline solution.

Administer amphotericin B through a different IV site.

A

Administer amphotericin B through a different IV site.

141
Q

A patient receiving amphotericin B would be instructed to immediately report which adverse effect of the medication?

Muscular weakness

Ringing of the ears

Low grade fever

Nausea

A

Ringing of the ears

142
Q

A patient on fluconazole should have which laboratory tests monitored frequently?

Select all that apply.

Glucose

Creatinine

Liver enzymes

International normalized ratio (INR)

Serum potassium

A

Creatinine

Liver enzymes

Serum potassium