Week 12: Alterations of Musculoskeletal Function Flashcards

1
Q

What is Osteoporosis?

A

Osteoporosis, or porous bone, is characterized by low bone mineral density caused by altered bone microstructure and leads to an increased risk of fractures. It is a complex, multifactorial, chronic disease that often progresses silently causing impaired structural integrity of the bone, and decreased bone strength. Simply stated, bone resorption outpaces bone deposition and clients develop weak bones. A progressive loss of bone mass may continue until the skeleton is no longer strong enough to support itself. Eventually, bones can fracture spontaneously. As bone becomes more fragile, fractures occur from falls or bumps that would not previously have caused fracture.

Types of osteoporosis include:
* Perimenopausal
* Iatrogenic
* Regional: osteoporosis is confined to a region or segment of the appendicular skeleton and usually has a known cause
* Postmenopausal
* Glucocorticoid-induced
* Age-related

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2
Q

What is Osteoarthritis?

A

Osteoarthritis (OA) is a degenerative, age-onset disease characterized by the wearing away of cartilage at articular joint surfaces. Weight-bearing joints such as the knee, vertebral column, and hip are most commonly affected. The hands are also affected because they are frequently used. OA seems affected by gender; the hands and knees are more commonly affected in females whereas the hips are more affected in men. Advancing disease reveals narrowing of the joint space because of cartilage loss, bone spurs (osteophytes), and often changes in the subchondral bone.

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3
Q

Identify the modifiable and non-modifiable risk factors in the development of fractures

A

Fracture incidence varies depending on bone involved, age, and gender. The highest incidence of fractures occurs in young males aged 15-24 and in adults 65 years and older. Rates of hip and wrist fractures tend to be higher in females.

Pediatric population:
* bone mineral content, bone size, bone accrual lower resulting in low bone mineral density
* genetic factors
* poor nutrition (i.e., inadequate intake of dietary calcium or excessive intake of carbonated beverages)
* lack of weight-bearing physical activity
* obesity
* play and sport (i.e., exposure to trauma)

Older adults:
* age
* gender (i.e., osteoperosis)
* smoking - impact on hormones
* alcohol - influence on bone structure and mass
* steroids - bone loss
* diabetes
* previous fracture

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4
Q

Identify the modifiable and non-modifiable risk factors in the development of osteoporosis

A

Genetic:
* family history of osteoporosis
* White or Asian race
* Increased age
* Female gender

Anthropometric:
* Small stature
* Fair or pale skinned
* Thin build

Hormonal and Metabolic:
* Early menopause
* Late manarche
* Nulliparity
* Obesity
* Hypogonadism
* Gaucher disease
* Cushing syndrome
* Weight below healthy range
* Acidosis

Dietary:
* Low dietary calcium and vitamin D
* Low endogenous magnesium
* Excessive protein
* Excessive sodium intake
* High caffeine intake
* Anorexia nervosa
* Malabsorption

Lifestyle:
* Sedentary
* Smoking
* Alcohol consumption (excessive)

Concurrent:
* Hyperparathyroidism

Illness & Trauma:
* Renal insufficiency, hypocalcemia
* Rheumatoid arthritis
* Spinal cord injury
* Systemic lupus erythematosus

Liver disease:
* Marrow disease

Drugs:
* Corticosteroids
* Dilantin
* Gonadotropin-releasing hormone agonists
* Loop diuretics
* Methotrexate
* Thyroid
* Heparin
* Cyclosporine
* Depo-medroxyprogesterone acetate
* Retinoids

Remember! CALCIUM
C: calcium & vitamin D intake low
A: age (after age 30 clast activity > blast activity, testosterone and estrogen drop)
L: lifestyle (i.e., smoking, exercise, etc.)
C: Caucasian or Asian, women
I: inherited
U: underweight
Medications: glucocorticoids, anticonvulsants, etc.

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5
Q

Identify the modifiable and non-modifiable risk factors in the development of osteoarthritis

A

The incidence of OA increases with age and is more common in females than in men older than age 50. The prevalence in individuals younger than age 45 is uncommon and generally does not exceed 20% in the elderly. Certain medications can stimulate collagen-digesting enzyme activity in the synovial membrane (e.g., colchicine, indomethacin, and steroids). With these conditions, the disease is noted as secondary osteoarthritis. Abnormal knee alignment also has been shown to increase the incidence and progression of OA. Both varus or valgus disorders of the knee of more than 5 degrees have been associated with increased risk of development and progression of OA. Although the use of biomechanical devices, such as foot wedges or alignment braces, has been shown to decrease pain, the reduction of disease progression has yet to be supported.

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6
Q

Explain the etiology of osteoarthritis

A

Currently, there is no single specific cause of OA; historically it has been viewed as a mechanical problem and emerging is the evidence of molecular events interacting with mechanical issues.OA may be classified as idiopathic or secondary. Idiopathic OA, the most common type, has no known cause but is associated with increasing age. The causes of secondary OA include trauma, mechanical stress, inflammation of the joint structures, neurological disorders, use of certain medications, and joint instability. Excessive weight contributes to the development of OA, particularly in the knee and hip. Other risk factors associated with OA include decreased estrogen in menopausal females, excessive growth hormone, and increased PTH.

OA has been commonly classified as noninflammatory joint disease. However, more recent discoveries have identified the presence of numerous cytokines, chemokines, prostaglandins, and apoptotic molecules within the disease process. The ensuing low-grade inflammation, calcification of articular cartilage, and interaction between transcription factors, cytokines, growth factors, matrix molecules, and enzymes affect development and progression of OA. This chemical cascade outlines how the process of cartilaginous destruction begins long before osteoarthritic changes can be detected through the use of MRI, arthroscopy, or traditional x-ray films.
Advancing disease reveals narrowing of the joint space because of cartilage loss, bone spurs (osteophytes), and often changes in the subchondral bone.

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7
Q

Explain the etiology & pathophysiology of fractures

A

Fractures occur when force applied exceeds the tensile or compressive strength of bone, resulting in a break in the continuity of a bone. Fractures are most commonly caused by falls, car accidents, and athletic injuries.

When a bone is broken the periosteum and blood vessels in the cortex, marrow, and surrounding soft tissues are disrupted. Bleeding occurs from the damaged ends of the bone and from the neighboring soft tissue. A hematoma forms within the medullary canal, between the fractured ends of the bone, and beneath the periosteum. Bone tissue immediately adjacent to the fracture dies. This necrotic tissue and any debris in the fracture area stimulate an intense inflammatory response characterized by vasodilation, exudation of plasma and leukocytes, and infiltration by inflammatory leukocytes and mast cells. Cytokines, including transforming growth factor-beta (TGF-B), platelet derived growth factor, prostaglandins, and other factors that promote healing, are released. Within 48 hours after the injury, vascular tissue invades the fracture area from the surrounding soft tissue and marrow cavity, and blood flow to the entire bone is increased. Osteoblasts and osteoclasts (or bone-forming cells) in the periosteum, endosteum, and marrow are activated to produce subperiosteal procallus along the outer surface of the shaft and over the broken ends of the bone.

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8
Q

Explain the etiology of osteoporosis

A

There are two types of osteoporosis: primary or idiopathic osteoporosis, which is the most common; and secondary osteoporosis. Secondary osteoporosis is caused by other conditions, including endocrine diseases (hormone imbalances, diabetes, hyperparathyroidism, hyperthyroidism), medications (such as heparin, corticosteroids, phenytoin, barbiturates, lithium), and other substances (including tobacco and ethanol). Other conditions (including rheumatoid disease, human immunodeficiency virus [HIV], malignancies, malabsorption syndromes, liver or kidney disease) also increase the risk for developing osteoporosis. Primary Osteoporosis is associated with the process of normal aging. Age-related bone loss begins in the third to fourth decade. The cause remains unclear, but it is known that decreased serum growth hormone (GH) and IGF levels along with increased binding of RANKL and decreased OPG affect osteoblast and osteoclast function. Secondary osteoporosis sometimes develops temporarily in individuals receiving large doses of heparin, perhaps because heparin promotes bone resorption by decreasing collagen synthesis or by increasing collagen breakdown. Osteoporosis caused by heparin therapy usually resolves when therapy ceases. Treatment with other medications may lead to the development of osteoporosis, such as the use of glucocorticoid treatment for many chronic disease processes. Other medications that increase the risk of osteoporosis include lithium, methotrexate, anticonvulsants, cyclophosphamide, and cyclosporine. One secondary cause, transient osteoporosis of the hip, is associated with the third trimester of pregnancy or the immediate postpartum period. However, most transient osteoporosis is a typically self-limiting syndrome affecting the lower extremity joints of middle-aged men. The etiology is unknown, and although most cases spontaneously resolve, some occurrences of bone demineralization may be related to osteonecrosis. Postmenopausal osteoporosis is characterized by increased bone resorption relative to the rate of bone formation, leading to sustained bone loss resulting from estrogen deficiency. Bone loss resulting from estrogen deficiency also contributes to osteoporosis in men.

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9
Q

Discuss the diagnostics for osteoarthritis

A

Evaluation consists of individual subjective reports, clinical assessment (including a detailed history and physical examination), and radiologic studies, which may include a CT scan, arthroscopy, and MRI, as well as tradition x-ray films.

The joints of a client with osteoarthritis are characteristically hard and cool to palpation. Radiologic hallmarks of primary osteoarthritis include:
* non-uniform joint space loss
* subchondral sclerosis
* cyst formation
* osteophyte formation (bone spurs)

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10
Q

Discuss the diagnostics for osteoporosis

A

Osteoporosis is asymptomatic unless fracture occurs, so often diagnosis is delayed. By the time abnormalities are detected by x-ray, 25-30% of bone may be gone. Measuring bone mineral density by using dual x-ray absorptiometry (DXA) continues to be the most common method of estimating bone mass. The WHO has also developed an assessment tool (FRAX) to estimate an individual’s 10-year risk of fracture. Bone quality related not just to bone mass (as measured by bone density) but also to the microarchitecture of the bone. Other variables include crystal size and shape, brittleness, vitality of the bone cells, structure of the bone proteins, water volume, integrity of the trabecular network, vascular supply, and the ability to repair tiny cracks. Other evaluation procedures include tests for levels of serum calcium, phosphorus, and alkaline phosphatase as well as protein electrophoresis.

According to the WHO:
1. normal bone mass is greater than 833 mg/cm2
2. Osteopenia, or decreased bone mass it 833-648 mg/cm2
3. Osteoporosis is bone mass less than 648 mg/cm2

Signs & Symptoms:
Remember FRAIL
F: fractures (hips, spine, and wrist)
R: rounding of upper back “Dowager’s hump”
A: asymptomatic
I: inches of height lost (approx. 2-3 inches)
L: lower back, neck, and hip pain

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11
Q

Discuss the diagnostics & treatment for fractures

A

Diagnostics are typically performed and confirmed by X-ray.

Treatment of a displaced fracture involves manipulating the bone to realign bone fragments (reduction) to the correct anatomic position and holding the fragments in place (immobilization) so bone healing can occur. Many fractures heal without manipulation and require only adequate immobilization. Several methods of manipulation are available to reduce a fracture that will not heal with simple immobilization, including closed manipulation, traction, and open reduction. Maligned fractures require the most aggressive treatment of all types of fractures.
Fractures can be reduced by closed manipulation if the skin is not opened and the bone is able to be moved or manipulated into place. Appropriate use of closed manipulation occurs when the contour of the bone is well aligned and the alignment can be maintained with immobilization.

Traction is another option used to accomplish or maintain reduction of a fracture. When bone fragments are displaced (not in their anatomic position), weights are used to apply firm, steady traction (pull) and countertraction to the long axis of the bone. Traction stretches and fatigues muscles that pull the bone fragments out of place, allowing the distal fragment to align with the proximal fragment. Traction can be applied to the skin (skin traction), directly to the involved bone, or distal to the involved bone (skeletal traction). Skin traction is used when only a few pounds of pulling force are needed to realign the fragments or when the traction will be used for only a brief time, such as before surgery or for a few days before applying a cast. In skeletal traction, a pin or wire is drilled through the bone below the fracture site, and a traction bow, rope, and weights are attached to the pin or wire to apply tension by providing the pulling force needed to overcome the muscle spasm and helping realign the fracture fragments.

Open reduction is a surgical procedure that exposes the fracture site; the fragments are brought into alignment under direct visualization. Some form of hardware, such as a screw, plate, nail, or wire, is used to maintain the reduction (internal fixation). External fixation is a procedure used to reduce and immobilize significantly displaced open fractures. Pins are placed in the bone proximal and distal to the break and then stabilized by an external frame of clamps and rods. Bone grafts also are used to repair fractures and filling voids in the bone. These grafts are from the injured individual (autograph), a cadaver (allograft), or a bone substitute (ceramic composites, bioactive cement).

Treatment of delayed union and nonunion fractures includes use of various modalities designed to stimulate new bone formation. Physical modalities, such as implantable or external electric current devices, electromagnetic field generations, and low-density ultrasound, have been effective in stimulating bone formation. Stem cells and gene therapy also show promise in promoting formation of new bone. Large defects in bone can be filled with bone graft or synthetic materials, such as calcium phosphate cement.

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12
Q

Discuss prevention and treatment requirements for osteoporosis

A

Regular, moderate weightbearing exercise can slow the rate of bone loss and, in some cases, reverse demineralization because the mechanical stress of exercise stimulates bone formation. It is important to reduce the risk of falls and enhance bone quality. Therefore, an exercise program to enhance muscle strength is advised.
Important new findings suggest that estrogen may prevent excessive bone loss before and after menopause by limiting osteoclast life span through promotion of apoptosis. Calcium intake sufficient to maintain normal calcium balance during adolescence and sufficient intake of magnesium is also helpful in prevention. Treatment includes the use of bisphosphonates, estrogen, and diet.

The role of calcium intake to prevent and treat osteoporosis is controversial (can cause renal stones with little evidence in improving BMD). It is well accepted that oral calcium intake sufficient to maintain normal calcium balance is necessary during adolescence to ensure development of peak bone mass, and that calcium-deficient diets can aggravate bone loss associated with menopause and aging. Although recommendations have been established for young females of 1000 mg of calcium daily (particularly from dietary sources) and for postmenopausal females of 1500 mg daily (with vitamin D), it has been difficult to translate these recommendations into clear-cut clinical outcomes. A significant relationship has been observed between an individual’s lifetime history of calcium intake and peak bone mineral density. Diets with higher fruit and vegetable intake seem to correlate with higher BMD. Other nutrients that appear to have a positive impact on bone health include magnesium, vitamin K2, and docosahexaenoic acid or DHA. Magnesium (Mg++), another mineral important for skeletal development, is an essential mineral in many biochemical and physiologic functions, including activation of enzymes, involvement in adenosine triphosphate (ATP) synthesis and protein synthesis, regulation of membrane channels, and contraction of muscle. Mg++ is important to bone quality because it helps control hydroxyapatite crystal growth and thereby prevents formation of brittle bones. It seems reasonable that Mg++ is required for normal calcium (Ca++) absorption because severe Mg++ deficiency results in hypocalcemia.

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13
Q

Discuss dietary requirements and treatment for osteoarthritis

A

Treatment of osteoarthritis is determined by the severity of pain and immobility. Pharmacologic therapy may include the use of analgesics and anti-inflammatory drug therapies, such as intra-articular corticosteroids and hyaluronate sodium (like the hyaluronic acid we put on our skin! Is a humectant and draws water in). Sodium hyaluronate acts like the synovial fluid in the joint, preventing friction and further inflammation but sort of “cushioning” the joints. The combination of MSM, glucosamine, and chondroitin may be effective, as may topical drugs such as capsaicin cream and balms (derived from peppers - spicy).

Non-pharmacological therapies are also an essential component of OA management. Walking, non-impact aerobics, and passive range-of-motion exercises are important to maintain joint flexibility. Improving muscle strength, especially of the quadriceps muscle, will help clients to improve their ability to perform activities of daily living. Bracing may help to keep joints positioned correctly and to relieve pain. Knowledge of proper body mechanics and posture may offer some benefit. Clients who are obese should consider a weight loss program, especially if weight-bearing joints such as the hip and knee are affected. Weight loss has been associated with decreased pain and disability. Surgical procedures such as joint replacement and reconstructive surgery may become necessary when other methods are ineffective. Complementary therapies such as the use of magnetic bracelets, therapeutic ultrasound, and acupuncture may also be helpful.

Dietary requirements include increasing the intake of Omega-3 fatty acids, ensuring safe sun exposure, and eating food sources rich in Vitamins D and K.

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14
Q

What are osteocytes?

A

(Bone Cells) The most abundant cells in bone, are transformed osteoblasts trapped or surrounded in osteoid as it hardens because of minerals that enter during calcification. It is the final differentiation stage for an osteoblast. The osteocyte is within a space in the hardened bone matrix called a lacuna. Osteocytes have numerous functions, including acting as mechanoreceptors and synthesizing certain matrix molecules, playing a major role in controlling osteoblast differentiation and production of growth factors, and maintaining bone homeostasis.

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15
Q

What is the difference between osteoblasts and osteoclasts?

A

(Bone breakdown - resorption) Osteoclasts are the major resorptive cells of bone. They migrate over bone surfaces to resorption areas that have been prepared and stripped of osteoid by enzymes, such as collagenases produced by osteoblasts in the presence of PTH, which is necessary for the resorptive process.

(Bone formation - deposition) Osteoblasts, originating from MSCs, osteoblasts are the primary bone-producing cells and are involved in many functions related to the skeletal system. Mature osteoblasts produce inorganic calcium phosphate, which is converted to hydroxyapatite, and an organic matrix that is composed mainly of type I collagen. Once this process is complete, osteoblasts deposit new bone in response to the bone resorbed by osteoclasts.

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16
Q

Discuss fracture classifications

A

Complete: the integrity of the bone is broken into two pieces
Incomplete: the bone is damaged but still in one piece
Open: formerly referred to as a compound fracture, is characterized by a concurrent break in the skin in the area of the fracture
Closed: formerly referred to as a simple fracture, has no break in the surrounding skin
Linear: fracture runs parallel to the long axis of the bone
Oblique: fracture is a slanted fracture of the shaft of the bone
Spiral: encircles the bone
Transverse: occurs straight across the bone
Comminuted: a bone breaks in two or more fragments

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17
Q

What are the three main types of incomplete fractures?

A

Greenstick, buckle or torus, and bowing. A greenstick fracture perforates one cortex and splinters the spongy bone and is relatively unstable. In a buckle or torus fracture, the cortex of the bone buckles but does not break, thus making it a relatively stable fracture. Bowing fractures usually occur when longitudinal force is applied to bone. This type of fracture is common in children. A complete diaphyseal fracture occurs in one bone of the pair, which disperses the stress sufficiently to prevent a complete fracture of the second bone, which bows. Treatment of a bowing fracture is difficult because the bowed bone interferes with the reduction of the fractured bone. In addition, a bowing fracture resists correction (reduction) because the force necessary to reduce it must be equal to the force that caused the initial injury. A fracture that results from a trauma that would not normally cause a fracture (a low-level trauma) is termed a fragility fracture. Fragility fractures are often a sequela of osteoporosis. A pathologic fracture is a break at the site of a preexisting abnormality (such as a tumor), usually by force that would not fracture a healthy bone. Any disease process that weakens a bone (especially the cortex) predisposes the bone to pathologic fracture. This type of fracture is most commonly associated with tumors, infections, osteoporosis, and other metabolic bone disorders.

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18
Q

Discuss the healing process of fractures

A

Bone is unique, after a fracture, it will heal with normal tissue - not scar tissue! Healing generally occurs in three overlapping phases, starting with the inflammatory phase that lasts 3-4 day. During the inflammatory phase, bone tissue destruction triggers and inflammatory response and hematoma formation. Following the inflammatory phase, the repair phase begins and capillary ingrowth, together with mononuclear cells and fibroblasts, begin the transformation of a hematoma into granulation tissue. Next, osteoblasts within the pro-callus synthesize collagen and matrix, which becomes mineralized to form callus. This phase can last several days. As the repair process continues, remodeling occurs, during which unnecessary callus is resorbed and trabeculae are formed along lines of stress. At the end of this stage, bone can withstand normal stresses. This phase can last months to years.

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19
Q

Discuss the manifestations of fractures

A

Clinical manifestations of a fracture can vary according to the type of fracture, site, and associated soft tissue injury. In general, the signs and symptoms of a fracture include impaired function, unnatural alignment (deformity), swelling, muscle spasm, tenderness, pain and impaired sensation. The position of the bone segments is determined by the pull of attached muscles, gravity, and the direction and magnitude of the force that caused the fracture. One or both segments of the fractured bone may be rotated inward or outward on the bone’s long axis (rotation), misaligned at an angle (angulation), or slide over the other segment (overriding) or out of normal position (displaced).

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20
Q

Discuss complications of fractures

A

Improper reduction or immobilization of a fractured bone may result in nonunion, delayed union, or malunion. Nonunion is failure of the bone ends to grow together. The gap between the broken ends of the bone fills with dense fibrous and fibrocartilaginous tissue instead of new bone. Occasionally, the fibrous tissue contains a fluid-filled space that resembles a joint, termed a false joint, or pseudarthrosis. Delayed union is union that does not occur until approximately 8 to 9 months after a fracture. Malunion is the healing of a bone in a nonanatomic position. Treatment of delayed union and nonunion includes use of various modalities designed to stimulate new bone formation. Physical modalities, such as implantable or external electric current devices, electromagnetic field generations, and low-density ultrasound, have been effective in stimulating bone formation. Stem cells and gene therapy also show promise in promoting formation of new bone. Large defects in bone can be filled with bone graft or synthetic materials, such as calcium phosphate cement. Broken bone can also damage surrounding tissue, periosteum, and blood vessels in cortex and marrow.

Dislocation is the temporary displacement of a bone from its normal position in a joint. If a dislocation does not involve a fracture, it is a simple dislocation; if there is an associated fracture, it becomes a complex dislocation. If the contact between the two joint surfaces is only partially lost, the injury is called a subluxation.
Dislocation and subluxation are most common in persons younger than 20 years and are generally associated with fractures.

Pediatric complications:
* growth plates vulnerable to fracture
* can result in shorter or crooked limb
* children’s bones heal faster, need to be seen more quickly - especially if manipulation of bone is required

Older adults:
* increased mortality, pain, disability, depression, and loss of independence
* high risk of morbidity and mortality after osteoporotic fracture

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21
Q

Discuss the pathophysiology of osteoporosis

A

Osteoporosis develops when the remodeling cycle - the process of bone resorption and bone formation - is disrupted and bone demineralization leads to decreased bone density (porous bones). The most common risk factor associated with the development
of osteoporosis is the onset of menopause. When females reach menopause, estrogen secretion declines and bones become weak and fragile. One theory to explain this occurrence is that normal levels of estrogen may limit the lifespan of osteoclasts, the bone cells that resorb bone. When estrogen levels decrease, osteoclast activity is no longer controlled, and bone demineralization is accelerated, resulting in loss of bone density. In females with osteoporosis, fractures often occur in the hips, wrists, forearms, or spine.

Although hormonal influences remain important in maintaining bone health, genetic factors and the role of oxidative stress are receiving increased attention as critical determinants of bone homeostasis. Reactive oxygen species (ROSs) are normal byproducts of aerobic metabolism, and although they can cause cell damage, at levels below which they cause oxidative stress (OS), ROSs serve as signaling molecules for many cell types, including osteocytes, osteoblasts, and osteoclasts. When excess ROSs accumulate, OS occurs and can result in loss of bone mass and bone strength.

The osteoclast differentiation pathway is directed by a series of processes that include proliferation, differentiation, fusion, and activation. These processes are controlled by hormones, cytokines, and paracrine stromal-cell microenvironment interactions. Thus, the intercellular communication in bone and the key molecular regulators are necessary for bone homeostasis. Certain transcription factors, known as Forkhead box (FoxO), help protect against the effects of OS by preventing excess accumulation of ROS and regulating certain genes that affect DNA repair and cell life span. FoxOs help remove damaged and abnormal cells by inducing apoptosis.

Interleukins (IL-1, IL-4, IL-6, IL-7, IL-11, IL-17), tumor necrosis factor-alpha (TNF-α), transforming growth factor-beta (TGF-β), prostaglandin E2, and hormones interact to control osteoclasts. Normal bone homeostasis is dependent on the balance between the cytokine receptor activator of nuclear factor κβ ligand (RANKL), its receptor RANK, and its decoy receptor osteoprotegerin (OPG); understanding this has led to a tremendously increased knowledge of osteoclast biology and pathogenesis of bone loss.

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22
Q

Discuss the OPG/RANKL/RANK System in osteoporosis

A

RANKL is a cytokine that activates the receptor RANK on osteoclast precursor cells and mature osteoclasts to activate intracellular signaling pathways that promote osteoclast activity and bone resorption and eventually bone loss. OPG is a glycoprotein that acts as an antagonist (decoy receptor) for RANKL. Essentially, it takes RANKLs’ spot and prevents it from binding and activating RANK. In this way, OPG helps to regulate bone resorption. In osteoporosis, this system is dysregulated. Specifically, estrogen plays a large role in the secretion of OPG, which is why declining estrogen is a problem in osteoporosis.

In the immune system, RANKL is expressed and secreted by T cells. T-cell derived RANKL can also activate RANK in osteoclasts, T cells, and dendritic cells, which enhances bone loss that occurs in inflammatory bone diseases such as rheumatoid arthritis.

In the vascular system, endothelial cells express RANKL and the RANK receptor.

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23
Q

Describe the manifestations of osteoporosis

A

The specific clinical manifestations of osteoporosis depend on the bones involved. The most common manifestation, however, is bone deformity. Pain tends to occur only when there is a fragility fracture. Fractures are likely to occur because the trabeculae of spongy bone become thin and sparse and compact bone becomes porous. As the bones lose volume, they become brittle and weak and may collapse or become misshapen. Vertebral collapse causes kyphosis (hunchback) and diminished height. Fractures of the long bones (particularly the femur and humerus), distal radius, ribs, and vertebrae are most common. The most serious fractures associated with osteoporosis are hip fractures because of their resultant chronic pain, disability, diminished quality of life, and premature death. Fracture of the neck of the femur (intertrochanteric fracture) tends to occur in older adult females with osteoporosis. Cortical bone becomes more porous and thinner, making bone weaker and prone to fractures. Loss of trabecular bone in men proceeds in a linear fashion, with thinning of trabecular bone rather than complete loss as is noted in females.

Fatal complications of osteoporotic fractures include:
* fat or pulmonary embolisms
* hemorrhage
* shock

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24
Q

Discuss the pathophysiology of osteoarthritis

A

The primary pathogenesis in OA is degeneration and then eventual loss and disordered repair of articular cartilage.

  1. Articular cartilage is damaged or lost:
    The chondrocytes of the articular cartilage become damaged early in the disease process because of atypical load bearing as well as both genetic/epigenetic and biochemical factors. These changes lead to increased remodeling of the articular cartilage and a loss of the smooth, frictionless joint. Visually, the articular cartilage loses its glistening appearance, becoming yellow-gray or brownish gray. As the disease progresses, surface areas of the articular cartilage flake off and deeper layers develop longitudinal fissures (fibrillation). The cartilage becomes thin and may be absent over some areas, leaving the underlying subchondral bone unprotected. Consequently, the unprotected subchondral bone becomes sclerotic. Cysts sometimes develop within the subchondral bone and communicate with the longitudinal fissures in the cartilage. Pressure builds in the cysts until the cystic contents are forced into the synovial cavity, breaking through the articular cartilage on the way. As the articular cartilage erodes, cartilage-coated osteophytes may grow outward from the underlying bone and alter the bone contours and joint anatomy. These spur-like bony projections enlarge until small pieces, called joint mice, break off into the synovial cavity. If osteophyte fragments irritate the synovial membrane, synovitis and joint effusion result. The joint capsule also becomes thickened and at times adheres to the deformed underlying bone, which may contribute to the limitation of movement. Articular cartilage is lost through a cascade of cytokine, biochemical, and growth factor pathways. Enzymatic processes, particularly those involving collagenase, break down the macromolecules of proteoglycans, glycosaminoglycans, and collagen into large, diffusible fragments. The fragments are then taken up by the chondrocytes and digested by the cell’s own lysosomal enzymes. The loss of proteoglycans from articular cartilage is a hallmark of the osteoarthritic process.
  2. Chondrocytes proliferate and continuously make proteoglycans BUT degradation exceeds synthesis:
    Enzymatic destruction of articular cartilage begins in the matrix, with destruction of proteoglycans and collagen fibers. Stromelysin and collagenase enzymes affect proteoglycans by interfering with assembly of the proteoglycan subunit or the proteoglycan aggregate; levels of these enzymes are markedly elevated in OA. Changes in the conformation of proteoglycans disrupt the regulation of water and synovial fluid movement into and out of the cartilage. It is the distribution and active redistribution of this water and synovial fluid that evenly disperse the joint load across the cartilage. Without the regulatory action of the proteoglycan pump, cartilage absorbs too much fluid and becomes less able to withstand the stresses of weightbearing.
  3. Chondrocytes secret matrix metalloproteases (MMPs)
    With aging, the proteoglycan content is decreased and the water content in cartilage can be increased by as much as 8%, affecting the strength of the cartilage. Persons with OA, even those with fairly extensive cartilage destruction, have elevated levels of proteoglycans or fragments of proteoglycans in their synovial fluid, perhaps indicative of a more pronounced reparative phase.
  4. Other substances that play a role in cartilage degradation are:
    Inflammatory cytokines (IL-1β, IL-6, and TNF-α), apoptotic molecules (COX-2, nitric oxide [NO], prostaglandin E2 [PGE2]), and prostaglandins play a major role in cartilage degradation in part through induction of nitric oxide synthase (iNOS) and increased nitric oxide (NO) generation. These chemical mediators release and activate proteolytic and collagenolytic enzymes (e.g., chemokines and metalloproteinases), causing an imbalance of cell responses to growth factor activity. Chondrocyte apoptosis is increased in OA cartilage, along with increased deposition of calcium phosphate crystals. These deposits are attributed to the disequilibrium between inorganic phosphates and mineralization inhibitors. Nitric oxide stimulates apoptosis in chondrocytes. The resultant cartilage destruction initiates the IL-1β and TNF-α pathways of inflammation

Genetic deficiencies of inhibitors of calcification also may contribute to a proliferative calcification cascade of the articular cartilage. Recent epigenetic discoveries continue to outline the role of microRNAs in cartilage development and homeostasis. MicroRNAs provide an inhibitor effect on other cartilage-degrading enzymes, such as MMP13 and ADAMTS4. When deficits of these microRNA exist, destruction of the fibrils that give articular cartilage its tensile strength accelerates and exposes the chondrocytes to continued mechanical stress and enzymatic attack.

25
Q

Discuss the manifestations of osteoarthritis

A

The onset of OA is usually gradual, with pain and stiffness in one or more joints as the first manifestations. The client with OA typically describes a deep, aching, localized pain, which is usually aggravated by movement and relieved by rest. Pain at night may be accompanied by paresthesias. As the disease advances, the range of motion of the joint decreases; this is often accompanied by complaints of progressive pain. Bone enlargement can increase joint size; flexion contractures contribute to joint instability. It is important to note that OA is not accompanied by the degree of inflammation associated with other forms of arthritis. The joints of a client with OA are characteristically hard and cool to palpation. The diagnosis of OA is typically made using a detailed his-tory and physical examination. Routine x-rays may be useful in determining structural joint changes.

  • deep, aching, localized pain and tenderness
  • onset is gradual and typically appears later in life
  • joint stiffness, crepitus
  • joint enlargement
  • tends to be non-symmetrical
  • heberden and bouchard nodes

The big 3: pain, stiffness & limited motion!

26
Q

Refresh: Acetaminophen!

A

Non-opioid analgesic with equal efficacy to ASA and ibuprofen in relieving pain

Indications:
* mild to moderate pain
* osteoarthritis of the hip or knee
* dysmenorrhea
* dental procedures
* headache and myalgia
* fever

Mechanisms of action:
* inhibits COX activity in CNS but not rest of the body
* antipyretic action may be due to action at the hypothalamus

Adverse effects:
at recommended doses, adverse effects are uncommon…
* hepatotoxicity and acute liver failure
* renal failure
* pancytopenia

27
Q

Refresh: Celecoxib!

A

2nd generation NSAID that blocks COX-2 without inhibiting COX-1

Indications:
* mild to moderate pain and inflammation associated with rheumatoid arthritis, OA, dysmenorrhea, dental procedures, and headache
* prophylaxis of adenomas or colorectal polyps
* limited in use due to an increased risk of MI and stroke

Mechanisms of action:
* blocks COX-2 without inhibiting COX-1 analgesic, anti-inflammatory, and antipyretic effects
* but prostacyclin may also be suppressed allowing platelet aggregation and blood vessels to constrict

Desired effect:
* reduction of pain, fever and inflammation

Adverse effects:
* may increase risk of serious and potentially fata cardiovascular thrombotic events, MI and stroke
* GI adverse effects include bleeding, ulcer, and stomach or intestine perforation
* chronic kidney disease (CDK) and hepatic impairment

The selective inhibition of COX-2 produces the analgesic, anti-inflammatory, and antipyretic effects typical of other NSAIDs, but without causing platelet aggregation or GI irritation. Primary advantage is that it causes les GI bleeding and ulcer formation than aspirin or ibuprofen.

28
Q

Refresh: Ibuprofen!

A

Non-selective inhibitor

Indications:
* relive mild to moderate pain, fever, inflammation
* management of pain in inflammatory conditions (i.e., OA)

Mechanisms of action:
* blocks action of COX-1 and COX-2
* reduces prostaglandin production

Desired effect:
* reduction of pain, fever, and inflammation

Adverse effect:
* nausea, heartburn, GI irritation & ulceration
* can decrease platelet function
* bleeding
* acute kidney injury (azotemia, increased BUN and creatinine)

29
Q

Pantoprazole

A

Proton Pump Inhibitor
Takes effect in 150 minutes and full effect in 7 days

Indication:
* treatment & prevention of NSAID-induced ulcers

Mechanism of action:
* inhibits action of hydrogen/potassium pump on parietal cells and reduces acid secretion
* take about 30 minutes before meals to increase effectiveness

Desired effect:
* achlorhydric: >90% gastric acid secretion temporarily blocked

Adverse effects:
Generally well tolerated with some exceptions
* action limited to effects on gastric acid secretion
* osteoporosis to long term users
* risk of acute kidney injury and nephritis in older clients
* depletion of magnesium

30
Q

Alendronate

A

Bisphosphonate

Indication:
* most common drug class for osteoporosis
* natural substance that inhibits bone resorption
* because these drugs are poorly absorbed, should be taken on an empty stomach

Mechanisms of action:
* improves osteoblast and osteocyte survival while suppressing osteoclast activity
* these drugs are structural analogues of pyrophosphate, a natural substance that inhibits bones resorption

Desired effect:
* increase bone density thus reducing incidence of fractures by approx. 50%

Adverse effects:
optimal length of treatment unknown…
* GI problems such as nausea, vomiting, abdominal pain, and esophageal irritation and cancer
* osteonecrosis of jaw
* risk of atypical fractures

31
Q

What educational points should the nurse focus on when administering Alendronate?

A
  • Report difficulty urinating, decreased urination, darkened urine, nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, or bone pain.
  • Take medication on an empty stomach 2 hours before eating. Take with a full glass of plain water and sit upright for at least 30 minutes after the drug is taken to promote proper absorption.
  • Consume calcium-rich foods, such as milk and milk products, dark green vegetables, canned fish with bones (such as salmon), and soybeans.
  • Report pain, warmth, inflammation, or decreased movement in joints.
  • Participate in light exercise and range-of-motion exercises, as possible.
  • Store medication as recommended by the manufacturer and out of the reach of children.
    Immediately report seizures, muscle spasms, facial twitching, and paresthesias.
32
Q

Bones play an important role in the body, which of the following is NOT a function performed by the bones?

A. Provide protection and support for the organs.
B. Give the body shape.
C. Secrete the hormone calcitonin and store blood cells.
D. Store calcium and phosphorus.

A

The answer is C. Bones (specifically bone marrow) are responsible for red blood cell, platelet, and white blood cell production. In addition, it stores blood cells and minerals, such as calcium and phosphorous. Calcitonin is secreted by the thyroid gland NOT the bones. However, calcitonin causes osteoclast activity to be inhibited, but is not secreted by the bone.

33
Q

True or False: Osteoporosis is a disease process that results in the thinning of the matrix of pore-like structures within the compact bone.

A

The answer is FALSE: Osteoporosis is a disease process that results in the thinning of the matrix of pore-like structures within the SPONGY (not compact) bone. The compact bone is the outside part of the bone, and the spongy bone is found inside the compact bone. It contains a matrix of pore-like components such as protein and minerals…this starts to thin and becomes more porous in osteoporosis.

34
Q

________ are found within the spongy bone and are responsible for building up the bone matrix. While ________, which are also found in the spongy bone, breakdown the bone matrix.
A. Osteocytes, osteoclasts
B. Osteoclasts, osteoblasts
C. Osteocytes, osteoblasts
D. Osteoblasts, osteoclasts

A

The answer is D. OsteoBLASTS are found within the spongy bone and are responsible for building up the bone matrix, while osteoCLASTS, which are also found in the spongy bone as well, breakdown the bone matrix.

35
Q

Parathyroid hormone plays an important role in bone health. When the parathyroid gland secretes PTH (parathyroid hormone) it causes:
A. the body to increase the calcium levels by stimulating the osteoclast activity.
B. the body to decrease the calcium levels by inhibiting osteoclast activity.
C. the body to increase the calcium levels by stimulating osteoblast activity.
D. the body to decrease the calcium levels by inhibiting osteoblast activity.

A

The answer is A. When the calcium levels are low this stimulates the parathyroid gland to secrete PTH, which stimulates osteoCLAST activity. Remember osteoCLASTS break down the bone matrix within the spongy bone. This will cause calcium to enter the blood stream, hence increasing calcium levels.

36
Q

Which patient below is NOT at risk for osteoporosis?
A. A 50 year old female whose last menstrual period was 7 years ago.
B. A 45 year old male patient who has been taking glucocorticoids for the last 6 months.
C. A 30 year old male who drinks alcohol occasionally and has a BMI of 28.
D. A 35 year old female who has a history of seizures and takes Dilantin regularly.

A

The answer is: C. All these patients are at risk for osteoporosis except the patient in option C. Remember the risk factors include: older age (45+), being a woman, Caucasian or Asian, post-menopause, glucocorticoids therapy, anticonvulsants (Dilantin), REGULAR alcohol usage, smoking, sedentary lifestyle, BMI <19, family history. Option C is not at risk.

37
Q

Your patient is scheduled for a DEXA scan this morning. The patient is having heartburn and requests a PRN medication to help with relief. Which medications can the patient NOT have at this time?

A

Before a DEXA scan, which is a bone density test, the patient should not take any type of calcium supplements (calcium carbonate (TUMs) or vitamins containing calcium.

38
Q

During an outpatient visit you are assessing the patient’s understanding about the signs and symptoms associated with osteoporosis. Select all of the signs and symptoms stated by the patient that are correct:
A. Dowager’s Hump
B. Loss of 0.5 inches in height compared to young adult height
C. Swelling and warmth at the bone site
D. Some patients are asymptomatic
E. Fractures most commonly in the hips, wrist, and spine

A

The answers are A, D, and E. Option B is wrong because there is normally a loss of 2-3 inches in height compared to the patient’s height in young adulthood. Option C is wrong because the bone site will not present as warm or swollen (most patients are asymptomatic).

39
Q

You’re caring for a patient who has a health history of severe osteoporosis. On assessment you note the patient has severe kyphosis of the upper back. Which nursing diagnosis takes priority for this patient’s care?
A. Risk for skin breakdown
B. Knowledge deficient regarding disease process
C. Limited mobility
D. Risk for falls

A

The answer is D. When assessing the options you want to select the option that is a priority for this patient and risk for falls is the priority. The patient is at risk for falls due to severe kyphosis, which is common in severe osteoporosis (also called Dowager’s Hump). This deformity of the spine limits mobility and increases the chances of falls In addition, it is important the nurse takes precautions in preventing falls because the patient will most likely experience a fracture due to severe osteoporosis.

40
Q

A patient is prescribed Alendronate (Fosamax) at 0800 for the treatment of osteoporosis. As the nurse you know you must administer this medication:
A. on an empty stomach with a full glass of water and keep the patient upright for 30 minutes.
B. right after breakfast and to lay the patient flat (as tolerated) for 30 minutes.
C. with food but to avoid giving this medication with dairy products.
D. on an empty stomach with a full glass of juice or milk.

A

The answer is A. Alendronate (Fosamax) is a bisphosphonate which is known for causing GI upset, especially inflammation of the esophagus. These medications should be taken with a full glass of water in morning on empty stomach with NO other medication. The patient should sit up for 30 minutes (60 minutes with Boniva) after taking the medication, and not eat anything for 1 hour after taking (helps the body absorb more of the medicine.)

41
Q

What are the signs & symptoms of osteoarthritis?

A

Remember OSTEO!
O: outgrowths “bony” from bone spurs (Heberden’s node at the distal interphalangeal joint; Bouchard’s node proximal interphalangeal joint)
S: sunrise stiffness less than 30 minutes and pain and stiffness worse at the end of the day
T: tenderness when touching joint site with bone overgrowth but no warmth
E: experience crepitus
O: only the joints, not systemic! Weight bearing joints and not symmetrical

42
Q

True or false: Osteoarthritis develops due to the deterioration of the synovium within the joint that can lead to complete bone fusion.

A

The answer is FALSE: Osteoarthritis is the most common type of arthritis that develops due to the deterioration of the HYALINE CARTILAGE (not synovium) of the bone. This can lead to bone break down, sclerosis of the bone, and osteophytes formation (bone spurs).

43
Q

Which patients below are at risk for developing osteoarthritis? Select-all-that-apply:
A. A 65 year old male with a BMI of 35.
B. A 59 year old female with a history of taking long term doses of corticosteroids.
C. A 55 year old male with a history of repeated right knee injuries.
D. A 60 year old female with high uric acid levels.

A

The answers are A and C. The risk factors for developing OA include: older age, being overweight (BMI >25), repeated injuries to the weight bearing joints, genetics. Option B is at risk for osteoporosis, and option D is at risk for gout.

44
Q

A patient with osteoarthritis has finished their first physical therapy session. As the nurse you want to evaluate the patient’s understanding of the type of exercises they should be performing regularly at home as self-management. Select all the appropriate types of exercise stated by the patient:
A. Jogging
B. Water aerobics
C. Weight Lifting
D. Tennis
E. Walking

A

The answers are B, C, E. The patient wants to perform exercises that are low impact like: walking, water aerobics, stationary bike riding along with strengthen training (lifting weights: helps strengthen muscles around the joint), ROM: improves the mobility of the joint and decreases stiffness. It is important patients with OA avoid high impact exercises that will increase stress on weight bearing joints such as running/jogging, jump rope, tennis, or any type of exercise with both feet off the ground.

44
Q

A patient with osteoarthritis is describing their signs and symptoms. Which signs and symptoms below are NOT associated with osteoarthritis? Select-all-that-apply:
A. Morning stiffness greater than 30 minutes
B. Experiencing grating during joint movement
C. Fever and Anemia
D. Symmetrical joint involvement
E. Pain and stiffness tends to be worst at the end of the day

A

The answers are: A, C, D. These options are signs and symptoms found with rheumatoid arthritis NOT osteoarthritis. In OA: morning stiffness is LESS than 30 minutes it is NOT systemic as RA (so fever and anemia will not be present), and it is asymmetrical (both joints are not involved). Pain and stiffness will actually be worst at the end of the day compared to the beginning due to overuse of the joints.

45
Q

A 63 year old patient has severe osteoarthritis in the right knee. The patient is scheduled for a knee osteotomy. You are providing pre-op teaching about this procedure to the patient. Which statement made by the patient is correct about this procedure?
A. “This procedure will realign the knee and help decrease the amount of weight experienced on my right knee.”
B. “A knee osteotomy is also called a total knee replacement.”
C. “A knee osteotomy is commonly performed for patients who have osteoarthritis in both knees.”
D. “This procedure will realign the unaffected knee and help alleviate the amount of weight experienced on the right knee.”

A

The answer is A. A knee osteotomy is NOT known as a total knee replacement. A knee osteotomy can be used as an alternative for a total knee replacement but is not the same thing. In addition, a knee osteotomy is performed when there is OA on only one side of the knee.

46
Q

A patient newly diagnosed with osteoarthritis asks about the medication treatments for their condition. Which medication is NOT typically prescribed for OA?
A. NSAIDs
B. Topical Creams
C. Oral corticosteroids
D. Acetaminophen (Tylenol)

A

The answer is C. Intra-articular corticosteroids (an injection in the joint) are commonly prescribed rather than oral corticosteroids. Remember OA in within the joint…not systemic so oral corticosteroids are not as effective. All the other medications listed are prescribed in OA.

47
Q

You receive your patient back from radiology. The patient had an x-ray of the hips and knees for the evaluation of possible osteoarthritis. What findings would appear on the x-ray if osteoarthritis was present? Select-all-that-apply:
A. Increased joint space
B. Osteophytes
C. Sclerosis of the bone
D. Abnormal sites of hyaline cartilage

A

The answers are B and C. The joint space would be DECREASED not increased in OA. In addition, an x-ray cannot show hyaline cartilage…therefore, the cartilage cannot be assessed on an x-ray. The radiologist would be looking for osteophytes (bone spurs), sclerosis of the bone (abnormal hardening of the bones), and decreased joint space.

48
Q

Discuss the signs and symptoms of fracture

A

Remember BROKEN!
B: bruising with pain and swelling
R: reduced movement
O: odd appearance
K: krackling sound (bone fragments rubbing together)
E: edema & erythema @ site
N: neurovascular impairment

49
Q

What are the 6 p’s to monitor for fractures?

A
  1. Pain
  2. Paresthesia
  3. Pallor
  4. Paralysis
  5. Poikilothermic
  6. Pulselessness –> late sign!

Monitoring for compartment syndrome!
If you suspect compartment syndrome
* keep extremity at heart level
* loosen & remove restrictive clothing
* notify MD
* Make patient NPO for surgery

50
Q

You’re caring for a patient who has experienced a compound fracture to the right arm. What nursing intervention will you take with this type of fracture?
A. Cover the fracture with a sterile dressing.
B. Place the arm below the heart level.
C. Attempt bone reduction by manually readjusting the bone.
D. Place a tight compression bandage over the fracture.

A

The answer is A. Due to the nature of this fracture, the patient is at major risk for infection because the skin is no longer intact. Therefore, the nurse should cover the fracture site with a sterile dressing. NEVER attempt a bone reduction. In addition, avoid a tight compression bandage due to the development of ischemia. Instead, you would want to immobilize the extremities and splint it.

51
Q

A 85 year old patient has an accidental fall while going to the bathroom without assistance. It appears the patient has sustained a bone fracture to the left leg. The leg’s shape is deformed and the patient is unable to move it. The patient is alert and oriented but in pain. What will you do FIRST after confirming the patient is safe and stable?
A. Apply an ice pack covered with a towel to the site.
B. Immobilize the fracture with a splint.
C. Administer pain medication.
D. Elevate the extremity above heart level.

A

The answer is B. After confirming the patient is safe and stable, the nurse would immobilize the fracture with a splinting device. This will prevent the accidental movement of the extremity by the patient. Immobilization is important because it prevents further pain or bleeding along with more damage that can occur to the surrounding tissues. In addition, if a bone is not immobilized but moved after it has been fractured this can affect the healing process.

52
Q

Which statement by a patient, who just received a cast on the right arm for a fracture, requires you to notify the physician immediately?
A. “It is really itchy inside my cast!”
B. “My pain is so severe that it hurts to stretch or elevate my arm.”
C. “I can feel my fingers and move them.”
D. “I’ve been using ice packs to reduce swelling.”

A

The answer is B. This statement is very concerning and may represent a condition called compartment syndrome. Compartment syndrome is where the nerves and blood vessels are becoming compromised due to increasing pressure in the compartments within the fascia (remember fascia doesn’t expand, so if there is building pressure within the compartments of muscle from bleeding etc. it will compromise circulation and nerve function). Remember to monitor the 6 P’s. (pain, pallor, paralysis, paresthesia, pulselessness (late sign), poikilothermia)

53
Q

What is a late sign of compartment syndrome?

A

Pulselessness

54
Q

Select all the signs and symptoms that will present in compartment syndrome?
A. Capillary refill less than 2 seconds
B. Pallor
C. Pain relief with medication
D. Feeling of tingling in the extremity
E. Affected extremity feels cooler to the touch than the unaffected extremity

A

The answers are B, D, and E. These symptoms may present with compartment syndrome. Option A and C are normal findings. Remember in compartment syndrome nerve and blood vessel function is being compromised, so expect signs and symptoms that occur when these structures are affected.

55
Q

Your patient is 2 hours post-op from a cast placement on the right leg. The patient has family in the room. Which action by the significant other requires you to re-educate the patient and family about cast care?
A. Gently moving the cast with the fingertips of the hands every 2 hours to help with drying.
B. Elevating the cast above heart level with pillows.
C. Checking the color and temperature of the right foot.
D. Using a hair dryer on the cool setting to help with drying.

A

The answer is A. The cast should always be moved with the palms of the hands (NOT finger tips) during the drying period to prevent dent formation because this can cause the development of ulcers under the skin where the dents develop.

56
Q

A patient sustained a fracture to the femur. The patient has suddenly become confused, restless, and has a respiratory rate of 30 breaths per minute. Based on the location of fracture and the presenting symptoms, this patient may be experiencing what type of complication?
A. Compartment Syndrome
B. Osteomyelitis
C. Fat embolism
D. Hypovolemia

A

The answer is C. Patients who experience a fracture of the long bones (such as the femur) are at risk for a fat embolism. The patient will become confused and restless along with an abnormal respiratory status.

57
Q

Which assessment finding found while assessing a patient with a fracture who has traction requires immediate intervention?
A. The weights are freely hanging on the floor.
B. Pin sites are free from drainage.
C. Patient uses the overhead trapeze bar to move around in the bed.
D. Patient’s extremities have a capillary refill of less than 2 seconds.

A

The answer is A. Weights used for traction should freely hang but NOT on the floor. All the other options are expected findings.