Week 11 Reproductive & Joint systems Flashcards

1
Q

Which is an effect of estrogen for bone density?

A

Maintenance of bone density by decreasing the rate of bone resorption is an effect of estrogen. This is through the antagonizing effects of the parathyroid hormone.

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2
Q

Which adverse reaction is common with menopausal estrogens?

A

Elevation of systemic blood pressure

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3
Q

Patients treated with androgen therapy should be instructed to seek emergent evaluation if which adverse reaction occurs?

A

Priapism is an emergent condition in which a male can experience a sustained erection. It is important that a patient treated with androgen therapy is educated to seek emergent evaluation if this occurs.

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4
Q

Which contraceptive methods contains only progesterone?

A

Nexplanon (implant)

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5
Q

Which progesterone offers a decrease in androgenicity when compared with the other progesterones?

A

desogestrel and norgestimate

The decrease in androgenicity is thought to reduce adverse effects on carbohydrate and lipid metabolism, along with improving acne and hirsutism.

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6
Q

The recommended maximum daily dose of acetaminophen for a person who is suffering from moderate osteoarthritis (OA) pain, and has a history of alcohol and drug use with hepatic issues, is a maximum of how many grams per day?

A

3 grams/day

is the current recommended maximum dose, especially when scheduled, rather than intermittent, dosing is utilized.

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7
Q

Tumor necrosis factor (TNF) inhibitors used for the treatment of rheumatoid arthritis (RA) are associated with serious side effects, such as increased risk of which condition(s)?

A

Heart failure, vasculitis, and vision issues

TNF inhibitors do slow RA progression, but there are rising concerns about extra-articular risks (heart failure, vasculitis, and vision issues).

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8
Q

Which drug is most appropriate for a patient with high uric acid levels who undersecretes uric acid and has adequate renal function?

A

Probenecid

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9
Q

What drug is best for patients who overproduce uric acid.

A

Allopurinol or febuxostat

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10
Q

Which warning would the APN provide to an older patient taking calcium supplements and anticoagulants (such as warfarin)?

A

Calcium supplements contain high vitamin K levels, and warfarin doses may need increasing.

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11
Q

Which statement is most accurate regarding biosimilar drugs used to treat rheumatoid arthritis (RA)?

A

All biosimilar drugs must demonstrate patient outcomes similar to the parent drug, and clinicians must monitor for the same side effects.

Usually less expensive

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12
Q

Probenecid, taken to control uric acid levels, should not be prescribed for persons allergic to which of the following?

A

Sulfa-containing drugs

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13
Q

Which statements are most accurate regarding bone mineral density (BMD) in African American women when compared with white women?

A
  • African American women have higher BMD than white women,
  • more likely to die from hip fracture.
  • lactose intolerant, which leads to poor calcium intake.
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14
Q

Indomethacin (COX-1 inhibitor) is no longer the first choice for pain and inflammation relief in gout due to which factor?

A
  • gastric bleeding
  • gastric peptic ulcers and
  • renal dysfunction
  • the Beers list.
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15
Q

To minimize gastrointestinal side effects, it is recommended that bisphosphonates should be taken in which manner?

A
  • First thing in the morning on an empty stomach with a full 8 oz glass of water
  • decreases the risk of esophagitis and gastric irritation and maximizes absorption in the gut.
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16
Q

Research from a Women’s Health Initiative (WHI) study resulted in which evidence-based recommendation regarding the use of estrogen and selective estrogen receptor modulators (SERMs) for the sole purpose of treatment for osteoporosis?

A

The WHI findings recommend BISPHOSPHONATES as the first-line treatment of osteoporosis because of potential risks associated with estrogen and SERMs, such as cardiovascular (CV) events and cancer.

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17
Q

Which method of action do injectable parathyroid hormone (PTH) analogues (such as Forteo) have on bone remodeling?

A

Stimulating osteoblastic activity

PTH analogues differ from other drugs to treat osteoporosis in that instead of preventing bone breakdown, they stimulate new bone formation and osteoblastic activity.

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18
Q

Colchicine, a medication used in treatment of gout, has a primary method of action that includes which of these?

A

Decreasing inflammation by uric acid crystals

PROPHYLACTIC, reduces inflammation, incidence of acute attack, and relieves residual pain postacute attack.

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19
Q

The rate of decline of bone loss is greatest for women during which period of their lives?

A

Within 2 years of menopause

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20
Q

When gout occurs in postmenopausal women, it is almost exclusively associated with which factors?

A

Hypertension, renal insufficiency, and diuretic use

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21
Q

To relieve the acute pain of a flare of gout, which drug is the currently recommended first-line treatment?

A

(NSAIDS)

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22
Q

Which recommendation should be made to a patient with a creatinine clearance (CCr) less than 30 to 35 mL/min and a serum creatinine of 5.1 regarding consideration of drug therapy with a bisphosphonate for osteoporosis treatment?

A

Bisphosphonates are not recommended for patients with moderate to severe renal impairment (CCr less than 30 to 35 and serum creatinine greater than 4.9) because the drug is mainly excreted in the urine.

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23
Q

Current (USPSTF) guidelines make which recommendation for the use of raloxifene (a selective estrogen receptor modulator [SERM]) for primary prevention of osteoporotic fragility fracture in postmenopausal women?

A

Raloxifene is a second-line therapy for those unable to tolerate other osteoporotic prevention therapies.

Raloxifene may be used for those unable to tolerate other therapies for osteoporosis; however, the same precautions are in place, including avoidance of use in those with history of deep vein thrombosis (DVT) or embolism because of increased risk of thromboembolic events.

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24
Q

Tumor necrosis factor (TNF) inhibitors used for the treatment of rheumatoid arthritis (RA) are associated with serious side effects, such as increased risk of which condition(s)?

A

Heart failure, vasculitis, and vision issues

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25
Q

Gout is caused by an alteration in purine metabolism, resulting in high levels of which of these?

A

Uric acid

hyperuricemia and deposition of urate crystals in various body tissues.

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26
Q

How do rates of hip fracture and vertebral fracture among Asian American women compare with those among white women?

A

Asian American women have lower hip fracture rates and higher vertebral fracture rates.

Asian women consume less calcium, because 90% of Asians are lactose-intolerant.

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27
Q

Colchicine, a medication used in treatment of gout, has a primary method of action that includes which of these?

A

Decreasing inflammation by uric acid crystals

Colchicine is prophylactic, reduces inflammation, incidence of acute attack, and relieves residual pain postacute attack.

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28
Q

Testosterone

MOA
Indication
ADR #4
Contraindication #6
Drug Interactions #3
Monitoring Parameters #4
A

MOA:
-highly protein bound

Indication: **only for testosterone deficiency, not spermatogenesis

  • male primary hypogonadism (Kleinfelter’s)
  • male hypogonadotropic hypogonadism (Pituitary condition, DM, cirrhosis, steroids)
  • Delayed male puberty
  • Transgender males
  • Endometriosis & postmenopausal (Not FDA approved)

ADR:

  • Acne
  • Prostate disorder
  • Sleep apnea
  • Erythrocytosis

Contraindication:

  • “Trial basis” on healthy, middle aged men
  • Prostate/male breast cancer
  • lower urinary tract symptoms (because prostate responsive to testosterone = BPH symptoms)
  • erythrocytosis (HCT >50)
  • severe untreated sleep apnea (CPAP its ok)
  • CHF (increased Na+ retention)

Drug Interactions:

  • Anticoagulants (Warfarin effects will be increased)
  • Diabetic Agents (profound hypoglycemia)
  • Corticosteroids (enhanced fluid retention r/t Na+ effects)

Education:
Minimize exposure to children (gel)

Monitoring Parameters:

  • Reevaluate for prostate cancer @3 months & year
  • HCT 3-6 months, then annually
  • Lipids
  • LFTs
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29
Q

When can the effects of testosterone be seen?

A

3-6 months, bone density in 2 years

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30
Q

Finasteride (Proscar, Propecia)

Drug Class
Indication
MOA
Monitoring Parameters

A

5-Alpha Reductase Inhibitors

Indication:

  • BPH
  • Male pattern baldness

MOA:

  • Inhibits enzymes that coverts testosterone to DHT
  • Anti Androgen Effects

Monitoring Parameters:
Prostate evaluation for increase in PSA
**Risk of high-grade prostate cancer

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31
Q

Leuprolide (Lupron)

Drug Class
MOA #2
Indication #4

A

GnRH Analogues

MOA:

  • LH antagonist
  • Anti Androgen Effects

Indication:

  • Advanced prostate/breast cancer
  • Endometriosis & fibroids
  • Precocious Puberty
  • Suppress puberty in transgender
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32
Q

Spironolactone

Drug Class
MOA #3
Indication #3
ADR #2
Pregnancy
A

Aldosterone Antagonist

MOA:

  • Aldosterone antagonist
  • 5-alpha reductase inhibitor
  • potassium sparing diuretic

Indication:

  • PCOS
  • Acne
  • Hirsutism

ADR:
GI
Gynecomastia

PREGNANCY: NO

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33
Q

Ethinyl estradiol

Drug Class
MOA
Contraindication #7
Drug Interactions #2

A

Estrogen in Oral Contraception

MOA:
-Metabolized in Liver

Contraindicaton:

  • > 35years & smoke
  • Uncontrolled HTN
  • Embolism/stroke
  • Current breast cancer
  • Cirrhosis
  • Migraine w/aura
  • Ischemic heart disease or risk factors

Drug Interactions:

  • Any drugs that increase liver enzyme activity
  • Anticonvulsants/Rifampin, Griseofulvan
34
Q

Estrogen in Menopause

Indication #3
Oral vs. Transdermal ADR #3

A

Indication:

  • Vasomotor S/S (vaginal dryness)
  • GU S/S
  • Benefit > risk for healthy women w/in 10 years of menopause or younger than 60

Oral Systemic treatment ADR:

  • Oral has greater effect on liver = increased clotting factors, proteins, lipids
  • Oral = Estrogen increases blood clot risk (negative effect on lipids)
  • reduces thyroid function

Transdermal Estrogen
-Lower risk thrombosis/stroke

35
Q

Vaginal Estrogen in Menopause

Indication #2
ADR #7

A

Vaginal Estrogen in Menopause

Indication:

  • low dose for vaginal atrophy
  • high dose = Vasomotor symptoms

ADR:

  • Breast soreness
  • Headache
  • hypertension
  • DM exacerbation
  • cholestasis
  • Thrombosis
  • Endometrial hyperplasia
36
Q

Contraindications to Menopausal Hormone Therapy (MHT) #6

A
  • Breast cancer
  • CAD
  • Thrombosis/stroke
  • Acute liver disease
  • unexplained vaginal bleeding
  • high risk for endometrial cancer
37
Q

Raloxifene (Evista)

Indication
MOA #3
ADR #2
Teaching point

A

Estrogen and Bone Health

MOA:

  • Selective estrogen receptor modulator (SERM)
  • Estrogen agonist in bone
  • Estrogen antagonist in breast (reduces breast cancer risk)

ADR:
Hot Flashes
Thrombosis

Teaching point:
*no effect on endometrium

38
Q

Ospemifene (Osphena)

MOA
What does it do?
Indication #2
Caution #2

A

MOA:
Selective estrogen receptor modulator (SERM)
-Estrogen agonist in endometrium

What does it do?
Increases thickness & moisture of vaginal mucosa

Indication:

  • Dyspareunia in postmenopausal females
  • Vaginal dryness in postmenopausal females

Caution:

  • increased risk of endometrial cancer
  • Stroke/DVT
39
Q

Bazedoxifene (Duavee)

MOA
pt population

A

MOA:
Combo estrogen derivative w/SERM

Patient population w/ intact uterus

40
Q

Role of Progesterone #4

A

Thickens & stabilizes endometrium
Thickens cervical mucus
Relaxes smooth muscle of uterus
Thins vaginal mucosa

41
Q
Etonogestrel implant (Nexplanon)
Levonorgestrel-releasing intrauterine devices (Mirena, Skyla) 
Depot medroxyprogesterone injection (Depo-Provera)

MOA #5
ADR #5
Contraindication #3
Drug Interactions #2

A

MOA:

  • Thickens cervical mucus to inhibit sperm migration
  • Suppresses ovulation
  • Lowers mid cycle peak FSH & LH
  • Slow egg movement
  • Thin Endomedrium
  • less complications than estrogen

ADR:

  • Irregular breakthrough bleeding
  • Breast tender
  • Galactorrhea
  • nausea
  • Acne

Contraindication:

  • Breast Cancer
  • Undiagnosed uterine bleeding
  • Live disease (extensively metabolized by liver)

Drug Interactions

  • Drugs the increase liver enzyme activity EX: Anticonvulsants
  • Rifampin reduces efficacy
42
Q

Norethindrone (Camila)

A

Progesterone only pills

**Half of women ovulate, just makes environment unsuitable

EDUCATION:
needs to be taken at same time everyday

43
Q

Drospirenone (Slynd):

A

Progesterone only pills
Suppresses ovulation
antimineralcorticoid activity

44
Q

Medroxyprogesterone Acetate (MPA)

Indication
Increased risk for ? #3
Which patients?
Contraindicated #2

1st or 2nd line?

A

Progesterone in Menopause

Indication:
-To prevent Endometrial Hyperplasia

Increased risks:

  • Breast cancer
  • CAD
  • negative effect on lipids

Patient type:
-For women with uterus

Contraindicated:

  • Women with hysterectomy
  • Low risk women on low dose estrogen

**Not preferred

45
Q

Micronized Progesterone

Indication
1st or 2nd line?
Patient education

A

-To prevent Endometrial Hyperplasia
PREFERRED
Bioidentical

Minimal effect on lipids, no increased risk cancer, CAD

Patient Education:
Monthly withdrawal bleeding

46
Q

Mifepristone (Mifeprex, Korlym)

Drug Class
Indication #2
ADR #2

A

Progesterone Antagonist

Indication:

  • Terminate Pregnancy
  • Cushings

ADR:

  • Bleeding
  • Bacterial Infection
47
Q

Biphosphonates

Indication #5
MOA
ADR #5
Patient Education
Contraindication #6
A

Indication:

  • Osteoporosis
  • High fracture risk (long term steroids, bone mineral density FRAX score)
  • Hypercalcemia
  • Bone cancer
  • Paget’s

MOA:
-Inhibit bone resorption by reducing osteoclast # & fx

ADR:

  • Esophagitis/gastric Irritation
  • Atypical femur fractures (long term)
  • Bone/joint/muscle pain
  • Hypocalcemia
  • Jaw osteonecrosis (IV) discontinues between oral surgery

Patient Education:
Empty stomach w/ 8oz water & stay upright for 30 mins

Contraindication:

  • Renal disease
  • Uncorrected hypocalcemia
  • Delayed esophageal emptying (stricture/achalasia)
  • Can’t sit up right
  • aspiration
  • UGI Pathology (esophagitis, ulcers, dysphagia)
48
Q

Risedronate (Actontel)

MOA
Indication

A

Drug Class:
Biphosphonate

MOA:
Inhibits bone resorption w/o inhibiting bone formation

Indication:
Prevent hip or non-vertebral fractures

49
Q

Alendronate (Fosamax)

Drug Class
MOA
Indication

A

Biphosphonate

MOA:
Highly selective inhibitor of bone resorption

Indication:
Prevent hip or non-vertebral fractures

50
Q

What do you do if someone’s fracture risk remains high while on bisphosphonates

A

More than 5 years take a drug holiday

51
Q

Which bisphosphonates prevent hip and non-vertebral fractures?

A

Alendronate (Fosamax)

Risedronate (Actontel)

52
Q

Zoledronic Acid (Reclast)

ADR #2
Creatine
Education

A

**IV

ADR:
Risk renal toxicity
Flu-like ache symptoms (give Tylenol)

Monitor:
Creatinine

Education:
Calcium & Vitamin D supplement

53
Q

Allopurinol & Febuxostat

Drug Class
Indication
MOA
ADR #5
Contraindication
Drug interaction #3
Peds
Pregnancy
Lactation
Patient Education #2
Special Patient Consideration
A

Xanthine Oxidase Inhibitors

Indication:
Chronic gout

MOA:
Inhibits xanthine oxidase to prevent conversion into uric acid

ADR:

  • Maculopapular skin rash
  • Arthralgia
  • GI
  • Hepatoxicity (RARE)
  • Hypersensitivity (RARE)

Contraindication:
-Hepatic dysfunction

Drug Interaction:
Azathioprine
Mercaptopurine
Theophylline

Peds: >6 years old
Pregnancy: NO:
Lactation: allopurinol only

Patient Education:

  • Takes 1 week to see effects
  • Administer with NSAID or Colchicine for 6 months to prevent flare up

Special Patient considerations:
Asians receive testing for allele, if positive prescribe alternative agent
*High risk for ADR steven-Johnson syndrome

54
Q

Which Xanthine Oxidase Inhibitor is the first line?

A

Allopurinol

55
Q

Black Box warning for Febuxostat?

A

Increased risk of cardiac related deaths

56
Q

Probenecid

Indication
ADR #5
Contraindication #3
Drug interaction 
Pregnancy/lactation
A

Indication:
-Chronic gout

MOA:
-Increases excretion of uric acid by inhibiting reabsorption in kidney

ADR:

  • GI
  • urinary frequency
  • flushing fever
  • gout exacerbation (in beginning)
  • Blood dyscrasias (RARE)

Contraindication:

  • Blood dyscrasias
  • Renal failure
  • G6PD deficiency/sulfa allergy

Drug interaction:
-Aspirin

Pregnancy/lactation: NO

57
Q

Colchicine

Indication
MOA #2
ADR #3
Interaction
Peds
Patient education #2
A

Indication:
-Acute Gout Flare up

MOA:

  • Inhibits neutrophil migration, degranulation & activation
  • CYP450

ADR:

  • GI
  • Blood dyscrasia
  • Alopecia

Interaction:
-Grapefruit Juice

Peds: >16 years

Patient Education:

  • Report abdominal pain r/t hepatoxicity
  • 18-24 to work
58
Q

What do you give for a gout flare-up that started more than 36 hours ago?

A

NSAIDs or Corticosteroids

59
Q

Prednisone

Indication #2
MOA
ADR #3
Contraindication
Caution #3
Peds
Patient Consideration
A

Corticosteroids

Indication:

  • Acute Gout
  • Rheumatoid Arthritis

MOA:
-suppress leukocytes & reverse capillary permeability

ADR:

  • Hypertension
  • Insomnia
  • Cushings syndrome

Contraindication:
-Uncontrolled infection

Caution:

  • Prolonged use = adrenal suppression/immunosuppression
  • Diabetics
  • Active GI disease

Peds: OK

Patient consideration:
-Calcium & Vitamin D supplement

60
Q

Acetaminophen

Indication
MOA
Contraindication
ADR
Preg/lact/peds
Patient Education
A

Indication:
-Mild to Mod OA

MOA:

  • CNS & COX = decreased prostaglandin synthesis
  • not anti-inflammatory

Contraindication:
-Liver disease

ADR:

  • Skin rash
  • Dizzy

Preg/lact/Peds: OK

Patient Education:
-Takes one week to work so should be taken on schedule

61
Q

What is the first line treatment for OA?

A

Acetaminophen

62
Q

NSAIDs

Indication #2
MOA
ADR #4
Caution
Contraindication
Black box warning #3
Pregnancy
Lactation
Peds
A

Indication:

  • Mild-mod OA
  • RA

MOA:
-prevents conversion of arachidonic acid

ADR:

  • Edema
  • GI
  • Elevated LFTs
  • Bleeding

Caution:
-Cardiovascular disease

Contraindication:
-Renal failure

BLACK BOX WARNING:
risk thrombotic evens; GI bleeding, ulcer, perforations

Pregnancy: NO
Lactation: ok
Peds: >6 months

63
Q

Tramadol

Indication
MOA #2
ADR #3
Caution #2
Contraindication
Interactions #2
A

Indication:
-OA pain not responding to APAP & NSAIDs

MOA:

  • Mu opioid receptor agonist inhibits pain pathways
  • Inhibits serotonin & norepinephrine

ADR:

  • Dizzy/Drowsy
  • Dependency
  • Respiratory depression

Caution:

  • substance abuse history
  • other CNS depressants
Contraindication:
Seizure history (lowers seizure threshold)

Interactions:

  • Do not mix with serotonergic agents r/t serotonin syndrome
  • CNS depressants
64
Q

Methotrexate

Drug Class
MOA
ADR #4
Contraindication
Black Box Warning #6
Patient Education #2
A

Disease Modifying Antirheumatic Drugs

MOA:
-Folic acid antagonist = leukocyte depression

ADR:

  • GI
  • Photosensitivity*
  • Elevated LFTs
  • Alopecia

Contraindication:
-Blood dyscrasias

BLACK BOX WARNING:

  • Hepatotoxicity
  • Renal impairment
  • Pneumonitis
  • Bone marrow suppression/Opportunistic infection
  • GI Toxicity/stomatitis
  • Derm reaction

Pregnancy/Lactation: NO

Patient Education:
-Folic Acid supplementation
-Takes 3-8 weeks to work so need NSAID or prednisone
Contraception??

65
Q

Rituximab (Rituxan); Abatacept (Orencia)

Drug Class
MOA
ADR #4
Caution
Patient consideration
Peds
A

Biologic DMARDS (TNF inhibitors)

MOA:
Binds & inactivates TNF-alpha = recuded infiltration of inflammatory cells

ADR:

  • Injection site reaction
  • infection
  • headache
  • nausea

Caution:
-new/recurrent infection

Patient Consideration:
Update immunizations

Peds: >2yrs

66
Q

What special consideration should you take when starting a patient on Rituximab & Abatacept?

A

Immunizations; live 3 months before or 3 months after medication

67
Q

When and why would you prescribe a DMARD?

A

The severity and impact of RA has led experts to endorse the early use of DMARDs to slow disease progression and minimize disability.

68
Q

Which recommendation is most appropriate for a person who requires chronic lowering of uric acid levels before initiation of therapy with febuxostat (Uloric)?

A

Prophylactic administration of an NSAID or colchicine

Lowering uric acid levels for up to 6 months before initiation of febuxostat (Uloric) can decrease the risk of acute gout flares.

69
Q

What should you screen for before initiating Rasburicase (Elitek)

A

G6PD deficiency

70
Q

Prescription of a disease-modifying antirheumatic drug (DMARD) of any sort would be contraindicated in a patient with which condition?

A

Hepatitis B

Any DMARD suppresses the immune system and may encourage risk of significant exacerbation of latent infection, such as hepatitis B.

71
Q

Persons with gout who are taking uric acid–lowering drugs should have their serum uric acid levels assessed at which interval(s)?

A

At baseline and after 1 to 3 weeks of drug therapy

72
Q

Selective estrogen receptor modulators (SERMs) such as raloxifene should not be prescribed for pre- or perimenopausal women because of which possibility?

A

Triggering intolerable hot flashes

SERMs do not reduce natural estrogen production, but block estrogen binding, resulting in higher levels of freely circulating estrogen in pre- and perimenopausal women, triggering intense hot flashes.

73
Q

When adding a new drug, such as another disease-modifying antirheumatic drug (DMARD) or biologic, to the treatment regimen of a patient with rheumatoid arthritis (RA) who is taking methotrexate, consideration of which characteristics is most important?

A

Protein-binding characteristics of the new drug

Methotrexate is heavily protein bound and adding a new protein-binding drug will result in competition for binding and disruption of the anti-inflammatory effect

74
Q

What would someone on methotrexate need to supplement with?

A

Folic Acid

75
Q

Can methotrexate be used with other DMARDS & biologics?

A

Yes, can increase the therapeutic effect

76
Q

To reduce the risk of toxicity and rise in serum urate levels, which class of antihypertensives should be avoided in persons with hypertension taking allopurinol?

A

Thiazide diuretics have the potential to raise uric acid levels and greatly increase the risk of toxicity.

77
Q

To minimize the risk of osteonecrosis of the jaw, persons with cancer who have been taking IV doses of bisphosphonates or oral doses of bisphosphonates for more than 3 years, and who are planning elective invasive dental procedures, should take which action?

A

Stop bisphosphonate therapy 3 months before the dental procedure.

78
Q

Evaluation of which indicator is used to diagnose and signal need for treatment in Paget’s disease?

A

Alkaline phosphatase

Alkaline phosphatase is a bone marker that is elevated during periods of high bone turnover, and it serves as a marker for bisphosphonate treatment when it is twice the normal level.

79
Q

According to American Association of Clinical Endocrinologists (AACE) guidelines, dual energy x-ray absorptiometry (DEXA) scans are appropriate for which patients?

A

women over 65 years old, those over 40 years old with fractures, and those with primary hyperthyroidism to aid treatment decisions and monitoring for effect,

80
Q

Patients taking allopurinol or colchicine should have liver function tests (LFTs) evaluated if they develop which cardinal symptoms?

A

The cardinal symptoms of potentially severe hepatic dysfunction in those taking allopurinol and colchicine are anorexia, weight loss, or pruritus, and LFTs should be evaluated.

81
Q

Which intervention is recommended by most experts to relieve moderate pain in osteoarthritis (OA)?

A

Acetaminophen is considered the most benign way to treat the pain of OA, either alone or in combination with a topical agent.