Week 11 Flashcards

1
Q

Why do we consider muscle performance?

A

Strength: amount of force produced
Endurance: ability to sustain a specified output
Power: rate of force produced. Muscles with an increased % of type II fibers will generate more torque and power at a standard velocity compared to muscles with predominately type I fibers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Explain intervention ladder

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

1) What are the rules to initiate strengthening? 2) to initiate plyometric and complex task training?

A

1) The patient needs to have functional or relatively full, pain free range of motion prior to initiating strengthening at a level of > 60% MVC.
If they do not have functional pain free range of motion, we have to address these impairments first (inflammation, pain, and mobility restrictions) prior to introducing strengthening exercises.
2) You need full pain free range of motion, adequate muscle strength, and evidence of joint stability.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

How to differentiate intensity, duration and frequency options for MIDF?

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

List individual factors that affect muscle performance

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Explain 1) muscle cross sectional area, 2) muscle pennation and length, 3) fiber type and distribution

A

1) In general, the greater the muscle’s cross-sectional area with muscle fiber, the more force production the muscle is able to perform.
The “in general” note refers to the fact that certain muscles, in the presence of pain or dysfunction, get fatty infiltration in the muscles. Although the muscles may not loose cross-sectional area (CSA), they loose fibers within that CSA.

2) * Short fibers with increased pennation = high force production (quad, gastroc)
* Long, parallel fibers = less force production (sartorius, lumbricals), but more ROM through muscle excursion

3) * Mainly Type I fibers = low force production, slow rate of force development, high resistance of fatigue
* Mainly type IIA and IIB fibers = fast rate and large amount of force production; quickly fatiguable

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Explain 1) type of muscle contraction, 2) changes in fiber type, 3) changes in the size of muscles

A

1) * Eccentric: The muscle is working while lengthening in a controlled manner.
* Isometric: The muscle is holding a set position.
* Concentric: Work is being done with the muscle shortening.

2) * There are various isoforms, but we’ll focus on 3 main isoforms.
* The percent of contribution of each fiber type within a muscle can theoretically be altered by exercise, inactivity, and age.

3) Hypertrophy
* An increase in cross sectional area closely correlated with increases in force production Results from accumulation of proteins through either an increased rate of synthesis or a decreased rate of degradation
Hyperplasia
* An increase in fiber number

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

How many MHC (myosin heavy chain) proteins can adult skeletal muscles express?

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Explain reasons we lose strength

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Define muscle atrophy

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Explain sarcopenia

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Explain forms of fatigue

A

(need to check when reestablishing muscle performance)

1) muscle fatigue: Considered to be a reduction in the force generating capacity of the neuromuscular system.
Involves both central and peripheral components.
* Central fatigue (inhibition) versus peripheral fatigue (metabolic)
Local muscle fatigue can include:
* Decrease in energy stores, insufficient 02, and build up of H+
* CNS inhibition
* Possible decrease in activity at the motor unit

2) cardiopulmonary fatigue: Diminished response as a result of prolonged activity
Caused by:
* Decrease in glucose levels
* Decrease in glycogen stores in the muscle and liver
* Decrease/depletion of potassium (K)

3) form fatigue: * local fatigue characterized by diminished force generating capacity of muscle
* Remember from motor control, we want to see if the patient can overcome this form fatigue. If they can’t, we pause the exercise until it can be done correctly so as not to feed into faulty movement patterns

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is the usual recovery time from a set of exercise?

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What should you expect from the muscle tissue with mechanotransduction?

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Why do we overload muscles?

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Explain muscle strength vs endurance

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Define resistance training

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What do you expect to happen with resistance training?

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What can the patient expect to see with gains?

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Does resistance training cause tendon remodeling?

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Define isometric, concentric, and eccentric contractions

A

isometric: The muscle contracts, but the body region does not change positions.
Strength gains are angle specific (# 10° although some studies have found a 30° transfer, and up to a 75° transfer if trained in a lengthened position) Advantage: contraction occurs without joint movement

Concentric: The muscle is producing positive work by shortening with an active muscle contraction.
In this exercise, you still have to consider where gravity is in relationship to the bony segment moving. For example, in a standing bicep curl, the biceps is contracting concentrically as the elbow is flexed, and the bicep acts eccentrically as the elbow returns to the extended position.
But what if the patient was supine? The biceps would contract concentrically until the elbow is flexed to 90 deg. Then, to complete elbow flexion, the triceps acts eccentrically through the rest of elbow flexion. When returning the elbow to the start position, the triceps acts concentrically until 90 deg of elbow flexion, then the biceps acts eccentrically for the rest of elbow extension.

Eccentric: The muscle contracts in a lengthening direction to control the load, usually to slow down the speed in the direction of gravity. This produces negative work.
Eccentric muscle contractions are characterized by greater force production an a given velocity, more neuromuscularly efficient, less metabolically demanding.
Not so good news: There is an increased incidence of delayed onset muscle soreness (DOMS).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What are the exercise volume protocols?

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Explain Advantages and disadvantages

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Explain Advantages and disadvantages

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Explain Advantages and disadvantages

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

With endurance training over a 6 week period, what is the effect on mitochondrial protein content?

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What are the expected results of endurance training?

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Explain specificity of training for strength vs endurance

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What are the steps of plyometrics?

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What is exercise prescription used for?

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

How do you determine the appropriate amount of load?

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What are the guidelines for endurance and resistance training?

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

List the dosage requirements for strength, power, and endurance

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

List precautions and contraindications of exercise

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Define PNF

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

How does PNF generate optimal motor effort?

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What should be considered when applying PNF with motor training?

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Explain the diagonal line of movement in PNF

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

How do you optimize PNF movement?

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

How do PTs use their body to get the right movement during PNF?

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What is the appropriate resistance in PNF?

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Explain verbal commands during PNF

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

How can you use verbal commands for different types of contraction in PNF?

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Explain UE D1 flexion PNF

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Explain UE D1 extension PNF

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Explain UE D2 flexion PNF

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Explain UE D2 extension PNF

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Explain LE D1 flexion PNF

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Explain LE D1 extension PNF

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Explain LE D2 flexion PNF

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Explain LE D2 extension PNF

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

What do PNF techniques involve?

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

PNF, explain rhythmic initiation and slow reversal

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

PNF, explain hold relax and contract relax

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

PNF, explain alternating isometrics

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

PNF, explain slow reversal hold and repeated contractions

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

PNF, explain agonistic reversals

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

What aspects exist beyond resistance or weights in PNF?

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

What are the goals of plyometrics?

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

What are the components of plyometrics?

A

1) eccentric: This is the phase where the musculotendinous unit deforms under load created by a rapid stretch/lengthening. During this stage, kinetic energy is being used to create strain on the series elastic components of the muscle-tendon unit. During this time, the muscle will be mostly acting to stiffen the tendon with an isometric pre-contraction, then eccentrically lengthen as the joint angles change.

2) amortization: This phase is the transition between the eccentric and concentric phases. This is where kinetic energy is transferred and stored as elastic potential energy relative to the degree of tendon stiffness or compliance. You can think of this as the loaded spring ready to rapidly bounce back to its length. The quicker this phase, the more of that elastic energy will be transformed back into kinetic energy for the upcoming concentric phase. Muscles are working isometrically here to facilitate the spring like tendon.
The physiologic adaptation in plyometric performance is for this phase to achieve the fastest rate of time possible. If the Amortization phase is prolonged, the stretch reflex is inhibited and the heat generated is dissipated.

3) concentric: This is when that stored elastic potential energy converts back to kinetic energy, and combines with the associated conscious and reflex muscle contraction forces. The end result is explosively propelling the systems center of mass in the applied direction.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

Label the phases

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

Explain the science of plyometrics

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

How is plyometrics progressed?

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

Explain force absorption phase in plyometrics

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

Explain force creation phase of plyometrics

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

Explain stretch shortening cycle phase of plyometrics

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

Explain maximal power demands phase in plyometrics

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

What should a sport specific exercise accomplish?

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

Explain tuck jump assessment

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

What tool can be used to grade the tuck jump?

71
Q

Explain seated chest pass assessment

72
Q

Explain agility T test

73
Q

What are the interpretation of scores for the agility T test?

74
Q

What are the plyometric prescription dosage guidelines in terms of intensity, volume, frequency, and contraindications

75
Q

Is lower muscle strength a dependent or independent risk factor for post fracture mortality in older individuals?

76
Q

Define bioenergentics

77
Q

Explain rapid vs sustained energy systems

78
Q

Explain the phosphagen system

79
Q

Explain glycolysis

80
Q

What is the difference between aerobic vs anaerobic glycolysis

81
Q

Explain krebs cycle

82
Q

Explain the electron transport chain

83
Q

What determines the extent to which the energy systems contribute to energy produced?

84
Q

Solve these for each energy system

85
Q

Explain

86
Q

Explain skeletal muscle hypertrophy

87
Q

What effect does hypertrophy vs atrophy have on muscle protein?

88
Q

Explain

89
Q

Explain muscle protein turnover in an acute/single bout

90
Q

Explain chronic protein turnover

91
Q

What is mTORC1 used for?

92
Q

What is used to accomplish mechanotransduction signaling?

93
Q

Explain

94
Q

What does p-mTORC1 with a net positive protein balance do?

A

up regulates MPS
Down regulates MPB

95
Q

What to be aware of when prescribing load after an injury?

96
Q

What is the difference in sets, reps, rest, load, and volume between endurance, strength, and hypertrophy?

97
Q

What is the “new” hypertrophy continuum?

98
Q

What is the effect of shorter vs longer rest intervals?

99
Q

Explain S.A.I.D.

100
Q

What is functional training?

101
Q

Define progressive loading

102
Q

Explain the approaches to periodization

103
Q

By 50 years of age, how does muscle atrophy progress?

104
Q

What is a common compensation for sarcopenia? Is it positive or negative?

105
Q

Do older adults have higher metabolic resistance from the benefits of resistance training?

A

yes, they will experience fewer gains when compared to a younger individual in the same training program

106
Q

Explain

107
Q

What limits muscle adaptation to resistance training in older adults?

108
Q

Assess and answer

A

Yes, concurrent training is important for older adults. Here’s why:
* Aerobic exercise alone improves muscle quality and strength, likely through neuromuscular adaptations and increased capillarization.
* However, resistance training is typically needed to increase muscle mass.
* Therefore, combining both (concurrent training) can optimize:
* Cardiovascular health
* Muscle strength
* Muscle mass preservation
* Functional independence

109
Q

For hypertrophy, how should resistance exercises be performed?

110
Q

What are APTA’s 5 recommendations for exercise prescription?

111
Q

What would the outcomes be?

112
Q

Prescribe exercises for 1) total hip replacement 1 week post op, 2) total knee replacement 1 week post op

113
Q

Prescribe exercises for 1) hip fracture 16 days post op, 2) post op ankle fracture (immonilized for 7 weeks)

114
Q

Is high intensity exercise safe for older adults?

115
Q

Explain tissue capacity

116
Q

What must all prescribed exercises follow?

117
Q

Explain anaerobic glycolysis

118
Q

What is this?

A

aerobic glycolysis

119
Q

What is released in tricarboxylic acid (TCA) cycle?

120
Q

Are heavier loads (over 60% of max) necessary during RE to activate type II hypertrophy?

121
Q

What are the basic progression rules?

122
Q

What should functional activities involve from muscle power, endurance, strength?

123
Q

How does the resistance training background differ from a beginner, intermediate, and advanced lifters?

124
Q

What is the exercise order?

125
Q

How can exercise sessions be structured?

126
Q

How do you calculate load?

127
Q

What is the 1RM testing protocol?

128
Q

What are the 1RM prediction equations?

129
Q

At what training load is the benefit maximized for strength, power, and hypertrophy?

130
Q

Explain progressive loading and rest/adaptation

131
Q

Define plyometrics, speed, agility, ballistic training, and velocity based training (VBT)

132
Q

What are the components of agility?

133
Q

Explain stretch shortening cycle

134
Q

What does the stretch shortening cycle stimulate?

135
Q

For plyometrics, as intensity increase should volume decrease?

136
Q

What is the frequency for plyometrics?

137
Q

How long should recovery time be from max effort set?

138
Q

What should be considered when coming up with exercise volume?

139
Q

How do you progress plyometrics?

140
Q

What adjustments is made in terms of plyometrics for children?

141
Q

Explain peripheral vs central fatigue

142
Q

Explain the HR percentage method

143
Q

Give examples of scapular strengthening exercises

144
Q

Label

A

scapular strengthening exercises

145
Q

Label

146
Q

Label

147
Q

Label

148
Q

Label

149
Q

Explain the exercises: 1) forward punch and barrel hug, 2) touchdown (wall slides)

150
Q

What is the rule to start strengthening and to start plyometrics?

151
Q

How can you make a hip extension exercise harder/easier?

152
Q

Label

153
Q

Label

154
Q

Label

155
Q

Label

156
Q

Label

157
Q

Label

158
Q

Label

159
Q

Label

160
Q

Label

161
Q

How would you cue?

162
Q

How would you cue?

163
Q

How would you cue?

164
Q

How would you cue?

165
Q

Which of the following is NOT an accurate description of Motor Control?
A. Control of discrete movement across different joints through neural assemblies
B. Motor training can cause structural and functional adaptations within the motor areas of the CNS (basal ganglia, cerebellum, and red nucleus)
C. Interventions are prescribed at 40-60% of MVC with a target of 3 sets of 15-25 reps with a 1 minute rest break
D. Requires using the right muscles at the right time at the right intensity

A

C

Explanation: That’s a muscle endurance prescription, not motor control. Motor control training uses low load, high frequency.

166
Q

Which of the following is NOT a neurological adaptation to motor training?
A. Alterations in cortical synapse number
B. Alterations in number of sarcomeres in series
C. Alterations in synapse strength
D. Alterations in the topography of stimulation-evoked movement representations (motor maps)

A

B

Explanation: Sarcomere changes are muscular, not neurological adaptations.

167
Q

Which of the following observations can indicate a lack of hip-pelvic dissociation during BKFO?
A. The lumbar spine moves into sidebending
B. The lumbar spine moves into extension
C. The pelvis remains in a neutral position
D. The pelvis rotates in the same direction of hip abduction

A

A

Explanation: Sidebending of the lumbar spine during BKFO is a compensatory movement, indicating poor dissociation.

168
Q

What is the function of the transversus abdominis in a BKFO exercise?
A. This exercise is primarily an adductor lengthening exercise, and the TA is not active
B. The TA is eccentrically lengthening
C. The TA is isometrically stabilizing the pelvis
D. The TA is concentrically shortening

A

C

Explanation: TA functions isometrically to stabilize the pelvis during BKFO.

169
Q

Best prescription for prone plank to target motor coordination?
A. 3 sets of 30s holds, 1.5 min rest, daily
B. 3 sets of 20s holds, 30s rest, 3–5x/day
C. 3 sets of 40s holds, 3 min rest, every other day
D. 1 set of 40s hold, 5x/day

A

B

Explanation: High frequency, low load, moderate intensity is ideal for motor control adaptations.

170
Q

Which muscle and position would you target for scapular winging in quadruped?
A. Lower trap; open kinetic chain
B. Serratus anterior; open kinetic chain
C. Lower trap; closed kinetic chain
D. Serratus anterior; closed kinetic chain

A

D

Explanation: Serratus anterior in CKC (for example: quadruped) improves motor control and reduces winging.

171
Q

Which is NOT a theoretical mechanism through which PNF improves movement?
A. Improves motor output through improved sensory input
B. Improves motor output through repeating normal synergistic motions
C. Improves motor output by isolating specific muscles
D. Improves motor output by increasing effort in distal segment to facilitate proximal muscle activity

A

C

Explanation: PNF emphasizes synergies, not isolated muscles.

172
Q

How much force should be used during isometric “muscle setting”?
A. Maximal to point of fatigue in 5 reps
B. Moderate to perform 10 reps
C. Minimal to barely feel the muscle
D. Varied resistance for motor learning

A

C

Explanation: Muscle setting uses minimal force just enough to activate the muscle gently.

173
Q

Which PNF technique is primarily used to improve joint stability?
A. Slow reversals
B. Contract-relax stretching
C. Alternating isometrics
D. Repeated contractions

A

C

Explanation: Alternating isometrics build co-contraction for joint stability.

174
Q

Which lower extremity PNF diagonal best mimics stance phase of gait?
A. D1 extension
B. D1 flexion
C. D2 extension
D. D2 flexion

A

A

Explanation: D1 extension mimics hip extension, adduction, and plantarflexion, key features of stance phase.