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BACTE FINALS > WEEK 10: FASTIDIOUS GRAM-NEGATIVE BACILLI > Flashcards

WEEK 10: FASTIDIOUS GRAM-NEGATIVE BACILLI Flashcards

1
Q

HACEK

A

(Haemophilus parainfluenza, Aggregatibacter,
Cardiobacterium, Eikenella and Kingella)

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2
Q

) causing SBE
(subacute bacterial endocarditis)

A

HACEK

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3
Q
  • Derived from the Greek word “blood-lover”
A

HAEMOPHILUS

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4
Q
  • Non-pathogenic or produce opportunistic infections
  • 10% of the microbiota of the upper respiratory tract
A

HAEMOPHILUS

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5
Q

what are heamophilus’ * Require performed growth factors present in the blood:

A

o X Factor (hemin or hematin; X for unknown) – used in
the synthesis of catalase, peroxidase, and in the
cytochrome electron transport system

o V Factor (nicotinamide-adenine dinucleotide (NAD); V
for vitamin) – NAD is a co-enzyme that transfers
electrons from one reaction to another

o Both are additives

o Both are found inside RBCs, but only X factor is directly available

o Haemophilus species with the prefix para- only
require V factor for growth

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6
Q

is haemophilus capnophilic?

A

yes . they requires 5-10% CO2

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7
Q

– for culture of lower respiratory tract

A

Bronchial washing

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8
Q

Direct plating on selective media at the bedside is preferred

A

Haemophilus spp. fast drying kasi sila

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9
Q
  • Small, gram-negative coccobacilli to long filaments
A

HAEMOPHILUS

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10
Q

stain that help in
detecting Haemophilus spp.

A

Acridine orange or Methylene blue stain –

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11
Q
  • Haemophilus spp. will not grow on
A

MAC agar and SBA

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12
Q

Produce a “clumpy” nonhomogeneous appearance when
suspended in saline

A

HAEMOPHILUS

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13
Q

Use of impregnated strips or disks – for dentification of

A

Haemophilus spp. and some of the Aggregatibacter spp

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14
Q

Carryover may produce erroneous or less than definitive
results causing H. influenzae to be misidentified as

A

H. parainfluenzae

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15
Q

WHICH REQUIRES V FACTOR, X FACTOR AND NEITHER

  1. H. influenzae
  2. H. parainfluenzae
  3. A. segnis
A
  • H. influenzae – requires both X and V factors
  • H. parainfluezae – requires V factor only
  • A. segnis – requires only V factor, oxidase negative
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16
Q
  • Haemophilus Quad Plate
A

o Four zones: media with X factor only, V factor only, X
and V factors, and X and V factors with horse red
blood cells

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17
Q

as a substrate to synthesize
heme factor, in the process porphyrins are created
* Performed in agar, in broth, or on a disk

A

delta
aminolevulinic acid (ALA)

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18
Q

principle of porphyrin test

A

Principle: Based on the ability of the organism to convert
the substrate ALA into porphyrins or porphobilinogen,
which are intermediates in the synthesis of X factor

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19
Q

how is porphoblinogen detected

A

Detected by the addition of Kovacs reagent after 35°C for 4 hours incubation

o Red color forms in the lower aqueous phase
o Kovacs reagent (p-dimethylaminobenzaldehyde)
0.5mL for inoculation

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20
Q

how is porphyrin detected

A

Detected using an ultraviolet light with a wavelength
of about 360 nm (Wood’s lamp)

o Reddish-orange or pink fluorescence form under UV
light
o Much more accurate means of determining X factor
requirement compared to X and V factor disks
o Advantage: X factor is not required (no carryover)
o Disadvantage: Primary identification is based
on a negative test result

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21
Q

porphyrin test result

A

negative poprphyrin = x factor positive

= BLUE

(uv is negative, no flourescence, no color change in addition of kovac, cant make heme)

porphyrin positive = x factor negative

= PINK

kabaliktaran

btw di naman need heme

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22
Q

Hemolysis is determined on HBA since it cannot
hemolyze sheep’s blood

A

Satellitism

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23
Q

Stabbing the area of inoculation

A

enhances the hemolytic
reaction

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24
Q

occurs when an organism such as
Staphylococcus aureus, Streptococcus pneumoniae, or
Neisseria spp. produces V factor as a byproduct of
metabolism (they obtain V factor from the SBA)

A

Satellitism

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25
Q

Based on the factors required for growth and the presence of hemolysis IN haemophilus spp:

A

o H. haemolyticus – beta hemolytic on horse blood

o H. influenzae – non hemolytic

o Misidentifying H. haemolyticus as H. influenzae may
result in overtreatment

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26
Q

A disk impregnated with Nitrocefin, is moistened
with a drop of water

A

Chromogenic cephalosporin test -

    • Red color of the area develops when the β
      lactam ring of Nitrocefin is broken by the β
      lactamase enzyme
      Occurs in 5 minutes
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27
Q

A strip impregnated with benzylpenicillin and a
pH indicator, bromocresol purple, is moistened
with one or two drops of sterile distilled water

A

Acidometric test

If the β-lactam ring of the benzylpenicillin is broken by the β lactamase, penicilloic acid is formed, causing a drop in pH.

Color change occurs from purple (negative) to yellow (positive)

Occurs 5 to 10 minu

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28
Q

Appear as coccobacilli, thread-like rods and high
pleomorphism is evident

A

HAEMOPHILUS INFLUENZAE

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29
Q

h influenzae ferments what

A

produce acid from glucose and xylose

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30
Q

H. aegyptius can be distinguished from H. influenzae by a

A

negative xylose reaction (influenzae)

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31
Q
    • Unique polymer composed of ribose, ribitol, and
      phosphate (polyribitol phosphate [PRP]) Leading
      cause of meningitis in unvaccinated children
A

o Serotype B strains -

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32
Q

Has antiphagocytic property and
anticomplementary activity

A

o Serotype B strains -
present in encapsulated h influenzae

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33
Q

is a rapid test for detection of these capsular antigens (most important - serotype B) (haemphilus influenzae to)

A

Latex agglutination test

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34
Q

o Has the ability to cleave secretory IgA

A
  • IgA Proteases

o present on human mucosal surfaces of the respiratory tract

o H. influenzae is the only member that produces IgA
protease

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35
Q

have a paralyzing effect on the sweeping
motion of ciliated respiratory epithelium.

A

lps

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36
Q

Virulence Factor
of haemophilus

A
  • capsule
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37
Q

disease caused by h. ducreyi

A
  • Causes chancroid
    o It is a highly communicable sexually transmitted
    genital ulcer disease (GUD)
    o Commonly referred to as soft chancre
    o Hard chancre – syphilis
    o All patients who have GUD should also be tested for
    human immunodeficiency virus along with syphilis and
    herpes virus
    o Causes suppurative (pus forming), enlarged,
    draining, inguinal lymph nodes (buboes)
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38
Q

Common sites of infection of h ducreyi

A

penis or the labia or within
the vagina

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39
Q

symptoms of men and women in h ducreyi

A
  • Men have symptoms related to the inguinal tenderness
    and genital lesions
  • Women are asymptomatic
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40
Q
  • Nairobi bioplate medium
A

o First half: consist of GC agar base with 2% bovine hemoglobin and 5% fetal calf serum

o Second half: consist of MH agar with 5% chocolatized horse blood

o GC agar contains 1% hemoglobin, 5% fetal calf serum, 1% IsoVitaleX, and 3 mg/L of vancomycin

o Both sides contain vancomycin (resistant)

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41
Q

microscopic morphology of h ducreyi

A
  • School of fish – arranged singly, or in groups (clusters)
  • Railroad tracks – loosely coiled clusters lined up in
    parallel
  • Fingerprints arrangement
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42
Q

CHOC agar: small, flat, smooth, nonmucoid, transparent to
opaque colonies, or appears tan or yellow

A

h ducreyi

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43
Q

treatment to h ducreyi

A
  • Erythromycin – drug of choice
  • Azithromycin, ceftriaxone, or ciprofloxacin, TMP-5XT-E
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44
Q

four subspecies or biovars of francisella

A

subsp. tularensis (type
A), subsp. holarctica (type B), subsp. mediasiatica, and
subsp. novicida.

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45
Q

very small, transparent colonies will generally appear on
cysteine-supplemented agar when incubated for 3 days at
37°C aerobically

A

FRANCISELLA TULARENSIS

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46
Q
  • It is a Category A biological agent by CDC
  • Organism is highly infectious and should be handled on
    BSL 3 precautions
A

FRANCISELLA TULARENSIS

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47
Q

is an opportunistic pathogen,
primarily causing disease in immunocompromised
individuals

francisella

A

F. tularensis subsp. novicida

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48
Q

produce a
similar disease to F. tularensis subsp. tularensis, but
infections are rarely fatal

A

F. tularensis subsp. holarctica and mediasiatica

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49
Q

can cause infection through the
cutaneous (ulceroglandular form) or inhalation
(pneumonia) routes

A

francisella

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50
Q

francisella is present in? who are the reservoir?

A
  • Present in wide variety of wild animals, birds and even
    some fishes and amphibians
  • Common reservoir are rabbits, muskrats, and squirrels
  • Infection can occur by direct contact with a dog or cat that
    has had a contact with an infected animal
  • Ticks and deerflies are the most common arthropod
    vectors
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51
Q

Routes of transmission of francisella

A

o Bite of an arthropod
o Direct contact with an infected animal
o Ingestion of contaminated meat or water

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52
Q

nfection occurs most often through minute abrasions in
the skin resulting in greatly enlarged regional lymph nodes
that sometimes drain for weeks and become necrotic

A

FRANCISELLA TULARENSIS

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53
Q

Zoonotic disease aka Lemming and Water rat trapper’s
disease

A

Tularemia

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54
Q
  • Biochemical tests are not used for ID and not
    recommended
A

francisella

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55
Q

The organisms have a thin capsule that consists of lipid,
proteins, and carbohydrates

A

francisella

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56
Q

is used for the
identification of francisella in the tissues and sputum
specimens

A

Direct FAT (fluorescent antibody test)

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57
Q

in a single specimen is highly suggestive of francisella infection

A

An antibody titer of 160

A four-fold increase in antibody titer in paired serum
samples taken 2 weeks apart is strongly indicative of active
disease

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58
Q

BIOTYPE A

A
  • Found in US and North
    America
  • Highly virulent
  • Transmission is through
    the bite of a tick that has
    acquired the organism
    from infected wild
    rabbits
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59
Q

BIOTYPE B

A
  • More widespread
  • Found in Western and
    Eastern hemispheres
    and is associated with
    water and rodents
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60
Q

treatment of francisella

A
  • Streptomycin is the drug of choice or Gentamicin over a
    period of 10 days.
  • Vaccine provides partial immunity
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61
Q

francisella is resistant to

A

beta-lactamase like Ceftraixone

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62
Q

Ubiquitous gram-negative bacilli acquired by humans
primarily through inhalation

A

legionella

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63
Q
  • Produce a spectrum of symptoms from mild upper
    respiratory tract infections to pneumonia
  • Associated with nosocomial infections
A

LEGIONELLA

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64
Q

Most human cases of legionellosis are caused by

A

L.
pneumophila

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65
Q

Legionella spp. are transmitted to human hosts from these
environmental sources primarily via

A

aerosolized particles,
such as those produced by normal tap water pressure.

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66
Q

factors that contribute to the ability of Legionella spp.
to colonize these sources include:

A

The ability to multiply over the temperature range of 20° to 43° C and survive for varying periods at 40° to 60° C

The capacity to adhere to pipes, rubber, plastics, and
sediment and persist in piped water systems even
when flushed

The ability to survive and multiply within free-living
protozoa and in the presence of commensal bacteria
and algae

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67
Q

vf of legionella

A
  • proteolytic enzymes
  • Organism’s ability to enter, survive, and multiply within the host’s cells, especially bronchoalveolar macrophages
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68
Q

should not be used in processing or
transporting specimens because of the inhibitory effects of
sodium

A

Saline or buffer

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69
Q

Transport specimens to a reference laboratory on wet ice, and freeze specimens at −70° C if processing will be delayed for several days

A

legionella

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70
Q

Extending the safranin counterstaining time to at least 10
minutes can enhance the staining intensity of the
organisms.

A

legionella

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71
Q

is weakly acid-fast in tissue and stains best
with the modified Kinyoun procedure

A

L. micdadei

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72
Q

The faint-staining, pleomorphic gram-negative bacilli may
be found

(legionella)

A

outside of and within macrophages and
segmented neutrophils

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73
Q
  • provides a
    useful method of confirming that an isolate is a Legionella
    sp. and for identifying the more common species and
    serogroups of the genus
A

Direct fluorescent antibody (DFA) test

74
Q

isolation method oof legionella

A

o In this procedure, an aliquot of the specimen is first
diluted 1: 10 with 0.2 N KCl-HCl and allowed to stand
for 5 minutes.
o Inoculated medium is incubated at 35° to 37° C in air
for at least 7 days.
o Usually within 3 to 5 days, Legionella spp. colonies
are visible.

75
Q

is best for Legionella isolation

A

Buffered charcoal yeast extract (BCYE) agar with L
cysteine

76
Q

Fastidious, aerobic bacteria that will not grow on sheep
blood agar (SBA) and require L-cysteine for growth

A

legionella and francisella ??

77
Q
A
77
Q

central portion of young colonies has a “ground
glass” appearance, light gray and granular

A

francisella

78
Q

periphery of the colony has pink and/or light blue or
bottle green bands with a furrowed appearance

A

francisella

79
Q

legionella treatment

A
  • Treated with a macrolide such as azithromycin or a
    fluoroquinolone
  • An alternate drug is doxycycline
80
Q

Discovered after an outbreak of severe respiratory illness
at an American Legion convention that took place in 1976
in Philadelphia

A

LEGIONELLA PNEUMOPHILIA

81
Q

e Pontiac fever

A

LEGIONELLA PNEUMOPHILIA

82
Q

Ubiquitous in the environment where warm and moist
condition prevail

A

LEGIONELLA PNEUMOPHILIA

83
Q
  • Have been recovered from lakes, streams, mud, and soil
  • No known animal reservoir
A

LEGIONELLA PNEUMOPHILIA

84
Q

Aerobic, gram-negative rods that can be isolated on
BCYE supplemented with 1% α-ketoglutarate

A

LEGIONELLA PNEUMOPHILIA

85
Q

Best growth is obtained at a pH of 6, 9, 37°C and 90%
humidity

A

LEGIONELLA PNEUMOPHILIA

86
Q

The organism requires iron salts, cysteine, and high
humidity (moist) for growth

A

LEGIONELLA PNEUMOPHILIA

87
Q

Specimens for culture include bronchial washings, lung
biopsies, pleural fluid, and blood

A

LEGIONELLA PNEUMOPHILIA

88
Q

how to diagnose legionella neumophilia

A

Many patients are diagnosed retrospectively by an
indirect FAT a 4-fold rise in anti-Legionella antibody to a
titer of 128 or greater is considered positive

89
Q

Basic fuchsin is often used as a counterstain for 3
minutes

A

l. pneumophilia

90
Q

y appear to have ground glass speckling like a
shattered windshield

A

legionella pneumophilia

91
Q
  • Pigmentation can vary from colorless, grayish, pale green
    to indescent pink or blue
  • Colonies may be translucen
A

legionella pneumophilia

92
Q

L pneumophilia diseases

A

Legionnaire’s disease

a mild, short-term febrile illness to an
acute purulent pneumonia with an intra alveolar exudate

93
Q

Organisms are acquired through inhalation of aerosols
created by contaminated air conditioners to destruction by
PMNs

A

l pneumophilia

94
Q
  • Febrile disease with pneumonia
A

Legionnaire’s Disease

95
Q
A
96
Q

3 patterns of legionnaire’s disease

A

Typically presents in three major patterns:
o Sporadic cases – most common and usually occur
in the community
o Epidemic outbreaks – characterized by short
duration and low attack rates
o Nosocomial clusters – occurring in compromised
patient populations

97
Q

is the predominant manifestation of
legionellosis

A

Pneumonia

98
Q

– caused by Mycoplasma
pneumoniae, Chlamydophila pneumoniae, and
Legionella

A

Atypical pneumonia

99
Q

S/s: non-productive cough, fever, headache, and
myalgia, rales, dyspnea, and shaking chills

A

Legionnaire’s disease

100
Q

Febrile disease without pulmonary involvement or non-
pneumonic form legionellosi

A

Pontiac fever

101
Q

are primary
human pathogens of the respiratory tract, causing
whooping cough or pertussis

A

Bordetella pertussis and B. parapertussis

102
Q

are primary
human pathogens of the respiratory tract, causing
whooping cough or pertussis

A

Bordetella pertussis and B. parapertussis

103
Q

are respiratory tract
pathogens of wild and domestic birds and mammals

A

B. bronchiseptica and B. avium

104
Q

appears to be an avian commensal

A

B. hinzii

105
Q

is an opportunistic human pathogen,
causing respiratory and wound infections

A
106
Q

are respective agents of
immune-compromised bacteremia and wound or ear
infection.

A

B. holmesii and B. trematum

107
Q

Best culture on media containing charcoal to neutralize
inhibitory effects (charcoal will inhibit other commensals)

A

B pertussis

108
Q

Regan- Lowe is often used as transport medium

A

B pertussis

109
Q

Vf of bordatella pertussis

A

-filamentous hemagglutinin and pertactin = attach to epi cell
- pertussis toxin : modifies adp robosyl transferase
- adynelate cyclase toxin= inhibits host epithelial and
immune effector cells
-tracheal cytotoxin = causing ciliostasis, inhibiting DNA synthesis, and
promoting cell death.

110
Q

facilitate attachment to
ciliated epithelial cells

A

Filamentous hemagglutinin (FHA) and pertactin (a 69
kDa outer membrane protein)

111
Q

protein exotoxin that produces a wide variety of responses in vivo
o Main activity: Modification of host proteins by ADP ribosyl (adenosine diphosphate) transferase, which interferes with signal transduction

A

Pertussis toxin (PT) –

112
Q

inhibits host epithelial and
immune effector cells by inducing supraphysiologic
concentrations of cyclic adenosine monophosphate
(cAMP)

A

Adenylate cyclase toxin

113
Q

contributes to pathogenesis by
causing ciliostasis, inhibiting DNA synthesis, and
promoting cell death.

A

Tracheal cytotoxin –

114
Q

Catarrhal phase

A

Catarrhal phase – initial phase
o Symptoms are insidious and nonspecific
o Include sneezing, mild cough, runny nose, and perhaps conjunctivitis, although infants can develop apnea and/or respiratory distress.
o Infection is highly communicable because of the large number of organisms in the respiratory tract.
o Cultures are not often performed at this stage because the symptoms are nonspecific
o May last 1 to 2 weeks

115
Q

The hallmark of this phase is the sudden onset of
severe, repetitive coughing followed by the
characteristic “whoop” at the end of the coughing
spell

A

paroxysmal phase

116
Q

o Begins within 4 weeks of onset with a decrease in
frequency and severity of the coughing spells
o Recovery is gradual
o Coughing lessens but fits of coughing may return

A
  • Convalescent phase – third phase
117
Q

– two components signal transduction system to
sense the environment and regulate gene expression

A

BygAS

118
Q

treatment of b pertussis

A
  • Erythromycin
  • Vaccine
    o Killed bacterial cell suspension-DPT vaccine
    o Vaccine- Induced immunity after five to ten years
  • Acellular vaccines
119
Q

ntracellular bacteria that are usually found in animals with
humans being accidental hosts

A

BRUCELLA

120
Q

Brucellosis or also known as

A

Malta fever or
undulant fever

121
Q

grow on well-defined media containing amino
acids, vitamins, salts, and glucose

A

brucellosis

122
Q
  • Grow slowly on sheep’s BAP or CAP with 5-10% CO2
  • It stains irregularly and pale with Gram’s stain
  • Inactive metabolically
A

brucella

123
Q

Short, coccobacillary forms, bipolar staining sometimes
eviden

A

brucella

124
Q

In the animals, they localize in the pregnant uterus
because of the presence of Erythritol in allantoic and
amniotic fluids

A

brucella

125
Q
  • Abortion is a major manifestation of the disease in animals
A

brucella

126
Q

localize in mammary glands of animals can
be shed in milk or cheeses or other products

A

brucella

127
Q

It can be difficult to diagnose brucellosis through direct
examination of a clinical sample, most often , and the ability for direct isolation and culture can
vary between acute and chronic manifestations

A

blood or bone
marrow

128
Q

3 clinical stages of Brucellosis:

A
  1. acute infection
    - are non-specific (fever, malaise, headache, anorexia, myalgia, and back pain)
    - occur within 8 weeks of exposure.
  2. Sub chronic or undulant form
    - appear after a year of exposure with undulating fevers (characterized by
    normal temperatures in the morning followed by high temperatures in the afternoon and evening), arthritis, and epididymoorchitis (inflammation of the epididymis and testis) in males.
  3. Chronic form
    - presents after 1 year of exposure with
    symptoms such as depression, arthritis and chronic fatigue
129
Q

Farmers, vets and abattoir or slaughterhouse workers
are at greatest risks for infection

A

brucella

130
Q

Onset is slow and insidious and disseminated via the
lymphatics and the blood stream

A

brucella

131
Q

Proliferation of mononuclear cells is a major histologic
finding

A

brucella

132
Q

Fever may have a daily, periodicity, rising in the
afternoon and falling at night, malaise, weakness and
non-specific aches and pains

A

brucella

133
Q

onsists of 5-serogroups (A, B, C, D, E)
defined by capsular antigens

A

P. multocida

134
Q

Colonizes mucous membranes of the upper respiratory
tract and gastrointestinal tracts of mammals and birds

A

pasteurella

135
Q
  • Most common isolates are Pasteurella
A

p. multocida

136
Q

disease caused by pasteurella

A
  • Systemic, pneumonic, cutaneous form of infections
  • Localized infection after a bite or scratch
  • Respiratory tract infection
  • Life-threatening systemic diseases (e.g., meningitis,
    bacteremia)
  • Colonizes mucous membranes of the URT and GIT of
    mammals and birds
  • Human infections occur from bites and scratches inflicted
    by animals
137
Q
  • Growth on 5% blood or chocolate shows small, smooth,
    convex colonies
  • “Musty” odor
A

pasteurella

138
Q
  • In TSIA, a weak glucose fermentation reaction appears.
A

pasteurella

139
Q

Growth on SBA in the absence of satellitism or in pure
culture combined with bipolar staining

A

differentiate
Pasteurella from Haemophilus

140
Q

non-hemolytic colonies on SBA
that may appear mucoid after 24 hours of incubation at
37° C followed by the production of a narrow green-to
brown halo around the colony after 48 hours

A

P. multocida

141
Q
  • Bipolar staining with Giemsa or Methylene blue
  • “Safety-pin” appearance when the poles of the cells are
    more intensely stained
A

pasteurella

142
Q
  • Has been isolated from placenta, amniotic fluid, blood,
    rectal sites, abscesses, and urogenital specimens
A

PASTEURELLA BETTYAE

143
Q

PASTEURELLA BETTYAE ferments what

A

gf

144
Q

diff of pasteurella bettyae and multocida

A

growth in macconkey (bettyae)
multocida glucose only betyyae glucose and fructose

145
Q

o Has similar requirements as the HACEK group

A

o Has similar requirements as the HACEK group

146
Q

HACEK is an old term, but it’s now called

A

AACEK

147
Q

The latter four members of the HACEK group are
considered to be more dysgonic (slower or poorer
growing) – in contrast to eugonic

A

ewan

148
Q

aacek causes

A

endocarditis (infective and bacterial)
sbe

Significant cause of endocarditis (infective and bacterial)
o Involves the heart valves; the lesion (referred to as
vegetation) is composed of fibrin, platelets,
polymorphonuclear cells, monocytes, and
microorganism
o Include tooth extraction, history of endocarditis,
gingival surgery, mitral valve prolapse

149
Q

Aphros “foam loving” or needing high concentration of
CO2

A

AGGREGATIBACTER APHROPHILUS

150
Q
  • Found in dental plaque and gingival scrapings
A

AGGREGATIBACTER APHROPHILUS

151
Q

Found in dental plaque and gingival scrapings
* Most prevalent cause of endocarditis

A

AGGREGATIBACTER APHROPHILUS

152
Q

Growth is star-shape with 4-6 points at the center of the
colonies after 48 hours

A

AGGREGATIBACTER
ACTINOMYCETEMCOMITANS q

153
Q

Clinical features of infections: fever, heart murmur, CHF,
and embolism

A

AGGREGATIBACTER APHROPHILUS

154
Q
  • Fermenter when serum is added to the carbohydrate
A

AGGREGATIBACTER
ACTINOMYCETEMCOMITANS

155
Q

nclude collagenase, leukotoxin that is toxic to
polymorphonuclear cells and monocytes

A

AGGREGATIBACTER
ACTINOMYCETEMCOMITANS

156
Q

Normal oral microbiota of humans
* Human tissue infections attributed to cattle, sheep, pig,
and horse bites
* Has been isolated from blood, lung tissue, abscesses of
the mouth and brain and sinuses
* Causes SBE and periodontitis

A

AGGREGATIBACTER
ACTINOMYCETEMCOMITANSAGGREGATIBACTER
ACTINOMYCETEMCOMITANS

157
Q

AGGREGATIBACTER
ACTINOMYCETEMCOMITANS

teatment

A
  • P. aminoglycosides, 3rd gen
  • Cephalosphorins, quinolones, C and Te sensitive
  • Resistance to ampicillin, vancomycin and erythromycin is
    common
  • Usual treatment for endocarditis is with penicillin and an
    aminoglycoside
158
Q

show false gram-positive
reactions in parts of the cell

A

CARDIOBACTERIUM HOMINIS

159
Q

organisms tend to form rosette swellings,
long filaments, or stick-like structures in yeast extract

A

CARDIOBACTERIUM HOMINIS

160
Q

incubation in a humid atmosphere with 5% CO2 enhances
growth

A

c. HOMINIS

161
Q

c hominis disease

A
  • Usual manifestation is endocarditis often presenting with
    large vegetations and no demonstrable fever
  • Infects the aortic valve
  • Associated with meningitis
162
Q

antibacterial susceptibility of CARDIOBACTERIUM HOMINIS

A

Sensitivity can be seen to β-lactams, chloramphenicol,
and tetracycline with variable response to
aminoglycosides, erythromycin, clindamycin, and
vancomycin.
* Usual therapy includes Penicillin and aminoglycosides

163
Q
  • A bleach-like odor from the agar surface may be obvious
A

EIKENELLA CORRODENS

164
Q
  • Corrodes (pits) the surface of agar
  • Non-hemolytic but may show greening around the
    colonies on SBA
A

EIKENELLA CORRODENS

165
Q
  • Associated with poor dental hygiene or oral surgery
  • Reported as a cause of meningitis, empyema,
    pneumonia, osteomyelitis, arthritis, and post-op
    infections
  • Shows least predilection for attachment to heart valves
    among HACEK
A

EIKENELLA CORRODENS

165
Q
  • Normal microbiota of the oral and bowel cavities
  • Human bites or fights infection
A

EIKENELLA CORRODENS

166
Q

Antibacterial Susceptibility EIKENELLA

A

Resistant to Clindamycin and aminoglycosides and
narrow spectrum cephalosporins
* In vitro, isolates demonstrate sensitivity to penicillin,
ampicillin, cefoxitin, chloramphenicol, carbenicillin,
and imipenem

167
Q

Coccobacillary to short bacilli with squared ends that
occur in pairs or short chains

A

KINGELLA

168
Q

row in MTM, resemble colonies of Neisseria when
they do not pit agars which many usually

A

KINGELLA

169
Q
  • Associated with poor dental hygiene or oral surgery
  • Very important in pediatric patients, it can create
    diseases that will present as bone diseases, septicemia
A

KINGELLA

170
Q

s two types of colonies: smooth, convex type and a
spreading corroding type

A

KINGELLA DENITRIFICANS

171
Q
  • Major green negative bacterium isolated from
    degenerative joint and bone infection in children <3
    years
  • Causes endocarditis in adults and school-age children
  • Most isolates are susceptible to most antibiotics
A

KINGELLA KINGAE

172
Q

Belongs to the the family Flavobacteriaceae and includes
dysgonic fermenter called DF-1 and DF-2

A

CAPNOCYTOPHAGA

173
Q
  • Thin, and often fusiform (pointed ends) resembling
    Fusobacterium spp.
  • Spindle-shaped, coccoid, and curved filaments may be
    also seen
  • Flagella are absent but produce gliding mostly on solid
A

capnocytophaga

174
Q

Not commonly involved in endocarditis but is associated in
septicemia with patients with neutropenia

A

capnocytophaga

175
Q

can cause a fulminant, life-threatening
infection in humans following a dog or cat bite

A

C. canimorsus

176
Q

is the most common clinical isolate of capnocytophaga

A

C. ochracea

177
Q

Antibacterial Susceptibility
of capnocytophaga

A
  • Susceptible to imipenem, erythromycin, clindamycin,
    tetracycline, chloramphenicol, quinolones, and β-lactams
  • Resistant to the aminoglycosides
  • Penicillin is the drug of choice
178
Q
A

BACTE FINALS (3 decks)

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