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BACTE FINALS > rICKETTSIACEA, CHLAMYDIACEAE, AND MYCOPLASMATACEAE > Flashcards

rICKETTSIACEA, CHLAMYDIACEAE, AND MYCOPLASMATACEAE Flashcards

1
Q

RICKETTSIACEAE us transmitted ia

A

arthropod vectors (lice, fleas, mites and
ticks)

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2
Q

how does ricettsiae ultiply

A

Most multiply by transverse binary fission inside cytoplasm of host cells
except for the spotted fever group which multiply in nuclei
and in cytoplasm

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3
Q

Grown in a yolk sac of embryonated eggs and several cell
line

A

rickettsiae

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4
Q

3 groupd of rickettsiae

A

o Typhus group
o Spotted fever group
o Transitional group

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5
Q

o Typhus group

A

contains only two species, R.
prowazekii and R. typhi.

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6
Q

o Spotted fever group

A

includes a number of species
generally recognized as human pathogens, such
as R. rickettsii, R. conorii, and R. africae.

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7
Q

o Transitional group

A

contains R. akari, R. australis,
and R. felis

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8
Q

Rickettsials that are potential bioterror agents.

A

R. rickettsii, R. prowazekii, R. typhi, and R. conorii are
considered potential bioterror agents.

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9
Q

Cell wall contains DAP (di-aminopimelic acid), no teichoic
acid

A

Ricketssiae

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10
Q

Macchiavello stain
Castaneda stain
Giemsa stain

ricketssia rection to these tests

A

Macchiavello stain (organisms appear bright red against the
blue background of the tissue);

Castaneda stain (blue
organisms against a red background) or

Giemsa stain
(bluish purple organisms

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11
Q

Confirmatory serological test for rickettsiae

A

Weil-Felix reaction
Complement-fixation
Indirect fluorescent antibody test

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12
Q

diseases
Spotted fever group Rickettsioses

A

o Rocky Mountain spotted fever
o Rickettsial pox

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13
Q

Typhus fever group Rickettsioses

A

o Flea-associated rickettsioses caused by R. typhi
and R. felis
o Murine typhus
o Epidemic typhus caused by R. prowazekii
o Scrub typhus

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14
Q
  • Other Rickettsioses
A

o Ehrlichiosis
o Anaplasmosis
o Q-fever
o Trench fever

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15
Q

rocky mountain spotty fever is caused by

A
  • Caused by R. rickettsia
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16
Q

The nature of the agent was a mystery because no bacteria
were apparent on direct examination or on culture.

A

RMSF

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17
Q

zoonosis, and humans typically acquire the
infection by tick bites. Ticks are the principal vectors and
reservoirs for R. rickettsii.

A

Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever

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18
Q

The most common tick vectors are:

(iN RICKETTSIAE(

A

o Dermacentor variabilis- Southeastern United
States
o Dermacentor andersoni- Western

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19
Q

nduce vasculitis in internal organs, including the brain,
heart, lungs, and kidney

Symptoms: fever, headache, myalgia, nausea, vomiting,
rash

o Rash begins as erythematous patches on ankle
and wrist during 1st week

o It extend to palms of hands and soles of feet

o Maculopapular patches eventually consolidate into
larger areas of ecchymoses

A

ROCKY MOUNTAIN SPOTTED FEVER

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20
Q

Also known as Mediterranean spotted fever

A

Boutonneuse fever

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21
Q

Boutonneuse fever IS CAUSED BY

A

r, is caused by R.
conorii and occurs in France, Spain, and Italy.

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22
Q

The rash is similar to RMSF except that it also involves the
face

A

Boutonneuse fever

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23
Q

Characterized by the presence of taches noires (black
spots) at the primary site of infection

A

Boutonneuse fever

Edema secondary to increased vascular permeability
reduces blood flow to the area and results in local necrosis

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24
Q

Its reservoirs include ticks and dogs

A

Boutonneuse fever

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25
Q

are lesions caused by the introduction of R.
conorii into the skin of a nonimmune person

A

Taches noires

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26
Q

which causes endemic typhus, also referred to as
murine typhuS

A

R. typhi

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27
Q

MURINE TYPHS

A

Arthropod vector for R. typhi is the oriental rat flea
Xenopsylla cheopis, and the rat (Rattus exulans) is the
primary reservoir

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28
Q

Arthropod vector for R. typhi is the ????

A

Arthropod vector for R. typhi is the oriental rat flea
Xenopsylla cheopis,

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29
Q

is the
primary reservoir OF MURINE THYPUS

A

and the rat (Rattus exulans)

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30
Q

Cat flea

A

Ctenocephalides felis,

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31
Q

Survive in nature, to a lesser extent, by transovarial
transmission.

A

Murine Typhus

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31
Q

typhus can cause fever, headache, and rash

A
  • Endemic typhus: fever, headache, and rash
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32
Q

epidemic typhus is caused by

A

R. prowazekii.

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33
Q

also called recrudescent typhus, is
seen in patients who previously had louseborne typhus.

A

Brill-Zinsser disease,

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34
Q

R.
prowazekii lies dormant in the

A

lymph tissue of the human
host until the infection is reactivated.

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35
Q

Rickettsial pox

cause, reservoir and vector

A

Caused by R. akari,

the reservoir is the common house
mouse,

and the vector is the mouse mite Liponyssoides
sanguineus

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36
Q

Papule progresses to a pustule and then to an

indurated eschar.
* Patient becomes febrile as the rickettsiae are disseminated
throughout the body via the bloodstream

experiences headache, nausea, and chills

Rash appears in face, trunk, and extremities.

self limitingg

A

rickettsial gropup

rickettsial pox

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37
Q

Causative agent is Orientia (formerly Rickettsia)
tsutsugamushi.

A

Orientia

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38
Q

vector and reservoirof oerentia

A
  • Vector is the chigger, Leptotrombidium deliensis

reservoir rat

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39
Q

A tache noire (black spot), similar to that of boutonneuse
fever, forms at the site of inoculation.

A

Orientia

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40
Q

Rash starts on trunk and spread to extremities.

A

orienta rash starts with

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41
Q

Obligately intracellular, arthropod-borne coccobacilli. OF RICKETSIA

A

EHRLICHIA

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42
Q

multiply in the phagosomes of host leukocytes, and
other cells derived from the bone marrow, not in the
cytoplasm of endothelial cells.

A

Ehrlichia

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43
Q

2 FORM OF RICKETSIA

A

Two forms: Denser and infective EB, and the RB that
replicates in the phagosome and prevent phagolysosome
formation

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44
Q

morulae (mulberry-like bodies)

A

RICKETSSIACEAE

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45
Q

round to oval clusters of bacteria 1 to 3 μm in
diamete

A

MORULAE OF M. EHRLICHIA

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46
Q

causes human monocytic
ehrlichiosiS

A

Ehrlichia chaffeensis

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47
Q

produces a disease indistinguishable from
E. chaffeensis, and no currently available serologic test can
distinguish these agents

A

Ehrlichia ewingii

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48
Q

NATURAL HOST AND VECTOR OF ERLICHIA

A

Natural hosts of the organism include dogs and deer humans,

lone star ticK
(Amblyomma
americanum) being the primary vector

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49
Q

DYMPTOMS, COMPLICATIONS IN EHRLICHIA

A
  • Symptoms: high temperature, headache, malaise, and myalgia
  • severe complications, including
    toxic shock–like syndrome, CNS involvement, and acute
    respiratory distress syndrome`
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50
Q

diagnosing E. chaffeensis

A
  • Pediatric patients infected with E. chaffeensis
  • Patients may also have evidence of leukopenia
    andneutropenia, thrombocytopenia, and elevated liver
    enzyme levels

have a rash;
however, adults rarely experience a rash

Direct staining (Giemsa or Wright) of peripheral blood
smears or buffy coats for morulae

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51
Q

produces a disease indistinguishable from
E. chaffeensis, and no currently available serologic test can
distinguish these agents

A

Ehrlichia ewingii

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52
Q

HOW IS EHRLICHIA CHAFEENSIS DIAGNOSED

A

Most cases of HME are diagnosed retrospectively by
serologic testing; the IFA test is the most widely used
method

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53
Q

causes a disease referred to as human
granulocytic anaplasmosis (HGA).

A

Anaplasma phagocytophilum,

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54
Q

Anaplasma phagocytophilum, EAS FORMEYLY KNOWN AS

A

Ehrlichia
phagocytophilum

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55
Q

Ehrlichia chaffeensis causes

A

human monocytic
ehrlichiosis (hme)

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56
Q
  • The symptoms closely resemble those of HME
A

anaplsma

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57
Q

tick vector of anaplsma

A
  • Tick vectors include Ixodes scapularus and I. pacificus.
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58
Q

diagnosis of anaplasma what specimen

A

Stained smears of buffy coat preparations are preferred.

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59
Q

Diagnosis of anaplsma can also be made by using

A

smears, direct antigen
detection, NAATs, and isolation in cell culture

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60
Q

c burnetii characteristics

A
  • Does not transport ATP across its plasma membrane
  • Develops within the phagolysosomes of infected cells
  • Acidic environment activates its metabolic enzymes. Spore
    formation by C. burnetii allows it to survive harsh
    environmental conditions.
  • Not transmitted by arthropods, although it is known to infect
    more than 12 genera of ticks and other arthropods
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61
Q

Can infect fishes, birds, rodents, livestock, and other
mammals

A

coxiella bunetii

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62
Q

coxiella burnetii causes

A

Causative agent of Q (query) fever, a disease found
worldwide.
highly contagious and, as such, is considered a
potential bioterrorism agent

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63
Q

coxiella burnetii is transmitted by

A

nfections are spread by the inhalation of dried birthing
fluids of several animals

64
Q

enerally has an abrupt onset of an
undifferentiated febrile disease consisting of high
temperature that can be accompanied by headaches,
myalgia, arthralgia, cough, and rarely, a rash

A

acute q fever

65
Q

May present with elevated liver enzyme levels, increased
erythrocytic sedimentation rate, and thrombocytopenia.

A

acute q fever

66
Q

isolation of coxieklla burnetii should only be done in

A

Isolation in cell cultures should be attempted only in
biosafety level 3 facilities.

67
Q

The drugs of choice are ___-_
for Rickettsial diseases

A

Chloramphenicol and Tetracycline

68
Q

Within the genus Chlamydia, four species were previously
recognized

A

C. pecorum, C. pneumoniae, C. psittaci, and
C. trachomatis. All except C. pecorum have been
associated with human disease

69
Q

The family Chlamydiaceae now consists of two genera

A

(1)
Chlamydia
- C. trachomatis

(2) Chlamydophila
- C. pneumoniae,
- C. psittaci, and
- C. pecorum

70
Q

depends on the phosphorylated sugar, d-glucose 6-
phosphate, from the host cell

A

CHLAMYDIACEAE

71
Q

unable to synthesize most
amino acids, cofactors, and purine and pyrimidine
nucleotides

A

chlamydiaaceae

72
Q

Tricarboxcylic acid (Krebs) cycle is incomplete

A

Chlamydiaceae

73
Q

Unique growth cycle involves two distinct forms,

A

an
elementary body (EB), which is infectious, and a reticulate
body (RB), which is noninfectious

74
Q

has sporelike features in that they are resistant
to environmental physical stress

A

elementary body (EB) of chlamydiaceae

75
Q

In vivo, host cells are primarily the nonciliated, columnar, or
transitional epithelial cells that line the conjunctiva,
respiratory tract, urogenital tract, and rectum.

A

chhlamydiaeceae

76
Q

EM TO OF CHLAMYDIAECEAE

The most prominent component of
this membrane is the

A

major outer membrane protein
(MOMP)

77
Q

is a transmembrane protein that contains
both species-specific and subspecies-specific
epitopes that can be defined by monoclonal
antibodies

A

MOMP

78
Q

Chlamydial outer membrane also contains

A

lipopolysaccharide (LPS).

79
Q

LPS is exractable with ________________. It is the primary
antigen detectable in genus-specific test and serologic
assays for chlamydiae

A

ketodeoxyoctonate

80
Q

Resemble bacteria except that it cannot multiply
outside the cells

A

CHLAMYDIAE

81
Q

” Energy Parasites” because they depend on host cell for
ATP generation and nutrient sources

A

CHLAMYDIACEAE

82
Q

CHLAMYDIACEAE

IMPORTANT SPECIES AND DISEASE

A
  • C. trachomatis - eye and genital infections, LGV
    (Lymphogranulomavenereum)
  • Chlamydophila pneumoniae - respiratory infections
  • C. psittaci - psittacosis in man, ornithosis in birds
  • C. pecorum
83
Q

Elementary body -

A

extracellular, infective form; enters cell
via endocytosis

o Inert

o Growth cycle begins when the small EB infects
host cells by inducing energy-requiring active
phagocytosis when they remain within membrane bound phagosome

o Bacteria prevent interaction of the phagosome with
endosome

84
Q

Reticulate body -

A

intracellular, growing and replicative form

o collections of reticulate bodies can be seen in the
cytoplasm called “inclusion bodies”

o mature inclusion body contains 100-500 elementary bodies

85
Q

ANTIGENIC PROPERTIES
OF CHLAMYDIACEAE

A
  • Genus specific antigens - heat stable, a LPS similar to gram negative bacilli present in all stages
  • Species specific protein antigens - found at the surface
    envelope which help in classifying them into species
  • Intraspecies antigens - present in some species located
    on major outer membrane proteins which classifies species
    into serotypes
86
Q

CHLAMYDIA TRACHOMITIS

A

Divided into two biovars- trachoma and lymphogranuloma
venereum

o TRIC- trachoma, inclusion conjunctivitis divided
into 12 serotypes

o LGV- lymphogranulomavenereum, 3 serovars

87
Q

has separated C.
trachomatis into 20 serovariants or serovars

A

Characterization of the MOMP

88
Q

Trachoma biovar includes

A

serovars A through K.

Serovars A, B, Ba, and C are associated with the severe eye infection trachoma,

serovars D through K, Da, Ia, and Ja are associated with
inclusion conjunctivitis, a milder eye infection, and urogenital infections

Serovars L1, L2, L2a, L2b, and L3 are associated
with lymphogranuloma venereum (LGV), an
invasive urogenital tract disease.

89
Q

Its unique characteristic is it carries 10 stable plasmids
(unknown function

A

chlamydia trachomitis

90
Q

It is the major reason for the applications of nucleic
acid amplification by PRC and identification by
nucleic acid hybridization

A

chlamydia trachomitis

91
Q

trachoma is caused by

A

Caused by C. trachomatis types A, B & C

92
Q

Chronic keratoconjunctivitis

A

trachoma

93
Q

trachoma transmission

A

Transmitted by fingers, fomites, flies or dust

94
Q

trachoma stages

A

Stages I-IV, infectivity is maximum in early cases, stage IV
is non-infectious

95
Q

Number one cause of preventable blindness in the world
* Found near the equator and seen with high temperature an

A

C. trachomitis, trachoma

96
Q

trachoma prevention and treatment

A

Prevention and treatment includes antimicrobial treatment,
facial cleanliness, environmental improvement, and a
simple surgical procedure on the eyelid

97
Q

trachoma begins as

A
  • It is a chronic disease that begins as follicular conjunctivitis.
  • The chronic inflammation causes the eyelid to turn inward,
    which results in continual abrasion to the cornea from the
    eye lashes. The condition results in scarring and ulceration
    of the cornea. This can result in secondary bacterial
    infection and blindness
98
Q
  • Laboratory Diagnosis
    of trachoma
A

o Demonstration of characteristic inclusion bodies
(Halberstaedter Prowazek or HP bodies) in
conjunctival scrapings by Giemsa
o Culture - yolk sac, cell lines

99
Q

treatment and control of trachoma

A

Treatment and Control
o Local application of antibiotics
o Oral Administration of Tetracycline or Doxycycline
; single dose of Azithromycin

100
Q

most common STD

A

Genital chlamydiasis: m

101
Q

Genital chlamydiasis in men and women

A

o Men - non-gonococcal urethritis, epididymitis,
proctitis and Reiter’s syndrome

o Women - acute urethral syndrome, mucopurulent
cervicitis, endometritis, salpingitis, PID, infertility,
ectopic pregnancy, premature delivery,
postpartum fever

102
Q

most commonly caused by type L2 in the regional
lymph nodes; 3days - 5 weeks incubation period

A

LGV

103
Q

o Presents with Inguinal and Anorectal symptoms

A

LGV

104
Q

o Bacteria enter the lymph nodes and produce a strong inflammatory response that often results in bubo formation and subsequent rupture of the lymph node.

o Proctitis is common in women as a result of
lymphatic spread of bacteria from the vagina or
cervix.

o Men can develop proctitis as a result of analreceptive intercourse or lymphatic spread from the
urethra

A

LGV

105
Q

common in women as a result of
lymphatic spread of bacteria from the vagina or
cervix

A

Proctitis

106
Q

Men can develop proctitis as a result of

A

anal receptive intercourse or lymphatic spread from the urethra

107
Q

The LGV serovars have also been linked to

A

Parinaud oculoglandular conjunctivitis

108
Q

STAGE OF LGV

A

POTA ANG DAMI

109
Q

Inclusion conjunctivitiS

A
  • Caused by C. trachomatis types D to K
  • Naturally present in the genital tract
  • Neonatal form - “inclusion blenorrhoea” develops when the
    infant is in birth canal, appears 5-12 days after birth;
    prevented by local application of antibiotics
  • Adult form - “swimming pool conjunctivitis” associated with
    bathing in community swimming pools contaminated with
    chlamydia from genital secretions
110
Q

Serovars D through K IN C TRACHOMITIS

are associated with these clinical
infections, which can be persistent and subclinical as well
as acute

A

CONJUNCTIVITIS IN MEN AND WOMEN’
Typical clinical manifestation:
o cervicitis
o endometritis
o salpingitis
o proctitis
o nongonococcal urethritis (NGU)
o epididymitis
o prostatitis
o proctitis in men

111
Q

can lead to scarring and dysfunction of the
oviductal transport system, resulting in infertility or ectopic
pregnancy.

A

Salpingitis

C TRACHOMITIS

112
Q

also known as reactive
arthritis, is believed to be caused by C. trachomatis

A

Reiter syndrome (urethritis, conjunctivitis, polyarthritis,
and mucocutaneous lesions)

113
Q

Microscopic demonstration of inclusion bodies or
elementary bodies

A

Microscopic demonstration of inclusion bodies or
elementary bodies
o Gram negative but stain better with Giemsa,
Castaneda or Machiavello stains
o With Giemsa stain, the elementary and the
reticulate body stains blue in cytoplasm
o With Lugol’s Iodine, rapid and simple screening
method for ocular infections, stains glycogen
matrix of C. trachomatis
o With Immunofluorescent staining, it is more
sensitive and specific with the use of monoclonal
antibodies. It identifies inclusion and elementary
bodies. It is used for ocular, cervical or urethral
specimens

114
Q

Culture of Chlamydia

A

o Yolk sac, 6-8 days old chick embryo
o Tissue culture, McCoy, Hela cell line

115
Q

Demonstration of Chlamydial antigen

A

o Micro-immunofluorescent - infected ocular or
genital samples are stained with fluorescent
conjugated antibody
o ELISA - best for staining large number of
specimens, detects LPS antigen
o PCR method
o Demonstration of antibodies or hypersensitivity

116
Q

READ PAGE 6 TO 7 SKNIP DITO

A
117
Q

Formerly known as _______

was
originally identified in 1965 from a conjunctival culture of a
child (TW) enrolled in a Taiwan trachoma vaccine study

A

CHLAMYDPOPHILIA PNEUMONIAE

118
Q

cause of sinusitis, pharyngitis, acute
respiratory disease, bronchitis, and pneumonia.

Isolated from patients with otitis media with effusion,
pneumonia with pleural effusion, and aseptic pharyngitis

Implicated as a possible factor in asthma and cardiovascular
disease.

Isolated from atherosclerotic tissue, but its possible
pathogenic role remains under investigation.

  • Association of this organism with other vascular diseases,
    such as abdominal aortic aneurysm, has also been
    considered
A

CHLAMYDOPHILIA PNEUMONIAE

119
Q

second phase of the biphasic illness often results in
pneumonia (approximately one in nine infections) and
bronchitis but is rarely accompanied by sinusitis

A

C PNEUMONIAE

120
Q
  • Third most common cause of infectious respiratory disease.
A

CHLAMYDOPHILA PNEUMONIAE

121
Q

Present method of choice is the MIF assay, which is more
sensitive and specific than CF.

A

o It does not cross-react with C. trachomatis and C.
psittaci.

o Can distinguish an IgM from an immunoglobulin G
(IgG) response

122
Q

PRIMARY INFECTION AND REINFECTION OF CHLAMYDOPHILIA PNEUMONIAE

A
  • Primary infection:
    o IgM does not appear until 3 weeks after onset of
    symptoms
    o IgG does not reach diagnostic levels for 6-8 weeks
    o Traditional convalescent serum obtain is
    approximately 14-21 days after onset does not
    contain MIF-detectable antibody
  • Reinfection:
    o IgG titer of 1:512 or more appear within 2 weeks
    o IgM are detectable but low
123
Q

also known as
ornithosis or parrot fever

A

psittacosis

124
Q

Cause of psittacosis

A

CHLAMYDOPHILA PSITTACI

125
Q

If C. pneumoniae–specific and C. trachomatis–specific IgG
and IgM are not detected by MIF and a fourfold rise in the
levels of chlamydiae antibodies is detected by CF, then

A

C.
psittaci should be strongly suspected.

126
Q

shed in the droppings or nasal discharges and aerosols are
liberated; infection by inhalation

  • Mild influenza like syndrome to fatal pneumonia
A

Psittacosis

127
Q

occupational disease in humans (poultry workers, pigeon
farmers, pet shop owners, veterinarians)

A

Psittacosis

128
Q

SPECIMEN FOR PSITTACOSIS

A
  • Blood in early stage, later on sputum
  • Demonstration of LCL (Levinthal-Cole-Lillie Inclusion
    bodies) in alveolar macrophages, mouse brain, yolk sac, cell
    cultures
  • LCL bodies are more diffuse and irregular, not stained by Iodine
  • Serology: complement-fixation test, microIMMUNOFLOURESCEBT
129
Q

MycoplasmaTACEAE

A
  • Smallest replicating organisms in nature
  • Lack cell wall
  • Coccoid
  • Tapered rods:
  • Can pass through bacterial filters
130
Q

MOST SIGNIFICANT PAHOTGENS IN MYCPLASM

A

Most significant pathogens

o Mycoplasma pneumoniae, causes respiratory
diseases

o Mycoplasma hominis, associated with urogenital
tract diseases

o Ureaplasma urealyticum, associated with
urogenital tract diseases

131
Q
  • Family Acholeplasmataceae contains the single genus
A

Acholeplasma

. The most significant human pathogen in this
genus is A. laidlawii

132
Q

Pleiomorphic organisms that do not possess a cell wall but
have a triple-layered cell membrane

A

MYCOPLASM

133
Q

CELL WALL OF MYCOPLASM

A
  • Resistant to cell wall-active antibiotics (penicillin and
    cephalosporins)
  • Cell-wall-deficient bacteria different from the L-forms

o Not classified as L-forms which are bacteria that
have temporarily lost their cell wall as a result of
environmental conditions

  • Outermost part of the organism is the plasma membrane
    and unique because of high content of sterols that act to
    prevent osmotic lysis

MAY HAVE CAPSULE

134
Q

Requires cholesterol and fatty acids for growth

A

MYCOPLASM except aerobic M. pneumoniae and the more
rapidly growing M. hominis

135
Q

GROWTH ON MEDIA

Mycoplasm

A
  • Often grow embedded beneath the surface of solid media
    o transferring colonies with a loop is ineffective
  • On solid media, some species form “fried-egg” colonial
    appearance
  • Hard to detect contaminants of cell culture
  • Adhere to the epithelium of mucosal surfaces in the
    respiratory and urogenital tracts
  • Not eliminated by mucus secretions or urine flow
  • Susceptible to adverse environmental conditions such as
    heat and drying
136
Q

Transmission can occur via direct sexual contact, mother to
child during delivery or in utero or by respiratory secretions
or fomites in cases of

A

MYCOPLASM

137
Q

Causes bronchitis, pharyngitis and common respiratory
infection known as primary atypical pneumonia (PAP) or
walking pneumonia

A

m oneumoniae

138
Q

symptoms resemble those of Chlamydophila pneumoniae
* milder, not seasonal and has higher incidence in young
adults

A

mYCOPLASMA PNEUMONIAE

139
Q

ost common presentation is OF MYCOPLASMA PNEUMONIAE

A

ost common presentation is tracheobronchitis often
accompanied by pharyngitis

140
Q

early symptoms are non-specific headache, low grade
fever, malaise, anorexia, sore throat, dry cough and ear
ache

A

MYCOPLASMA PNEUMONIAEW

141
Q

implicated as a co-infection or cofactor in epidemic group A
meningococcal meningitis (Neisseria meningitidis) and
infant pneumonitis.

A

PMYCPLASMA PNEUMONIA

142
Q

INFECTIONS CAUSED BY M HOMINIS

A
  • Do not cause vaginitis OR NGU (Nongonococcal
    urethritis)
  • Associated with infections of the urogenital tract and might
    play a role of bacterial vaginosis

and cause
salpingitis, pyelonephritis, PID or post-partum fevers

143
Q

M HOMINIS LOCATION

A
  • Found in the lower genitourinary tract of approximately 50%
    of healthy adults
  • Organisms may invade the upper GUT
144
Q

Ureaplasma urealyticum

A
  • Associated with infections of the urogenital tract and might
    play a role of bacterial vaginosis
  • Do not cause disease in the female lower genital tract
    (vaginitis)
  • Associated with approximately 10% of cases of NGU in men
    as well as upper female GUT disorders
  • Associated with reproduction disorders, chorioamnionitis,
    congenital pneumonia and the development of chronic lung
    disease in premature infants (also M. homini
  • Has been reported to cause chronic inflammatory disease
    such as arthritis and cystitis in hypogammaglobulinemic
    patients
145
Q

Has been recovered from more than 60% of normal sexually
active females

  • Common organism isolated from tracheal aspirates of low
    birthweight infants with respiratory disease
  • Infections usually occurs in utero and not during passage
    through the birth canal
A

Ureaplasma urealyticum

146
Q

Has been linked to respiratory distress in premature infants

A

UREAPLASMA PARVUM

147
Q

first isolated in 1980, has been
associated with NGU, cervicitis, endometriosis, and PID.

A

Mycoplasma genitalium,

148
Q

mycoplasma genitalium

A
  • LINKED TO TUBAL STERILITY
149
Q

Primarily a resident of the gastrointestinal tract that occurs
secondarily in the genitourinary or respiratory tracts

A

Mycoplasma genitalium

150
Q

Found more frequently in urethral samples taken from men
with acute NGU than in those from men without urethritis
association has been found between M. genitalium and
individuals with HIV

A

mycoplasma genitaliuym

151
Q

has been reported more frequently in the
urethra and rectum of homosexual men with HIV infection.

A

M. hominis

152
Q
  • Detected in throats of patients with lower respiratory tract
    infection, isolated from tissue in patients with and without
    AIDS
  • Isolated from synovial fluid of patients with rheumatoid
    arthritis.
A

Mycoplasma fermentans and Mycoplasma
penetrans

153
Q

has been demonstrated in urine of
homosexual males with HIV-associated disease

A

M. penetrans

154
Q

specimen and collection for mycoplasm

A
  • Specimens include body fluids, sputum, blood, synovial
    fluid, CSF, amniotic fluid, urine wound aspirates,
    nasopharyngeal swab, cervicovaginal swab and tissues
  • Extremely sensitive to drying and heat
  • Specimens should be inoculated at bedside or be delivered
    immediately to the lab in a transport medium
    o SP4 (sucrose phosphate buffer, Mycoplasma
    base, horse serum [20%], and neutral red) or
    Shepard 10B broth or 2SP, which are designed for
    Mycoplasma.
  • Cotton-tipped swabs and wooden shafts should be avoided
    because of inhibitory effects
  • Swab should be made of Dacron polyester or calcium
    alginate with aluminum or plastic shaft and should be
    removed after it is placed in the transport medium
  • On arrival in the lab, specimens should be frozen at -70C if
    immediate plating cannot be done within 24 hours
155
Q

direct examniation of mycoplasm

A
  • Direct examination by DNA fluorescent stain (acridine
    orange)- not specific for mollicutes
  • Usually by serology (acute and convalescent sera, 2-3
    weeks apart to demonstrate 4-fold rise antibody titer)
  • PCR has been used but difficult to interpret
156
Q

read culture and serology of mycoplasm

A
157
Q

treatment in mycoplasm

A
  • Sensitive to Tetracycline, newer fluoroquinolones and
    macrolides
  • M. hominis is usually resistant to Erythromycin; sensitive
    to clindamycin and lincomycin
  • Ureaplasma is resistant to clindamycin and lincomycin;
    sensitive to erythromycin
158
Q
A

BACTE FINALS (4 decks)

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