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CNS II > Week 1 Vocab > Flashcards

Week 1 Vocab Flashcards

1
Q

Brainstem

A

the central trunk of the mammalian brain, consisting of the medulla oblongata, pons, and midbrain, and continuing downward to form the spinal cord

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2
Q

Cranial nerves

A

each of twelve pairs of nerves which arise directly from the brain, not from the spinal cord, and pass through separate apertures in the skull

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3
Q

Tectum

A

the uppermost part of the midbrain, lying to the rear of the cerebral aqueduct

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4
Q

Superior colliculus

A

a paired structure in the rostral midbrain that is involved in incorporating environmental stimuli and coordinating gaze of both eyes and head movements

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5
Q

inferior colliculus

A

a paired structure in the rostral midbrain, which serves as an important relay point for auditory information as it travels from the inner ear to the auditory cortex

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6
Q

Cranial nerve I

A

Olfactory nerve - each of the first pair of cranial nerves, transmitting impulses to the brain from the smell receptors in the mucous membrane of the nose

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7
Q

Cranial nerve II

A

Optic nerve - each of the second pair of cranial nerves, transmitting impulses to the brain from the retina at the back of the eye

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8
Q

Cranial nerve III

A

Oculomotor nerve - each of the third pair of cranial nerves, supplying most of the muscles around and within the eyeballs

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9
Q

Cranial nerve IV

A

Trochlear nerve - each of the fourth pair of cranial nerves, supplying the superior oblique muscle of the eyeball

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10
Q

Cranial nerve V

A

Trigeminal nerve - each of the fifth and largest pair of cranial nerves, supplying the front part of the head and dividing into the ophthalmic, maxillary, and mandibular nerves.

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11
Q

Cranial nerve VI

A

Abducens nerve - each of the sixth pair of cranial nerves, supplying the muscles concerned with the lateral movement of the eyeballs

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12
Q

Cranial nerve VII

A

Facial nerve - each of the seventh pair of cranial nerves, supplying the facial muscles and the tongue

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13
Q

Cranial nerve VIII

A

Vestibulocochlear nerve - each of the eighth pair of cranial nerves, conveying sensory impulses from the organs of hearing and balance in the inner ear to the brain. The vestibulocochlear nerve on each side branches into the vestibular nerve and the cochlear nerve

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14
Q

Cranial nerve IX

A

Glossopharyngeal nerve - each of the ninth pair of cranial nerves, supplying the tongue and pharynx

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15
Q

Cranial nerve X

A

Vagus nerve - each of the tenth pair of cranial nerves, supplying the heart, lungs, upper digestive tract, and other organs of the chest and abdomen

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16
Q

Cranial nerve XI

A

Spinal Accessory nerve - each pair of eleventh pair of cranial nerves, supplying the sternocleidomastoid and trapezius muscles

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17
Q

Cranial nerve XII

A

Hypoglossal nerve - each of the twelfth pair of cranial nerves, supplying the muscles of the tongue

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18
Q

Cribriform plate

A

exit foramen for cranial nerve I

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19
Q

Optic canal

A

exit foramen for cranial nerve II

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20
Q

Superior orbital fissure

A

exit foramen for cranial nerves II, IV, and V1 branch of cranial nerve V

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21
Q

Foramen rotundum

A

exit foramen for V2 branch of cranial nerve V

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22
Q

Foramen ovale

A

exit foramen for V3 branch of cranial nerve V

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23
Q

Superior orbital fissure

A

exit foramen for cranial nerve VI

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24
Q

Auditory canal

A

exit foramen for cranial nerves VII and VIII

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25
Q

Jugular foramen

A

exit foramen for cranial nerves IX, X, and XI

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26
Q

Hypoglossal foramen

A

exit foramen for cranial nerve XII

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27
Q

Anosmia

A

loss of the sense of smell

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28
Q

Trigeminal neuralgia

A

neuralgia involving one or more of the branches of the trigeminal nerves,and often causing severe pain

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29
Q

Bell’s palsy

A

the most common facial nerve disorder where all divisions of the nerve are impaired within a few hours or days and then gradually recover

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30
Q

Tympanic membrane

A

a membrane forming part of the organ of hearing, which vibrates in response to sound waves. In humans and other higher vertebrates, it forms the eardrum, between the outer and middle ear

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31
Q

Labyrinth

A

the inner ear composed of the bony labyrinth and the membranous labyrinth

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32
Q

Cochlea

A

the spiral cavity of the inner ear containing the organ of Corti, which produces nerve impulses in response to sound vibrations

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33
Q

Vestibule

A

the centralized structure of the bony labyrinth from which the semicircular canals arise

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34
Q

Membranous labyrinth

A

the inner labyrinth that is suspended within the bony labyrinth and filled with endolymph

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35
Q

Bony labyrinth

A

the outer labyrinth comprised of bone and filled with perilymph

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36
Q

Endolymph

A

the fluid in the membranous labyrinth of the ear

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37
Q

Perilymph

A

the fluid between the membranous labyrinth of the ear and the bone that encloses it

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38
Q

Utricle

A

one of the otoliths, located in the vestibule, which is sensitive to linear acceleration and positioned in the horizontal plane

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39
Q

Saccule

A

one of the otoliths, located in the vestibule, which is sensitive to linear acceleration and is positioned in the vertical plane

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40
Q

Semicircular canals

A

three fluid-filled bony channels in the inner ear. They are situated at right angles to each other and provide information about orientation to the brain to help maintain balance

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41
Q

Scala vestibuli

A

the upper bony passage of the cochlea

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42
Q

Scala tympani

A

the lower bony passage of the cochlea

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43
Q

Scala media or cochlear duct

A

the central duct of the cochlea in the inner ear, containing the sensory cells and separated from the scala tympani and scala vestibuli by membranes.

44
Q

Organ of Corti

A

hair cells and supporting cells of the cochlea

45
Q

Primary auditory cortex

A

Brodmann’s area 41 and the transverse gyrus of Heschl

46
Q

Vestibular nuclei

A

important for adjustment of posture, muscle tone, and eye position in response to movements of the head in space

47
Q

Ampullae

A

the bulge at the base of each semicircular canal containing the crista ampullaris and cupula

48
Q

Maculae

A

a sensory structure located inside the otoliths, the utricle and saccule, that detect linear acceleration and head tilt

49
Q

Cupula

A

a gelatinous mechanoreceptor inside the ampulla of the semicircular canal

50
Q

Otoliths

A

each of three small oval calcareous bodies in the inner ear of vertebrates, involved in sensing gravity and movement

51
Q

Crista ampullaris

A
  • the primary sensory structure within the ampulla containing hair cells
52
Q

Scarpa’s ganglion

A

the location of cell bodies for the vestibular portion of cranial nerve VIII

53
Q

Conductive hearing loss

A

hearing loss caused by abnormalities of the external auditory canal or middle ear

54
Q

Sensorineural hearing loss

A

hearing loss caused by disorders of the cochlea or cranial nerve VIII

55
Q

Tinnitus -

A

ringing or buzzing in the ears

56
Q

Nystagmus

A

rapid involuntary movements of the eyes

57
Q

Peripheral vestibular disorders

A

vestibular disorders involving anatomy in the inner ear

58
Q

Central vestibular disorders

A

vestibular disorders involving the brainstem or cerebellum

59
Q

Benign paroxysmal positional vertigo

A

the most common cause of peripheral vertigo which causes a false sensation of spinning or movement

60
Q

Vestibular neuritis

A

a peripheral vestibular disorder that affects the vestibular nerve and causes prolonged vertigo in the absence of hearing loss

61
Q

Vestibular labyrinthitis

A

a peripheral vestibular disorder that affects the labyrinth and causes prolonged vertigo along with hearing loss

62
Q

Meniere’s disease

A

a peripheral vestibular disorder that is caused by an abnormality in the labyrinth where fluid imbalance causes severe vertigo and hearing loss

63
Q

Acoustic neuroma

A

a vestibular schwannoma that is a benign, slow-growing tumor, that develops in and around cranial nerve VIII

64
Q

Paralysis

A

complete absence of muscle strength, unable to voluntarily recruit motor units

65
Q

Plegia

A

same as paralysis; complete absence of muscle strength, unable to voluntarily recruit motor units

66
Q

Paresis

A

muscle weakness

67
Q

Hemiplegia

A

one-sided paralysis

68
Q

Hemiparesis

A

one sided weakness

69
Q

Paraplegia

A

lower extremity paralysis

70
Q

Tetraplegia

A

upper and lower extremity paralysis (note that the term quadriplegia is no longer used!)

71
Q

Muscle tone:

A

the resistance felt in the muscle during passive elongation

72
Q

Hypotonia

A

low tone

73
Q

Flaccidity

A

a complete lack of resistance during passive elongation

74
Q

Hypertonia

A

high tone

75
Q

Spasticity

A

occurs when there is damage to the descending motor systems (i.e.corticospinal tract). A key sign of spasticity is that it is velocity dependent, meaning the faster you passively elongate the muscle you are assessing, the more resistance or spasticity you will feel

76
Q

Rigidity

A

Unlike spasticity it is not velocity dependent. It may affect both the agonist and antagonist muscles and is associated with lesions of the basil ganglia

77
Q

Coordination

A

allows for smooth, accurate and efficient movement. The motor cortex, basil ganglia, cerebellum, and dorsal columns (proprioception) all contribute to coordinated movement.

78
Q

Dystonia

A

excessive twisting and bizarre repetitive movements caused by axial and proximal limb muscles; associated with basal ganglion lesions (i.e. Parkinson’s disease and long-term use of levodopa medication)

79
Q

Chorea

A

rapid and jerky limb movements; associated with basal ganglia lesions (i.e.Huntington’s disease)

80
Q

Athetosis

A

slow, twisting, snake like movements; associated with cerebral palsy

81
Q

Tremor

A

rhythmical, oscillating and alternating movement of a body part

82
Q

Resting Tremor

A

occurs when muscles of the involved body part are at rest and supported against gravity; associated with Parkinson’s disease

83
Q

Action Tremor:

A

occurs when muscles of the involved body part are contracted; such as a tremor that occurs when you are holding your body or body part in a posture against gravity (Postural Tremor) or a tremor that occurs during a voluntary movement such as reaching for a target (Intention Tremor); associated with cerebellar lesions disease

84
Q

Blurred vision

A

s the loss of visual acuity (sharpness of vision) resulting in a loss of ability to see small details

85
Q

Diplopia

A

condition in which a single object appears as two objects. Also called “doublevision.” From the Greek diplo- (double) + -opia (vision)

86
Q

Strabismus

A

condition in which the visual axes of the eyes are not parallel, and the eyes appear to be looking in different directions. In divergent strabismus, or exotropia, the visual axes diverge.

87
Q

Nystagmus

A

rapid rhythmic repetitious involuntary (unwilled) eye movements. Nystagmus can be horizontal, vertical or rotary

88
Q

Homonymous Hemianopsia

A

medical term for a type of partial blindness resulting in a loss of vision in the same visual field of both eyes

89
Q

Occipital blindness

A

loss or absence of the ability to perceive visual images

90
Q

Agnosia

A

occurs when an individual demonstrates an inability to process and recognize incoming information. For example, despite normal eye site, an individual will not be able to visually identify an object, such as a brush, but looking at it. However, if they pickup the brush and manipulate it with their hands, they will be able to recognize that they are holding a brush.

91
Q

Unilateral Neglect (a body scheme agnosia)

A

common in individuals with right sided brain damage and it is defined as an inability to perceive and integrate stimuli on one side of the body and environment. It is not uncommon for an individual to eat food from only the right side of their plate, put make-up on only the right side of their face, and ignore individuals who are standing on their left side

92
Q

Apraxia

A

is the inability to perform movement despite the presence of normal sensation and motor control. Apraxia is more common in individuals with left sided brain damage. Some types of apraxia render an individual incapable of performing a task on command, but they can perform the task automatically. For example, you may ask your patient to show you how to answer the phone. Your patient will not be able to demonstrate this task for you. However, if the phone rang, your patient could automatically answer it without hesitation or difficulty. Wow! Pretty interesting stuff don’t’ you think? You will learn about different types of apraxia in a later unit.

93
Q

Memory

A

is the ability to store and retrieve information and past experiences. Memory is very complex and involves many areas of the brain (portions of all the lobes and the limbic system, specifically the hippocampus).

94
Q

Short-term memory

A

is the ability to recall events that took place a few minutes, hours, or days ago

95
Q

Immediate recall

A

is the ability to recall after a few seconds.

96
Q

Long-term memory:

A

is the ability to recall events that occurred years ago. Amnesia is a type of long-term memory deficit.

97
Q

Lethargy

A

refers to an altered level of consciousness in which a person’s level of arousal is diminished

98
Q

Obtunded

A

refers to diminished arousal and awareness

99
Q

Stupor

A

refers to a state of altered mental status and responsiveness to one’s environment

100
Q

Coma

A

an unconscious patient that cannot be aroused

101
Q

Expressive aphasia (also known as Broca’s, non-fluent, and motor aphasia):

A

occurs when there is damage to Broca’s area in the frontal lobe of the left hemisphere (dominant hemisphere). An individual’s auditory comprehension is intact, but they have difficulty expressing what they want to say. Thus, they understand what is being said to them but have great difficulty communicating their needs and responding to questions. Spoken language is very labored, slow, and hesitant and the individual is usually very frustrated.

102
Q

Receptive aphasia (also known as Wernicke’s, fluent, and sensory aphasia):

A

occurs when there is damage to Wernicke’s area in the temporal lobe of the left hemisphere (dominant hemisphere). An individual’s auditory comprehension is impaired; thus, they don’t understand what is being said to them and they do not get frustrated. Spoken language is smooth without hesitation but it does not make sense and often includes made up words.

103
Q

Global aphasia

A

results from widespread damage to the left hemisphere (dominant hemisphere) and leads to both expressive and receptive aphasia

104
Q

Dysarthria

A

a speech disorder (as opposed to a language disorder such as aphasia) and is commonly referred to as “slurred speech”. Dysarthria occurs after an UMN lesion when there is damage to the motor speech system (right or left sided damage). Weakness and lack of coordination of the speech and respiratory muscles leads to articulation, pitch, and volume problems. Dysarthria is common in individuals with cerebral palsy, traumatic brain injury, stroke, multiple sclerosis, Parkinson’s disease and amyotrophic lateral sclerosis

105
Q

Dysphagia

A

is impaired swallowing ability

106
Q

Reactive Postural Control

A

occurs in response to an external force or perturbation (i.e. someone pushes you from behind) and relies on feedback mechanisms to prevent you from falling over. Thus, if you are unrepentantly pushed off balance you will recover using reactive postural control which relies on feedback mechanisms.

107
Q

Anticipatory Postural Control:

A

occurs in anticipation of a destabilization force (i.e. you know that you are going to get pushed) and relies on feed forward mechanisms to prevent you from falling over

CNS II (5 decks)

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