Week 1: Principles of Nursing (Chapters 1-4, 5, 7, 8) Flashcards

1
Q

what is patient-centered care?
- who does it focus on?
- which model is used?

A
  • focuses on patient themselves
  • looks at Maslow’s Hierarchy of Needs
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2
Q

what is health?

A

state of complete physical, mental, & social well being, not just the absence of disease

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3
Q

what is wellness?

A

proactive in our self-care so its aimed at physical, social, spiritual & emotional well being

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4
Q

what does health promotion focus on?

A

potential for wellness

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5
Q

what is health care?

A

prevention & management of illness; providing support to patients; multiple providers

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6
Q

list the steps of the nursing process (6)
- which model is used for this?

A
  1. assess
  2. diagnose
  3. plan
  4. implement
  5. evaluate
  6. document
    model: NCSBN clinical judgment measurement model
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7
Q

what is the difference between an ethic & a moral?

A

ethic: formal study of moral belief to understand, analyze, and evaluate matters of right & wrong
moral: specific value

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8
Q

what is an ethical theory?

A

greatest good for the greatest number of people (utilitarianism)

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9
Q

what is a moral situation?

A

conflict between two or more principles

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10
Q

what is medical-surgical nursing?

A

provides services to patients from adolescents all the way til the end of life

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11
Q

what is care transitioning nursing?

A

one that ensures consistency and coordination of care as the patient has moved between health care settings

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12
Q

what is critical care nursing?

A

provides services for the critically ill in an acute care setting

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13
Q

what is rehabilitation nursing?

A

provides holistic focused care for patients who’ve been incapacitated by injury or illness that are facing health altering life conditions

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14
Q

what is an adaptive device?

A

anything that helps people w disabilities to perform a task

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15
Q

what does debilitated mean? what is the diagnosis?

A

patients w impaired strength, severely weak, injured, or have a disability
diagnosis: commonly “failure to thrive”

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16
Q

what does prosthesis mean?

A

used to replace a body part

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17
Q

what is rehabilitation?

A

teaching the patient to relearn how to be able to function

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18
Q

what 3 components are part of rehabilitation nursing?

A
  1. goal-oriented
  2. team / holistic approach
  3. active participation
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19
Q

what type of process is rehabilitation? what does it require?

A

continuous process; requires active participation

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20
Q

what is a comprehensive assessment of functional capacity?
- what can this consist of?

A

person’s ability to perform activities
- activities of daily living
- instrumental activities of daily living

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21
Q

which tool is used to measure level of independence?
- give an EX

A

functional independence measure
- EX: are they able to feed themselves?

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22
Q

what does passive mean?

A

exercises carried out by the nurse, without assistance from the patient

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23
Q

what does active-assistance mean?

A

active exercises are performed by the patient, w assistance to increase muscle strength

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24
Q

what does isometric / muscle setting mean?

A

exercises that involve the contraction of muscles w out any movement in the surrounding joints

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25
Q

what is constancy?

A

fixicity of the internal environment despite changes in the external environment

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26
Q

what is homeostasis?

A

balanced internal state, steady state within the body

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27
Q

what is stress?

A

anything that upsets that balance in the body’s attempt to return the body to that steady state

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28
Q

what is adaptation?

A

desired goal of appraising & coping w changes in our environment

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29
Q

what is the definition of a stressor?

A

anything that can change the internal or external environment that creates a potential for physiologic, emotional, cognitive, or behavioral changes within our body

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30
Q

list & briefly describe the 3 types of stressors

A

physical: extreme hot or cold, chemicals
physiologic: pain, fatigue, raises BP, HR, or body temp
psychosocial: fear or anxiety

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31
Q

list & briefly describe the 4 temporal aspects of stress

A

day to day: frustrations
normal life transitions: childhood to adulthood, leaving home & moving to college
infrequent enduring: death of a spouse, permanent disability, chronic illness
major complex: war, terrorism, government

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32
Q

what is a stimulus for disease?

A

stress

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33
Q

list & briefly describe the 4 appraisals / responses of a stressful event

A

cognitive response (primary appraisal): situation that is going to be a stressor; identifying it
behavioral response (secondary appraisal): reaction to the situation
emotion-focused: anger, fear; seek to make the person feel better
problem-focused: make direct changes to environment to manage the event

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34
Q

describe general adaptation syndrome
- what does it affect?
- list & briefly describe the 3 phases

A
  • affects the whole body
    1. alarm phase: fight or flight response; inflammatory response
    2. resistance phase: adaptation to the stressor; releases cortisol, increases activity
    3. exhaustion phase: endocrine activity deceases & causes negative effects on the body
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35
Q

describe local adaptation syndrome
- what does it affect?
- what happens?
- give an EX

A
  • affects only one part of the body
  • inflammatory response & repair process are activated; if this effect is severe enough and let go for a long period of time, it can turn into a general adaptation syndrome
  • EX: stepping on a nail
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36
Q

what chemical is stimulated in the SNS during stress?

A

norepinephrine

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37
Q

which chemicals are stimulated in the Sympathetic - adrenal - medullary response to stress?

A

epinephrine & norepinephrine

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38
Q

describe the hypothalamic-pituitary response to stress

A

hypothalamus receives message that there is a stressor going on; this triggers the anterior pituitary gland to release the adrenocorticotropic hormone to tell the adrenal cortex to release cortisol causing an increase in release of glucose in order for the body to deal w the current stress

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39
Q

how does chronic stress affect WBCs?

A

results in a low WBC; puts patients at high risk for developing infections

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40
Q

how does acute stress affect WBCs?

A

causes an increase in WBC & causes infection

41
Q

describe a chronic recurrent stress response

A

patients that never give themselves a chance to adapt to the stressor & develop a disease overtime

42
Q

how does type A behavior / personality R/T stress?

A

people w type A personality are at a high risk of stress related to their activities

43
Q

describe denial avoidance maladaptive response to stress

A

not taking care of ourselves & avoiding going to the doctor

44
Q

what can distancing as a maladaptive response lead to?

A

withdraw or depression

45
Q

what is an example of an objective sign as identification of physiological & psychological stressors?

A

lab values

46
Q

what is the difference between a chronic disease and a chronic illness?

A

chronic disease: medical or health problem w associated symptoms or disabilities that require long term management
chronic illness: perception of living w a chronic disease; person’s perception of the experience & their response to the disease

47
Q

what is a cognitive disability? what types of patients can this occur in? (3)

A

limitations in mental functioning & difficulties w communication, self-care, and social skills
can occur in stroke, dementia, & traumatic brain injury patients

48
Q

what is a developmental disability? when can this occur?

A

several disorders that are characterized by difficulty in one or more domains: cognitive, physical, or both
- can occur before the age of 22

49
Q

what is an intellectual disability? when can this occur?

A

characterized by significant limitations in both intellectual and adaptive behavior; can occur before the age of 18

50
Q

what are noncommunicable diseases?

A

conditions that are not caused by an infection or microorganism

51
Q

what are secondary conditions or disorders? give an example

A

conditions that result from an initial disabling condition
EX: renal failure can be a secondary condition due to diabetes

52
Q

what is a disability? when may it be defined as severe?

A

limitation in performance or function in everyday activities
- may be defined as severe if they have the inability to perform one or more activities, uses an assistive device, or needs help from others to accomplish basic activities

53
Q

how does the world health organization define disability?

A

an umbrella term for impairments, activity limitations, participation restrictions, and environmental factors

54
Q

what is the US definition of a disability?

A

physical or mental impairment that limits one or more major life activities, has a record of impairment, or regarded as having an impairment

55
Q

is incidence of disabilities higher in men or women? which ethnicity has a higher incidence?

A
  • higher in men under the age of 65
  • higher in women over the age of 65
  • ethnicity: American Indians / Alaskan Natives
56
Q

list the 6 types of disabilities

A
  1. cognitive
  2. developmental
  3. intellectual
  4. physical
  5. sensory
  6. psychiatric
57
Q

which model of disabilities is most closely aligned to nursing? explain this

A

interface model: want patients to achieve their independence as much as possible and help them to embrace that independence

58
Q

give examples of the difference between a disability and a disabling disorder

A

disability: broken leg
disabling disorder: arthritis; patient has joint pain and are unable to walk

59
Q

explain the roles of the Rehabilitation Act of 1973 & the ADA of 1990 for disability

A

Rehabilitation Act of 1973: protects people from discrimination
The ADA of 1990: mandates access to jobs

60
Q

United Nations Convention on the Rights of Persons w disabilities

A
  • right to receive highest standards of care without discrimination
61
Q

what is the difference between medicare & medicaid?

A

Medicare: federal health insurance to those who are 65 or older, have permanent kidney injury, and / or have a qualified disability
Medicaid: a state & federal assistance program that is for low income families to provide medical care or insurance and to anyone w a disability; any age!

62
Q

title II of the social security disability insurance

A

benefits of those to meet the criteria for disability who have worked 40 quarters of covered of employment & paid into social security taxes; these benefits go to people who are disabled since childhood who are under the age of 22 & are dependent on a parent w a disability or are dependent of a parent who has recently died

63
Q

title XVI

A

provides supplemental social security income to people who are disabled & have limited income & resouces

64
Q

what accounts for 80% of our medical costs in the US?

A

people living w multiple chronic conditions

65
Q

what is health disparity?

A

preventable differences in the burden of disease, injury, violence, or opportunities to achieve optimal health that are experienced by multiple factors like poverty, environmental threats, inadequate access to healthcare, individual & behavioral factors, and educational inequalities

66
Q

describe the golf war illness in veterans

A

chronic syndrome related to terrorist attacks; creates symptoms like fatigue, depression, and elder cognition

67
Q

describe chronic multisystem illness in veterans

A

set of nonspecific symptoms; may be moderate to severe & both may be a consequence from exposure to chemical & biological toxins

68
Q

what is the trajectory model of chronic illness?
- how many phases?
- are they in chronological order?

A

the path or course that the chronic illness follows
- nine phases
- chronological order

69
Q

what is ageism? give an example

A

a stereotyping or bias that discriminates, stigmatizes, and disadvantages older adults based on their chronological age
EX: assuming that all older adults are forgetful, confused, hard of hearing, or incontinent

70
Q

what is comorbidity?

A

having more than one illness at the same time

71
Q

what is the difference between delirium & dementia?

A

Delirium: a sudden onset of confusion that is a result of illness or injury and is generally reversible; can become fatal if not caught in time
Dementia: long term loss of memory, cognition, confusion; slow & progressive & irreversible

72
Q

when patients have depression, they often have…

A

apathy (lack of interest)

73
Q

what is a durable power of attorney?

A

a healthcare proficy; make healthcare decisions in the event that the sick person cannot make those decisions

74
Q

list some tools used by NPs during a functional assessment (4)

A

Barthel index, Gordon’s functional patterns, Katz Index, Functional independence measure

74
Q

list some tools used by NPs during a functional assessment (4)

A

Barthel index, Gordon’s functional patterns, Katz Index, Functional independence measure

75
Q

list some tools used by NPs during a functional assessment (4)

A

Barthel index, Gordon’s functional patterns, Katz Index, Functional independence measure

75
Q

list some tools used by NPs during a functional assessment (4)

A

Barthel index, Gordon’s functional patterns, Katz Index, Functional independence measure

76
Q

what is the leading cause of death in older adults?

A

cardiovascular disease

77
Q

what is the most common affective mood disorder of old age?

A

depression

78
Q

what does “SIG E CAPS” stand for & used to measure?

A
  • used to measure the emotional & physical well being of an older adult
    S = sleep
    I = interest
    G = guilt
    E = energy
    C = concentration
    A = appetite
    P = psychomotor
    S = suicidal thoughts
79
Q

what is the difference between major & persistent depressive disorder?

A

major: severe symptoms; interferes w daily life
persistent: lasts at least 2 years; may have major depression alternating w periods of less severe depression

80
Q

what is vascular depression?

A

a disorder of executive dysfunction, including difficulty with task completion and decision making

81
Q

list 3 assessment tools w strong reliability & validity for depression in elderly

A

Depression Adjective check list, cornell scale for depression for dementia, Geriatric depression scale

82
Q

list 7 anticholinergic effects from antidepressants

A

dilated pupils, vasodilation / flushing, hyperthermia, dry skin, hallucinations / agitation, ileus / urinary retention, tachycardia

83
Q

what are 2 important cardiac effects to monitor when a patient is on antidepressants or antipsychotic drugs?

A

orthostatic hypotension & fall precautions

84
Q

explain the difference & S/Sx of hyperactive & hypoactive delirium (4)

A

Hyperactive: increased psychomotor activity, rapid speech, irritability, restlessness
Hypoactive: lethargy, slowed speech, decreased alertness, apathy

85
Q

list & briefly describe the 3 common forms of progressive dementia

A
  • Alzheimer’s disease
  • Vascular dementia: due to lack of blood flow to the brain cells caused by strokes or HTN
  • Dementia w Lewy bodies: dementia that affects people at a younger age
86
Q

what is neoplastic dementia caused by?

A

brain cancer

87
Q

who is demyelinating dementia commonly seen in?

A

patients w MS

88
Q

which 3 infections can cause infectious dementia?

A

sipilis, herpes & epilitis

89
Q

explain the difference between familial & sporadic alzheimer’s

A

familial: (early onset): rare!
sporadic: (late onset)

90
Q

which part of the brain does Alzheimer’s primarily occur in? cells that use ___ are mainly affected by AD

A
  • cerebral cortex
  • acetylcholine
91
Q

which 3 conditions signify the components of the Geriatric Triad?

A

falls, urinary incontinence, changes in cognitive status

92
Q

what is the most common form of elderly abuse?

A

neglect

92
Q

what is the most common form of elderly abuse?

A

neglect

93
Q

what is the most common form of elderly abuse?

A

neglect

94
Q

what is premature institutionalization?

A

elder sent to a nursing home if they cannot be cared for at home due to the caregiver not able to cut hours or if family lives across the country

95
Q

what does the patient self determination act say?

A

law that states that any facility that is funded by medicare must provide patients w information on advanced directives; if patients refuse, the nurse must document that the patient declined