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ANATOMY > WEEK 1 - Intro Lecture > Flashcards

WEEK 1 - Intro Lecture Flashcards

1
Q

What is anatomical position?

A

The body position in which an individual is standing upright with the head and toes facing forward, upper limbs adjacent to the sides of the body, palms facing forward, lower limbs close together, and feet parallel

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2
Q

What are the 4 anatomical planes?

A

Median, Sagittal, frontal (coronal) and transverse (axial) planes

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3
Q

What is the median plane?

A

Vertical plane that passes longitudinally through the midline of the body and divides the body into R and L halves

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4
Q

What is the sagittal plane?

A

Vertical planes that pass longitudinally through the body.

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5
Q

What is the frontal (coronal) plane

A

Vertical planes that pass through the body at right angles (to the median plane) and divide the body into front (anterior/ventral) and back (posterior/dorsal)

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6
Q

What are transverse (axial) planes?

A

Horizontal planes that pass through the body at right angles (to the median plane) and divide the body into upper (superior) and lower (inferior) parts

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7
Q

What do superior and cranial refer to?

A

Structure nearer the cranium (head)

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8
Q

What do inferior and caudal refer to?

A

Structure nearer the foot

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9
Q

What do posterior and dorsal refer to?

A

Back surface of the body (top of feet and hands)

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10
Q

What do anterior and ventral refer to?

A

The front surface of the body

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11
Q

Medial definition

A

Structure closer to the median plane (center of body)

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12
Q

Lateral definition

A

Structure farther from the median plane

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13
Q

Proximal definition

A

Structure closer to a limb attachment (closer to trunk of body)

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14
Q

Distal definition

A

Refers to a structure farther from a limb attachment (farther from trunk of body)

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15
Q

Define bilateral

A

Refers to paired structures with R and L sides

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16
Q

Define Unilateral

A

Unpaired structures that occur only on one side

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17
Q

define Ipsilateral

A

Structure that occurs on the same side as another structure (situated to the same side)

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18
Q

define Contralateral

A

Refers to a structure that occurs on the opposite side of another structure

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19
Q

Define flexion

A

Movement that decreases the angle between bones

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20
Q

Define extension

A

Movement that increases the angle between the bones

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21
Q

Define pronation

A

Rotation in the forearm (from the anatomical position) so palms face posteriorly

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22
Q

Define supination

A

Rotation in forearm so palms face anteriorly (anatomical position)

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23
Q

Define dorsiflexion

A

Flexion of the ankle joint that lifts toes away from the ground

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24
Q

Define plantarflexion

A

Flexion at ankle joint that lifts the heel off ground

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25
Q

Define eversion

A

Movement of foot whereby sole moves away from the median plane

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26
Q

Define inversion

A

Movement of foot where sole of foot moves toward the median plane

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27
Q

What is the hierarchical order of organization

A 
Atoms
Molecules
Organelles
Cells
Tissues
Organs
Organ systems
Organism
Population
Community
Ecosystem
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28
Q

What are the 4 primary tissues of the body

A

Connective tissue
Epithelial tissue
Muscle tissue
Nervous tissue

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29
Q

How are epithelial tissues categorized?

A
  • shape (squamous, cuboidal, columnar)

- layers (simple, stratified)

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30
Q

Connective tissue is defined as…

A

“Formed elements within a matrix”

  • formed elements: specific population of cells
  • matrix: fibers (collagen, reticular, or elastin) and ground substance (chemicals)
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31
Q

What is the most abundant and varied of the 4 primary tissues?

A

Connective tissue

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32
Q

Muscular tissues subtypes are based on…

A

Shape
Striations
Nuclei
Nervous control (voluntary or involuntary)

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33
Q

What cells are nervous tissues composed of?

A

Neurons and neuroglia helper cells

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34
Q

What are the 4 basic body membranes

A

Mucous membrane
Serous membrane
Cutaneous membrane
Synovial membrane

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35
Q

Where are mucous membranes found?

A

In passageways entering and leaving the body (GI tract)

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36
Q

Where are serous membranes found?

A

Lining vital organs; are very moist

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37
Q

What is the cutaneous membrane?

A

Skin: Epidermis and dermis

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38
Q

Where are synovial membranes found?

A

In joints (synovial joints)

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39
Q

T or F: the body only has 1 cavity

A

F

the body contains many cavities which are all filled (body will fill all void)

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40
Q

What is the integumentary system?

A

Consists of skin and epidermal derivatives/appendages (sweat glands, sebaceous glands, hair, hair follicles, nails)

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41
Q

What is the function of the integumentary system?

A
  • regulate body temp and water loss
  • provide a nonspecific barrier to external environmental factors
  • synthesize vitamin D
  • absorb UV irradiation
  • convey sensory information
  • secrete sweat and sebum
  • plays role in antigen presentation
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42
Q

What are the 3 layers of the skin?

A

Epidermis, (middle) dermis, and hypodermis or subcutaneous layer

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43
Q

What is the epidermis specific classification?

A

keratinized stratified squamous epithelium (avascular)

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44
Q

What are the layers of the epidermis? (From superficial to deep)

A 
Stratum corneum - cunt
Stratum lucidum (thick skin only) - Lucy 
Stratum granulosum - grabbed
stratum spinosum - spencers
stratum basale - balls
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45
Q

What are the two layers of the dermis?

A

Papillary (superficial) and reticular layers (deep)

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46
Q

What is the papillary layer of the dermis composed of?

A
  • Loose connective tissue w/ fibroblasts
  • types I and III collagen fibers
  • thin elastic fibers
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47
Q

What does the reticular layer of the dermis consist of?

A
  • irregular connective tissue w/ fibroblasts
  • type I collagen
  • thick elastic fibers
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48
Q

What does NAVL stand for?

A

Nerve
Artery
Vein
Lymphatic

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49
Q

What does the subcutaneous layer contain?

A
  • superficial fascia

- superficial NAVL (nerve, artery, vein, lymphatic)

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50
Q

What is fascia?

A

Specialized connective tissue that provides shape and structure and protection

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51
Q

What covers the surface of muscles?

A

Deep fascia

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52
Q

What substances do eccrine sweat glands secrete?

A

Water
Electrolytes
Urea
Ammonium

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53
Q

Where do eccrine ducts open to?

A

The surface of the skin as sweat pores

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54
Q

What do apocrine sweat glands secrete?

A

Proteins, carbs, ammonia, lipid and organic compounds

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55
Q

Where do apocrine ducts open to?

A

Axilla, mons pubis, and anal regions

Pheromones come from here!

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56
Q

What do sebaceous glands secrete?

A

Sebum (lipid and debris)

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57
Q

Where do sebaceous ducts open to?

A

Upper portion of a hair follicle into the pilosebaceous canal

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58
Q

Define the dermal papillae

A
  • the deepest part of the hair follicle that becomes round-shaped
  • Connective tissue that invaginate (cover) the hair bulb
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59
Q

Define hair follicles

A
  • form as epidermal cells

- grow into the underlying dermis during early embryonic development

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60
Q

Define dermal papillae

A

Connective tissue that invaginate (cover) the hair bulb

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61
Q

T or F: the dermal papillae are infiltrated by blood vessels and nerve endings

A

True

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62
Q

What are epidermal stem cells?

A

Also called “germinal matrix”

Epidermal cells within the hair bulb form an area which contains these epidermal stem cells

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63
Q

Define hair shaft

A

A long, slender filament that extends above the surface of the epidermis

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64
Q

How is the hair shaft created?

A

By continuous proliferation and differentiation of germinal matrix cells at the tip of the dermal papilla

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65
Q

Define nail/nail plate

A

The nail is a translucent plate (nail plate) of closely compacted hard keratin

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66
Q

How is the nail plate formed?

A

By proliferation and keratinization of the epithelial cells within the nail matrix.

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67
Q

Define nail matrix

A

A V-shaped area located under a fold of skin called the proximal nail fold

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68
Q

What is the lunula?

A

The only portion of the nail matrix that is grossly visible

- a half moon-shaped whitish area

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69
Q

Define eponychium

A
  • also called the cuticle

- located at the outer edge of the proximal nail fold

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70
Q

Define hyponychium

A
  • Protects the nail matrix from bacterial and fungal invasion
  • where the nail and nail bed fuse at the fingertip
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71
Q

What are the 5 epidermal derivatives?

A 
Eccrine sweat glands/ducts
Apocrine sweat glands/ducts
Sebaceous glands/ducts
Hair follicles
Nails
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72
Q

How to navigate body layers

A
  • superficial to deep
  • in cross sections
  • be able to recognize location and position of NAVL (nerve, artery, vein, lymphatic)
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73
Q

What are the layers in a cross section through superficial tissue (from superficial to deep)

A
  • Skin
  • Superficial adipose tissue and retinacula cutis superficialities
  • Superficial fascia
  • Deep adipose tissue
  • Multilayer structure of the deep fascia
  • Loose connective tissue
  • Muscle
  • Bone
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74
Q

How is the skeletal system divided?

A

Axial skeleton and appendicular skeleton

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75
Q

What is the axial skeleton?

A

Consists of bones of the cranium (skull), hyoid bone, ribs, sternum, vertebrae, and sacrum

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76
Q

What is the appendicular skeleton?

A

Bones of the upper and lower limbs, shoulder girdle, and pelvic girdle

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77
Q

What is the skeleton composed of?

A

Cartilage and bone

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78
Q

List the skeletal classifications (4)

A
  • system level: axial and appendicular
  • organ level: bones (also by shape)
  • tissue level: compact and spongy bone
  • cell level: osteoprogenitor cells (stem cells), osteoblasts, osteocytes, and osteoclasts
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79
Q

What are the 3 types of cartilage?

A

Hyaline cartilage
Elastic cartilage
Fibrocartilage

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80
Q

Where is hyaline cartilage found?

Name 2 locations

A

Fetal skeletal tissue, epiphyseal growth plates, articulate surface of synovial joints, costal cartilage, nasal cartilage, laryngeal cartilage, tracheal cartilage rings, and bronchial cartilage plates

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81
Q

What is hyaline cartilage made from?

A

Cells and ground substance

Cells - chondrogenic cells, chondroblasts, chondrocytes

Ground substance - proteoglycans, water, fibers, and cartilage types 2, 6, 9 and 11

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82
Q

Where is elastic cartilage found?

A

In the pinna of the external ear, external auditory meatus, auditory tube, epiglottis, corniculate cartilage of the larynx, and cuneiform cartilage of the larynx

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83
Q

What is elastic cartilage made from?

A

Similar to hyaline cartilage, but contains elastic fibers and type 2 collagen fibers

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84
Q

Where is fibrocartilage found?

A

Intervertebral disks, symphysis pubis, articulate disks of the TMJ and sternoclavicular joints, menisci of the knee joint, and insertion of tendons

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85
Q

What is fibrocartilage made of?

A

Same as hyaline cartilage but has no perichondrium, more extracellular matrix than cells, and types 1/2 collagen fibers

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86
Q

Define process

A

Any protuberance or projection of a bone

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87
Q

Define Ramus

A

Any projection that branches off a bone at an angle to the rest of the bone

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88
Q

Describe neck structure of a long bone

A

A narrowing where the shaft of a long bone (diaphysis) meets the end of the bone (epiphysis)

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89
Q

Define head and state if it is a process, depression, or opening

A
  • The end of a bone that is expanded and rounded, allowing bone to articulate with other bones to form joints
  • a process
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90
Q

Define facet and state if it is a process, depression, or opening

A

A small, smooth, nearly flat surface that another bone sits upon; a process that allow bones to articulate with other bones to form joints

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91
Q

Define condyle and state if it is a process, depression, or opening

A

A rounded protuberance at the end of a bone that often articulates with a fossa on another bone; a process that allow bones to articulate with other bones to form joints

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92
Q

Define fossa and state if it is a process, depression, or opening

A

A shallow depression in a bone that articulates with a process (often a condyle), on another bone

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93
Q

Define epicondyle and state if it is a process, depression, or opening

A

A second rounded projection on top of a rounded condyle projection (process)

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94
Q

Define crest and state if it is a process, depression, or opening

A

A prominent but narrow ridge raising off a bone (process)

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95
Q

Define line and state if it is a process, depression, or opening

A

A small narrow ridge raising off a bone, less prominent than a ridge (process that allow connective tissues such as ligaments and tendons to attach to bones)

96
Q

Define trochanter and state if it is a process, depression, or opening

A

A very large, irregularly shaped projection (process that allow connective tissues to attach to bone)

97
Q

Define tuberosity and state if it is a process, depression, or opening

A

A large rounded projection (smaller than trochanter) that many be roughened (process for connective tissue)

98
Q

Define tubercle and state if it is a process, depression, or opening

A

A smaller tuberosity, rounded, sometimes roughened (process for connective tissue)

99
Q

Define foramen and state if it is a process, depression, or opening

A

A round hole through which blood vessels, nerves, or ligaments pass

100
Q

Define meatus and state if it is a process, depression, or opening

A

A tube-like passageway through a bone

101
Q

Define fissure

A

A narrow slit through a bone which blood vessels and nerves pass

102
Q

Define sulcus and state if it is a process, depression, or opening

A

A crevice or groove that accommodates a nerve, blood vessel, or tendon

103
Q

Define sinus and state if it is a process, depression, or opening

A

A cavity within a bone, air-filled and lined with a mucous membrane

104
Q

List all bony processes

A 
Head - hey
Facet - fuckers
Condyle - can 
Epicondyle - everyone 
Crest - cum 
Line - lick 
Spine - Sam’s 
Trochanter - tiny  
Tuberosity - tits 
Tubercle - thanks
105
Q

List all bony depressions

A

Fossa

106
Q

List all bony openings

A 
Foramen - fucking 
Meatus - men 
Fissure - fucking 
Sulcus - sucky
Sinus - suck
107
Q

How are joints classified

A

By structural (anatomically - material holding together) and functional classifications

108
Q

What are the 3 structural (anatomical) classifications of joints

A 
Fibrous joints (collagen fibers)
Cartilaginous joints (cartilage)
Synovial joints (ligaments)
109
Q

What are the 6 types of synovial joints?

A

Ball and socket, plane, pivot, hinge, condyloid, saddle

110
Q

What are the 3 functional classifications of joints?

A

Synarthrosis (immovable)
Amphiarthrosis (slightly movable)
Diarthrosis (freely movable)

111
Q

3 muscles of the human body

A

Cardiac
Smooth
Skeletal

112
Q

Where is cardiac muscle found

A

On the walls of the heart

113
Q

Where is smooth muscle found?

A

In the walls of hollow viscera and blood vessels

Ex: stomach

114
Q

How are skeletal muscles classified?

A

Axial or appendicular, and extrinsic or intrinsic muscles

115
Q

compartment muscles are classified based on their role in a particular movement. What are these classifications?

A
  • agonist (prime mover)
  • antagonist (limits how free first muscle is)
  • synergistic (assists to make sure it only moves in arc that it should be)
  • fixator (holds insertion/origin point)
116
Q

MIDTERM INFO: can you wiggle your ears?

A

Everyone has a muscle for this, but if it is not used, muscle gets weak

117
Q

MIDTERM INFO: “deltoid” means….

A

“Shaped like a triangle”

118
Q

What criteria are skeletal muscles named based on?

A
  • direction of muscle fibers
  • size of muscle
  • location of muscle
  • number of origins
  • location of origin and insertion
  • shape of muscle
  • action of muscle
119
Q

What are motor units?

A

Small: axon innervates 1-5 skeletal muscle cells

Large: axon innervates more than 150 skeletal muscle cells

120
Q

Name the muscle layers

A
121
Q

What are the compartments of the leg?

A

Anterior, lateral, posterior compartments

122
Q

What does the anterior compartment of the leg contain?

A

Extensor group of muscles

123
Q

What does the lateral compartment of the leg contain?

A

Peroneal group of muscles

124
Q

What does the posterior compartment of the leg contain?

A

Flexor group of muscles

125
Q

What are the two circuits of blood circulation?

A

Pulmonary circulation and systemic circulation

126
Q

What is the pulmonary circulation of blood?

A

The right ventricle pumps low-oxygen blood into the lungs via the pulmonary arteries where the blood is oxygenated and then returned to the left atrium of the heart via pulmonary veins

127
Q

What is systemic circulation of blood

A

The left ventricle pumps highly oxygenated blood through the systemic arteries to distribute oxygen and nutrients throughout the body. Low-oxygen blood is then returned to the right atrium of the heart via systemic veins

128
Q

What are the 3 general types of blood vessels?

A

Arteries
Capillaries
Veins

129
Q

Blue in blood circulation means…

A

Deoxygenated blood

130
Q

Red in blood circulation means

A

Oxygenated

131
Q

Muscular arteries function primarily as…

A

Distribution arteries

132
Q

Arterioles function primarily as…

A

Resistance vessels

133
Q

Which type of blood vessel offers the greatest resistance against the flow of blood from the heart to the peripheral tissues?

A

Arterioles

134
Q

Which type of vessel plays a role in regulation of arterial blood pressure?

A

Arterioles

135
Q

List some examples of muscular arteries

A

Axillary, ulnar, radial, femoral arteries

136
Q

What is a metarteriole?

A

The terminal branch of the arterial system and flows directly into the capillary bed

137
Q

What is the precapillary sphincter?

A

A thickened smooth muscle cell layer of a metarteriole that regulates blood flow into the capillary bed

138
Q

What is similar between a muscular artery and an Arteriole?

A

Both have a tunica media that both control blood flow in one way or another

139
Q

What is the difference between a muscular artery and an arteriole?

A

A muscular artery controls distribution of blood to organs and tissues, where an arteriole regulates flow of blood to the capillary beds

140
Q

What are the 3 types of capillaries?

A

Continuous, fenestrated, and discontinuous/sinusoid

141
Q

What is a capillary?

A

The capillary forms a small tube that allows for the passage of one red blood cell at a time

Function primarily as exchange vessels: exchange water, O2, CO2, glucose, AA, proteins, metabolites, and waste between blood and cells

142
Q

What is the most common type of capillary?

A

Continuous

143
Q

What does a continuous capillary consist of?

A

A single layer of endothelial cells joined by a zonula occludens (tight junction)

144
Q

Where are continuous capillaries found?

A

Lung, muscle, thymus, nervous system (blood brain barrier), connective tissue, and exocrine glands

145
Q

Where are fenestrated capillaries found

A

In the renal system - kidneys and urine system

146
Q

What joins the endothelial cells of the fenestrated kidney?

A

Fascia occludens

147
Q

Where are discontinuous/sinusoid capillaries found?

A

LIVER, bone marrow, spleen (organs that store something)

148
Q

What are veins

A
  • transport blood back to the heart

“Valves that are projections of the tunica intima that transport blood back to the heart (dependent on the contraction of skeletal muscles and valves that ensure one-way flow of blood)” (textbook def)

149
Q

How are veins similar and different to arteries?

A

-they have the same layers but veins have an extra layer

Vascular wall of veins and arteries both have 3 concentric tunics

Tunica media of veins is thinner

Tunica adventitia of veins is thicker

150
Q

How much blood volume is found in medium and large sized veins?

A

70%

151
Q

What is the lymphatic portal system?

A

Drains surplus extra cellular tissue fluid and leaked plasma proteins and returns them back into the venous blood stream.

Also absorbs and transports dietary fat and immune defense

152
Q

What does the lymphatic system consist of?

A 
Lymphatic capillaries
Superficial and deep lymphatic vessels
Lymphatic trunks
Right lymphatic duct
Thoracic duct
Superficial and deep lymph nodes
153
Q

What is the largest portal system?

A

Hepatic portal system

154
Q

What are lymph ducts formed by?

A

Formed by the lymphatic trunks

155
Q

What does the right lymphatic duct drain?

A

Right side of the head and neck
Right breast
Right upper limb/superficial thoracoabdominal wall
Right lung

156
Q

What does the thoracic duct drain?

A
  • Left side of the head and neck
  • left breast
  • left upper limb/superficial thoraco-abdominal wall
  • all of the body below the diaphragm
157
Q

What are lymph nodes?

A

Bean-shaped glands that lie in the course of lymphatic vessels that filter and monitor lymph for various agents

158
Q

What are the layers of lymph nodes?

A

Outer cortex, inner cortex, and medulla

159
Q

How is the nervous system divided?

A

Anatomically: CNS and PNS
Functionally: somatic nervous system and autonomic (visceral)

160
Q

What does the somatic nervous system control?

A

Voluntary activities by innervating skeletal muscle

161
Q

What does the autonomic/visceral nervous system control?

A

Involuntary activities by interacting the viscera, smooth muscle, cardiac muscle, and glands

162
Q

The neuron is the _____ and _____ unit of the nervous system

A

Structural and functional

163
Q

What does a neuron consist of?

A

Perikaryon (soma), dendrites, and axon

164
Q

Neuroglia in the CNS are called… (hint there are 4)

A

Oligodendrocytes, microfilm, ependymal, astrocytes

165
Q

Neuroglia in the PNS are called… (hint there are 2)

A

Schwann and satellite cells

166
Q

What is a synapse?

A

A specialized junction by which neurons communicate with one another

167
Q

What are the 3 main types of synapses and where are they?

A
  1. Axodendritic synapse: between axon and dendrite
  2. Axosomatic synapse: between axon and perikaryon (soma)
  3. Axoaxonic synapse: between an axon and another axon
168
Q

How do presynaptic neuron components work?

A

Voltage-gated Ca2+ channels open when depolarization reaches synaptic terminal > influx of Ca2+ from extracellular matrix > causes release of neurotransmitter into synaptic cleft > binds to receptor on post synaptic membrane

169
Q

How do postsynaptic neuron components work?

A

Contains either transmitter-gated ion channels or G protein-linked receptors that bind to a specific neurotransmitter

170
Q

What does the CNS consist of?

A

Brain and spinal cord

171
Q

What is white matter of the brain?

A

Abundance of myelinated axon

172
Q

What is gray matter of the brain?

A

Scarcity of myelinated axons

173
Q

What is a myelin sheath

A

Oligodendrocytes that surround and insulate a portion of the axon

174
Q

What is the node of ranvier?

A

The junction between adjacent Oligodendrocyte processes on an axon

175
Q

What is the function of microglia?

A

Phagocytic function and proliferate in regions of injury or diseases (reactive microglia)

176
Q

What are meninges?

A

CNS connective tissue that protects the underlying brain and spinal cord and provides a framework for arteries, veins, rural sinuses, and encloses a fluid filled space called the subarachnoid space

177
Q

What do the meninges include?

A

Dura mater, arachnoid mater, and pia mater

178
Q

What is dura mater?

A

Tough/durable outermost meningeal component containing blood vessels and nerves

179
Q

What does the arachnoid mater consist of?

A

The arachnoid barrier cell layer and the arachnoid trabeculae

180
Q

What is the pia mater?

A

The innermost component of the meninges closely follows the surface topography of the brain and spinal cord

181
Q

What does the PNS consist of?

A
  • 31 pairs of spinal nerves/ganglia

- 12 pairs of cranial nerves/ganglia

182
Q

PNS connective tissue function

A

Holds the axons within the spinal nerve together in bundles

- includes the epineurium, the perineurium, the fascicle, and the endoneurium

183
Q

What is the epinerium

A

In the PNS: a dense irregular connective tissue that surrounds the entire peripheral nerve

184
Q

What is the perineurium?

A

In the PNS: a specialized type of connective tissue that surrounds a bundle of axons (fascicle)

185
Q

What is endoneurium?

A

A delicate, loose connective tissue that surrounds an individual axon

186
Q

What has central control over the ANS

A

The hypothalamus

187
Q

How is the ANS divided?

A

Into the sympathetic (thoracolumbar) and parasympathetic (craniosacral) divisions

188
Q

What is the function of the sympathetic nervous system?

A

It has a “fight or flight” or catabolic function that is necessary in emergency situations when the body needs a sudden burst of energy and the whole system tends to “go off together”

Visceromotor

189
Q

Explain the general sympathetic pathway

A

Short preganglionic neuron > ganglion > long postganglionic neuron > effector organ (except in the sympathetic splanchnic nerves)

190
Q

What does the viscerosensory component of the sympathetic nervous system (ANS) do?

A

Carries visceral pain sensation from nice-toes located in viscera to the CNS

191
Q

What are nociceptors?

A

Free nerve endings that respond to pathologic stimuli

192
Q

Parasympathetic division of the ANS controls…

A

The “rest and digest” or anabolic function to conserve energy, restore body resources, and get rid of waste
-visceromotor

193
Q

Explain the PNS two neuron chain

A
  • Consists of a preganglionic parasympathetic neuron and a postganglionic parasympathetic neuron
  • long preganglionic neuron > ganglion > short postganglionic neuron > effector organ
194
Q

The viscerosensory component of the parasympathetic nervous system (ANS) carries… (6 things)

A
  1. Arterial oxygen tension (PaO2) and arterial pH information from chemoreceptors
  2. Blood pressure information from baroreceptors
  3. Visceral pressure and movement sensation from rapidly adapting mechanoreceptors
  4. Visceral pressure and movement sensation from rapidly adapting mechanoreceptors
  5. Osmolarity information from osmoreceptors
  6. Temp from internal thermal receptor
195
Q

What is diagnostic imaging used for?

A

To study the structure and function of the human body

196
Q

List the 4 types of diagnostic imaging

A
  1. X-ray/plain film
  2. Ultrasound (US)
  3. Computed tomography (CT)
  4. Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI)
197
Q

What is an X-ray?

A

Images formed by x-rays that are passed through tissue onto a film/detector (good for bones and legs) (bad for fat and muscles)

198
Q

What is an ultrasound?

A

Sound waves passed through tissue to produce an image based on the rate of reflection back to transducer (good for distinction between cystic and solid structures) (bad for bones)

199
Q

What is a CT scan?

A

3D images are rendered from data set produced by a routine X-ray beam (good for soft tissue, gas, bone, and large vessels)

200
Q

What is an MRI

A

3D images produced by radio waves passed through tissue in powerful magnetic field (good for bones and soft tissue)

201
Q

pros and cons of MRI

A

Pros: no ionizing radiation, high spatial resolution, high soft tissue contrast
Cons: high cost, long imaging time

202
Q

Pros and cons of CT and X-rays

A

Pros: fast imaging time
Cons: poor soft tissue contrast, radiation, low sensitivity

203
Q

Pros and cons of PET and SPECT

A

Pros: high sensitivity, fast imaging time
Cons: low spatial resolution, radiation, cost

204
Q

Pros and cons of ultrasounds

A

Pros: no ionizing radiation, good spatial resolution, low cost, fast, safe
Cons: limited sensitivity/penetration, operator dependent

205
Q

Diagnostic imaging orientation: list the 3 key concepts

A
  1. Position
  2. Projection
  3. View
206
Q

explain positioning for diagnostic imaging orientation

A

Refers to the general position of the patient or the side of the patient closest to the film/detector

207
Q

Explain projection for diagnostic imaging orientation

A

Refers to the direction of x-rays in relation to the patient and film/detector

- anteroposterior (AP) projection: X-rays  pass through patient anteriorly to reach detector that is posterior to patient 
- posteroanterior (PA) projection: X-rays travel through the patient posteriorly to reach the detector that is anterior to the patient 
- lateral projection: X-rays travel laterally through patient
208
Q

Explain view for diagnostic imaging orientation

A

Provides information about the plane an axis orientation

- Anteroposterior view: as if the viewer is facing the patient (R corresponds w L)
- lateral view: viewer is looking at the image from the side

for CT and MRI: plane is commonly included to aid in orientation to structures

209
Q

What is deep fascia and why is it important?

A

Dense connective tissue that covers bone for strength and protection

210
Q

How do capillaries differ from veins and arteries?

A

Capillaries only have 1 layer while veins and arteries have 3

211
Q

What is an anastomosis?

A

Connecting arteries that repeat their own circulation before returning to the general circulation (IE the heart and brain anastomosis)

212
Q

What is a portal system?

A

2 capillary networks that are connected by a portal vein

213
Q

What is the general circulation pathway?

A

Heart > artery > arteriole > capillary > venule > vein

214
Q

What is the general portal system pathway?

A

Heart > artery > arteriole > capillary 1 > portal vein > capillary 2 > venule > vein

215
Q

What is pia mater comprised of?

A

Layers of fibroblasts and collagen fibers

216
Q

T or F: spinal nerves are all mixed nerves

A

true

217
Q

What type of cells are found in the PNS?

A

Schwann cells and satellite cells

218
Q

What are the two components of the ANS?

A

Visceromotor and viscerosensory

219
Q

What are the two main portal systems?

A

The brain (hypothalamus and pituitary) and the hepatic

220
Q

Where is the heart located?

A

Base of the heart is 3 cm below the 2nd rib. Apex of the heart is located under rib 5.

On left side of sternum

221
Q

What is an agonist muscle?

A

The prime mover

222
Q

What is an antagonist muscle?

A

Limits how free the first muscle is

223
Q

What is a synergist muscle?

A

Assists the movement (ex: the elbow follows a nice arc due to its synergist)

224
Q

What is a fixator muscle?

A

Holds insertion/origin point

225
Q

T or F: connective tissue can be everything from fluids (like blood) to solids (like bones)?

A

True! Both fit the definition of “formed elements of a matrix”

  • elements are cells
  • matrix is ground substance and fibers (reticular, collagen, elastin)
226
Q

What does bucal mean?

A

Cheek

227
Q

What does Otic mean?

A

Ear

228
Q

What does frontal mean?

A

Forehead

229
Q

What does crus mean?

A

Leg

230
Q

What does popiteal mean?

A

Back of knee

231
Q

What does cervical mean?

A

Neck

232
Q

What does mamma mean?

A

Breast

233
Q

What does thorax/thoracic mean?

A

Chest

234
Q

What does patellar mean?

A

Kneecap

235
Q

What does pollex mean?

A

Thumb

236
Q

What does Nasus/nasal mean?

A

Nose

237
Q

What does oris mean?

A

Mouth

ANATOMY (3 decks)

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