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Neuropsychopharmacology > Week 1 - Intro > Flashcards

Week 1 - Intro Flashcards

1
Q

What is a drug?

A
  1. A substance used in the diagnosis, treatment, or prevention of a
    disease or as a component of a medication
  2. Such a substance as recognised or defined by Food and Drug
    Administration (TGA in Aus)
  3. A chemical substance, such as a narcotic or hallucinogen, that
    effects the central nervous system, causing changes in behaviour
    and often addiction
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2
Q

USE (MAIN EFFECT)

A

What disorder it is used to treat

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3
Q

CONTRAINDICATIONS

A

Drugs or disorders that this drug should not be prescribed with/for

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4
Q

LD50

A

Dose at which 50% of ‘population’ found to be Lethal
- keep below this dose!!

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5
Q

ED50

A

Dose at which 50% of ‘population’ found drug to be Effective
- Therapeutic (intended) dosing

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6
Q

What does the “Therapeutic Index” of a drug represent?

A) The maximum concentration of the drug in plasma after administration.

B) The minimum effective dose of the drug required to produce the desired therapeutic effect.

C) The difference between the median lethal dose (LD50) and the median effective dose (ED50) of the drug, indicating its margin of safety.

D) The time it takes for the drug to reach its peak concentration in the bloodstream after administration.

A

Correct Answer: C) The difference between the median lethal dose (LD50) and the median effective dose (ED50) of the drug, indicating its margin of safety.

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7
Q

Which statement accurately describes a drug with a low therapeutic index?

A) It has a wide margin of safety, making it less prone to adverse effects.

B) There is a substantial difference between its median lethal dose (LD50) and its median effective dose (ED50).

C) It has a narrow margin of safety, indicating little room for error in dosing and making it easier to overdose.

D) The drug’s plasma concentration remains constant over time, ensuring consistent therapeutic effects.

A

Correct Answer: C) It has a narrow margin of safety, indicating little room for error in dosing and making it easier to overdose.

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8
Q

What characterizes a drug with a high therapeutic index?

A) It has a narrow margin of safety, making it prone to adverse effects even at therapeutic doses.

B) There is a small difference between its median lethal dose (LD50) and its median effective dose (ED50).

C) It has a wide margin for dosing, indicating little risk of harm to the patient even with larger doses.

D) The drug’s plasma concentration fluctuates significantly over time, leading to variable therapeutic effects.

A

Correct Answer: C) It has a wide margin for dosing, indicating little risk of harm to the patient even with larger doses.

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9
Q

What is Drug Potency?

A

ability for drug to take effect (how much is needed)

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10
Q

How is drug toxicity defined?

A) The potential of a drug to do irreversible harm to body functions or cause adverse effects.

B) The potential of a drug to cause reversible harm to body functions.

C) The ability of a drug to induce beneficial effects on body functions.

D) The therapeutic range of a drug, indicating the concentration at which it produces its desired effects.

A

Correct Answer: A) The potential of a drug to do irreversible harm to body functions or cause adverse effects.

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11
Q

Peripheral Nervous System

A

Faster than hormones - milliseconds - targeted to specific organs
1. Somatic (sensorimotor)
2. Autonomic (parasympathetic, sympathetic - Work in opposition to one another - one might be on more that the other)

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12
Q

Hormones + what parts are involved?

A

Slower - these need to go in the blood - it has a larger range of effect (wherever the blood goes)
1. Hypothalamus
2. Pituitary
3. Pineal gland

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13
Q

Which gland primarily releases cortisol, commonly known as the “stress hormone”?

A) Thyroid gland

B) Pituitary gland

C) Pancreas

D) Adrenal gland

A

D) Adrenal gland

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14
Q

Which physiological responses are associated with the sympathetic nervous system?

A) Relaxation and digestion

B) Flight, fright, fight, and sex

C) Sleep and rest

D) Growth and development

A

Correct Answer: B) Flight, fright, fight, and sex

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15
Q

Which physiological functions are primarily regulated by the parasympathetic nervous system?

A) Flight, fright, fight, and sex

B) Digestion, immune response, growth, and energy storage

C) Sleep and rest

D) Muscle contraction and arousal

A

B) Digestion, immune response, growth, and energy storage

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16
Q

What is the body trying to do at all times?

What does this involve?

A

Promote Homeostasis

Oxygen, Rid waste products (CO2), Nutrients, pH range 7.2, Temperature 37.2 C

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17
Q

What parts of the body are involved in oxygen?

A

Cardiovascular and Respiratory

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18
Q

What parts of the body are involved in waste removal?

A

Renal (kidney), Gastrointestinal tract/ liver, Cardiovascular system, lymph nodes and Cerebrospinal fluid

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19
Q

What parts of the body are involved in transporting nutrients?

A

Gastrointestinal tract, Cardiovascular system and kidneys

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20
Q

What parts of the body are involved in maintaining pH?

A

Cardiovascular system, Gastrointestinal tract and respiratory

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21
Q

What parts of the body are involved in maintaining temp?

A

Skin, Cardiovascular system and Gastrointestinal tract

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22
Q

Which of the following best describes the focus of pharmacokinetics?

A) The study of the mechanisms by which drugs interact with receptors to produce therapeutic effects.

B) The investigation of a drug’s effects on specific physiological systems within the body.

C) The examination of what happens to a drug once it has entered the body, including its absorption, distribution, metabolism, and excretion.

D) The evaluation of a drug’s safety profile and potential adverse effects.

A

Correct Answer: C) The examination of what happens to a drug once it has entered the body, including its absorption, distribution, metabolism, and excretion.

23
Q

Drug effect is modulated by (what is the acronym):

A

DAME DAME DAME DAME
- Absorption (bioavailability - routes of administration)
- Distribution - blood flow, tissue permeability
- Metabolism (biotransformation) - liver, enzymes in tissue
- Excretion - kidneys, lungs

24
Q

What is the Half-life of a drug?

A

(time to remove half of active drug amount) - affected by all the things that modulates drug effects

25
Q

How is bioavailability defined inWhat is meant by the term “bioavailability” in pharmacology?

A) The total amount of drug administered to the patient.

B) The duration of action of a drug in the body.

C) The potency of a drug in producing its therapeutic effects.

D) The fractional extent of a drug that reaches its site of action or biological fluid.

A

orrect Answer: D) The fractional extent of a drug that reaches its site of action or biological fluid.

26
Q

Routes of drug administration

A
  1. Oral - first pass metabolism (must pass through the liver)
  2. Subcutaneous (s.c)- between skin and muscle e.g. insulin
  3. Intraperitoneal (i.p.): used in rodents Injected to the peritoneal cavity (abdomen).
  4. Intramuscular (i.m.): into the muscle
  5. Intravenous (i.v.)
  6. Pulmonary absorption (inhalants)
  7. Topical applications - transdermal, eye - via mucous membranes
27
Q

Which term describes medications placed directly into the tissues or the circulatory system by injection, and what are four common types of such injections?

A) Parenteral Injection - Intravenous, Intraperitoneal, Intramuscular, Subcutaneous

B) Circulatory Injection - Subcutaneous, Intramuscular, Intradermal, Intravenous

C) Peripheral Injection- Intravenous, Intraperitoneal, Intramuscular, Subcutaneous

D) Parenteral - Intramuscular, Intraperitoneal, Sublingual, Intravenous

A

A) Parenteral Injection - Intravenous, Intraperitoneal, Intramuscular, Subcutaneous

28
Q

Oral administration (Enteral) - what is the absorption pattern, pros and cons. What are the two types?

A

Absorption pattern: variable (Depends on what you have eaten, your stomachs lining etc)
Most convenient, economical, safe
- Not use for drugs that are poorly soluble, slowly absorbed, unstable
or extensively metabolised by the liver

Sublingual - good for high lipophilic drugs - dissolve quickly through
mucosa to vena cava (mouth under the tongue)

Rectal (suppository) - 50% will bypass liver - very good when patient
can not take drugs orally (vomiting, unconscious).

29
Q

Parenteral Injections

A

Intravenous (Directly into the blood)
- Limitations of absorption reduced
- Immediate and accurate effects
* Increased risk of adverse effects and overdose

Subcutaneous (Under skin it releases slowly)
* Prompt action from solutions, slow release from repository preps (birth control bar)
* Good for insoluble suspensions and solid pellets
* Can’t use with large volumes, may cause necrosis

Intramuscular e.g. vaccine
* Prompt action from solutions, slow release from repository preps
* Good for moderate volumes
* Can alter distribution by changing blood flow to area (massage,
heat) - not ideal in obese patients (because of fat)

30
Q

What are Inhalants and what is the benefits?

A
  • Use of gas exchange at lungs - very fast access to the circulation
  • Avoid hepatic first pass
31
Q

What are examples of mucous membrane application sites, and for what purpose are they commonly used?

A) Oral, ocular, dermal - for systemic effects (e.g., pain relief)

B) Nasal, vaginal, colon, urethra - for local effects (e.g., decongestants)

C) Intravenous, intramuscular, subcutaneous - for targeted drug delivery (e.g., insulin)

D) Intranasal, intravenous, sublingual - for rapid absorption (e.g., emergency medications)

A

Correct Answer: B) Nasal, vaginal, colon, urethra - for local effects (e.g., decongestants)

32
Q

What are the two types of administration directly into the cerebrospinal fluid, and what are they often used for?

A) Intrathecal - inject directly into ventricles (brain tumours); Intracerebroventricular - inject directly into the subarachnoid space (spinal anesthesia - epidural)

B) Intraventricular - inject directly into ventricles (brain tumours); Intrathecal - inject directly into the subarachnoid space (spinal anesthesia - epidural)

C) Intrathecal - inject directly into the subarachnoid space (spinal anesthesia - epidural); Intracerebroventricular - inject directly into ventricles (brain tumours)

D) Intracerebroventricular - inject directly into subarachnoid space (spinal anesthesia - epidural); Intrathecal - inject directly into ventricles (brain tumours)

A

Correct Answer: C) Intrathecal - inject directly into the subarachnoid space (spinal anesthesia - epidural); Intracerebroventricular - inject directly into ventricles (brain tumours)

33
Q

Crossing the Blood Brain Barrier: what can cross easily?

A

Carbon dioxide and oxygen can cross easily as well as fat soluble molecules

Brain capillary endothelial cells have continuous tight junctions
- Only highly lipophilic drugs can cross from blood capillaries to cerebrospinal fluid (CSF)

34
Q

What is neurotransmission?

A

Neurons chemically communicating with neurons

35
Q

Types of Brain cells (4)

A
  1. Neurons
  2. Glial cells - astrocytes & oligodendrocytes
  3. Ependymal cells - line the CSF-filled ventricles (neurogenesis- make new cells)
  4. Microglia - remove dead or degenerating neurons or glia
    (phagocytosis - eat cell)
36
Q

What term describes the collective structures of axons and dendrites in neurons?

A) Neurites

B) Synapses

C) Nuclei

D) Ganglia

A

Correct Answer: A) Neurites

37
Q

EPSP’s =

A

Excitatory post synaptic potential

  • Sodium positive charge
  • If you have lots of these you will have lots of action potential which triggers the release of neurotransmitters
38
Q

IPSP’s =

A

Inhibitory post synaptic potential

  • Chlorine negative charge
  • If you have lots of these this will inhibit or decrease the release of neurotransmitters
39
Q

Chemical communication =

A

Neurotransmission

40
Q

How do neurotransmitters
communicate with the next neuron?

A

Receptors!
- Release of a neurotransmitter binds to a receptor to tell the next neuron
what to do
- We can use drugs to change this transfer of information

41
Q

Agonists are?

A

Drug ‘keys’ that unlock the receptor ‘door’. They act like the neurotransmitters to open the door

42
Q

Antagonists are?

A

Are drug ‘keys’ that fit the lock but can’t open the ‘door’. They compete with neurotransmitters for the keyhole

43
Q

Which of the following accurately describes the concepts of affinity and efficacy in pharmacology?

A) Affinity refers to the ability of a drug to induce a response, while efficacy relates to its attraction to a receptor site.

B) Affinity represents the attraction of a drug to a receptor site, whereas efficacy pertains to its capability to induce a response once bound to the receptor site.

C) Affinity denotes the ability of a drug to initiate a response upon binding, while efficacy signifies its attraction to the receptor site.

D) Affinity and efficacy are terms used interchangeably to describe a drug’s interaction with a receptor site.

A

Correct Answer: B) Affinity represents the attraction of a drug to a receptor site, whereas efficacy pertains to its capability to induce a response once bound to the receptor site.

44
Q

Which statement accurately distinguishes between agonists and antagonists?

A) Agonists possess affinity but lack efficacy, while antagonists have both affinity and efficacy.

B) Agonists exhibit both affinity and efficacy, whereas antagonists possess only affinity without efficacy.

C) Agonists have neither affinity nor efficacy, while antagonists possess both affinity and efficacy.

D) Agonists and antagonists both have affinity, but only antagonists demonstrate efficacy.

A

Correct Answer: B) Agonists exhibit both affinity and efficacy, whereas antagonists possess only affinity without efficacy

45
Q

Which term describes the phenomenon where the effect of one drug or neurotransmitter is minimized or abolished by another substance?

A) Synergy

B) Potentiation

C) Antagonism

D) Additive effect

A

Correct Answer: C) Antagonism

46
Q

Which characteristic primarily distinguishes competitive antagonism from non-competitive antagonism?

A) Competitive antagonism occurs primarily within neurons or cells, while non-competitive antagonism takes place at receptor sites.

B) Competitive antagonism is reversible, whereas non-competitive antagonism is irreversible.

C) Competitive antagonism involves blocking the action of neurotransmitters outside the neuron or cell, while non-competitive antagonism occurs inside neurons or cells.

D) Non-competitive antagonism involves the permanent inactivation of receptors, whereas competitive antagonism allows for the restoration of receptor activity.

A

Correct Answer: A) Competitive antagonism occurs primarily within neurons or cells, while non-competitive antagonism takes place at receptor sites.

47
Q

Which statement accurately describes chemical antagonism?

A) Chemical antagonism involves the direct competition between two substances at the receptor site, leading to the inhibition of drug activity.

B) Chemical antagonism occurs when two substances are administered simultaneously but have opposing effects on the same physiological process.

C) Chemical antagonism results from the mixing of two substances in solution before administration, causing the loss of activity of one or both drugs.

D) Chemical antagonism is a common occurrence, often observed when drugs interact with specific enzymes or receptors in the body.

A

Correct Answer: C) Chemical antagonism results from the mixing of two substances in solution before administration, causing the loss of activity of one or both drugs

48
Q

What defines pharmacokinetic antagonism in drug interactions?

A) Pharmacokinetic antagonism occurs when drugs directly compete for binding sites on receptors, leading to reduced activity.

B) Pharmacokinetic antagonism involves the interaction of a drug with other medications or ingested compounds, resulting in a decrease in its activity after entering the body.

C) Pharmacokinetic antagonism primarily occurs due to the simultaneous administration of two drugs with similar pharmacological effects, leading to an increased therapeutic effect.

D) Pharmacokinetic antagonism is characterized by the irreversible breakdown of a drug by gut and liver enzymes, particularly the Cytochrome P450 cycle, reducing its activity within the body.

A

Correct Answer: B) Pharmacokinetic antagonism involves the interaction of a drug with other medications or ingested compounds, resulting in a decrease in its activity after entering the body.

49
Q

Which scenario best illustrates physiological antagonism?

A) Ingesting alcohol and methamphetamine simultaneously leads to an additive effect, enhancing the motor activation caused by methamphetamine.

B) Ingesting alcohol alone leads to stupor at high doses, while ingesting methamphetamine alone increases motor activation.

C) Alcoholic stupor requires a greater amount of alcohol consumption when ingested along with methamphetamine, as methamphetamine counteracts the effect of alcohol.

D) Ingesting alcohol and methamphetamine together results in a synergistic effect, intensifying the motor activation and leading to a greater degree of stupor.

A

Correct Answer: C) Alcoholic stupor requires a greater amount of alcohol consumption when ingested along with methamphetamine, as methamphetamine counteracts the effect of alcohol.

50
Q

Which term describes the phenomenon when the physiological effects of two administered drugs oppose or counteract each other?

A) Synergism

B) Additive effect

C) Potentiation

D) Physiological antagonism

A

Correct Answer: D) Physiological antagonism

51
Q

Which of the following correctly lists the types of antagonism encountered in pharmacology?

A) Competitive, irreversible, chemical, synergistic, physiological

B) Reversible, non-reversible, synergistic, metabolic, pharmacodynamic

C) Competitive, non-competitive, chemical, pharmacokinetic, physiological

D) Receptor-specific, non-specific, synergistic, metabolic, physiological

A

Correct Answer: C) Competitive, non-competitive, chemical, pharmacokinetic, physiological

52
Q

What best describes an additive drug interaction?

A) The combined effect of two or more drugs is greater than the sum of their individual effects.

B) When two or more drugs have no effect on each other’s pharmacological activity.

C) The combined effect of two or more drugs equals the sum of their individual effects when administered separately.

D) A situation where one drug enhances the effect of another drug, leading to a greater overall effect.

A

Correct Answer: C) The combined effect of two or more drugs equals the sum of their individual effects when administered separately.

53
Q

What best describes a synergistic drug interaction?

A) The combined effect of two or more drugs is equal to the sum of their individual effects.

B) One drug enhances the effect of another to a greater extent than what would be expected from an additive interaction.

C) Two or more drugs have no effect on each other’s pharmacological activity.

D) A situation where one drug counteracts the effects of another drug, leading to a diminished overall effect.

A

Correct Answer: B) One drug enhances the effect of another to a greater extent than what would be expected from an additive interaction.

Neuropsychopharmacology (8 decks)

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