Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

650 > Week 1 > Flashcards

Week 1 Flashcards

1
Q

How often are A checks?

A

600 hrs +- 50

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

How often are C checks?

A

12 months +- 1 month

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Are CB’s mandatory or advisory?

A

Advisory

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Are alert CB’s mandatory or advisory?

A

Mandatory

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

How do we troubleshoot?

A

CMP diagnostics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Where is the CDL (config deviation list) found?

A

Appendix B of the AFM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

If not in the MMEL, must an item be operative for flight?

A

Yes, unless can be found in CDL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What do arrows at the end of wires mean on WDM’s?

A

Wires are physically pinned on the aircraft (poke home)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is the difference between how hard breakers are soft breakers are drawn?

A

Hard breakers have crosses on top

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

How are relays and switches always drawn?

A

In the relaxed (de-energised) position

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What are cockpit clocks required for?

A

Timed flight manoeuvres

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

When engaged, what does the crew restraint system prevent?

A

Forward movement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

How long does the pax seat ECU need prior to working?

A

20 mins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What type of hydraulic system do the pax seats have?

A

Closed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What colour wires are fibre optic?

A

Purple

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What must be avoided when using fibre optic cables?

A

Exceeding bend radius

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What frequencies are ELT transmitted on?

A

121.5, 243.0 MHz

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

When are ELT’s tested?

A

5 past the hour

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What two things can flashing ELT’s mean?

A
  • On indication

- Fault indication

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

In the MMEL, what does an M mean next to the resolution?

A

Maintenance action required prior to flight

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What must customers use for part numbers?

A

The IPC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Where can’t crocodile clips be used for ESD grounding?

A

MAU’s and MRC’s

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What is essential for a seat belt inspection?

A

Adequate lighting

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What is to be pulled on the EBATT’s prior to maintenance or for down time of 5 days or greater?

A

CB1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

How many primary control surfaces when on EBHA power?

A

7

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Which BPCU’s control AC and DC power?

A
  • Left - AC

- Right - DC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What is the UPS battery used for?

A

Flight control system

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

When do EBATT’s kick in?

A

20V DC or less from main batteries

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

When turning main batteries off, how long should you wait before reapplying power and why?

A

2 mins for CMC shut down

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Which battery should be selected on first? EBHA or UPS?

A

EBHA prior to UPS?

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

When does the EBHA heater pad come on?

A

Below 60 degrees Fahrenheit

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Where does the ON light for the batteries get it’s signal?

A

Battery contactors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What battery is required for APU start?

A

Left main

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

How many stick shaker operations during EBHA SPOST?

A

8

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Where does the TRU overtemp discrete originate? What temp does it operate? And where does it travel on its way to CAS?

A
  • TRU itself
  • 310 degrees Fahrenheit
  • Via the DGIO to CAS
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

How is the ground service bus powered? (Three ways)

A
  • Right main DC bus
  • External DC
  • RH battery
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Where does the only RED power fail CAS message originate?

A

RAT door switch

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What can do not do with the GCU whilst the APU is running?

A

Reset or remove

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

When is RAT deployment effective?

A

Between 0.925 Mach and 172 knots

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

How is the RAT deployed? And stowed?

A
  • Stored actuator pressure

- Hand pump

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What is aircraft power system priority?

A
  • Onside
  • APU
  • External
  • Offside

Essential over main
Left over right

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

What must be ensured when stowing the rat?

A

Blade alignment lines are aligned

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Where are power tiles loaded from? And where is the information kept?

A

MCDU and RIU’s

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

To pull SSPC breakers prior to powering aircraft, what mode must you be in? And to perform SSPC data loads, what mode must you be in?

A
  • Standby
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

If overcurrent occurs from LEDC TRU, where is the power pulled from?

A

L BPCU

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Where is external DC power monitored?

A

R BPCU

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

What are the emergency batteries looking for?

A

Voltage at essential DC bus

48
Q

To close the MED with no batteries installed, what must we do?

A
  • Ext DC power cart

- Battery switches off

49
Q

To power the right essential battery bus, which contactors does power travel through?

A
  • REDXC

- REDC

50
Q

What type of bus is between the MAU and the DU?

A

Fibre (fee bray)

51
Q

What bus is between the CCD and MAU for DU operation?

A

RS 422

52
Q

What is the backup for CCD movement? What do they operate through?

A
  • SMC

- Operate through control I/O

53
Q

How do we get audio?

A
  • Analog to digital conversion at NIM through digital audio bus
  • information goes to audio control panel
  • Digital to audio conversion and sound through speaker
54
Q

How does the FDR collect data?

A

From custom I/O module on arinc 717 bus

55
Q

How long does the event record button cause the aircraft to record for?

A

100 seconds before and after event

56
Q

What are the 4 types of voice communication?

A
  • VHF
  • HF
  • Satellite
  • In flight
57
Q

How long does the CVR record for?

A

2 hours on loop

58
Q

What 4 locations does the CVR record from?

A
  • ACP 1 - 3

- Area mic

59
Q

What parameters are needed for CVR bulk erase?

A
  • WOW

- MED open

60
Q

What does RIPS provide to the CVR?

A

10 mins of power

61
Q

What does RVSM dictate?

A
  • reduction in vertical flight separation from 2000 to 1000 ft separation between FL 290 to FL 410
62
Q

TAT probes 1 and 2 are powered by which Air Data Systems?

A
  • 1 = 1

- 2 = 4

63
Q

In air data systems, if secondary channel fails, what colour CAS message do you get? If primary channel fails, what colour CAS message do you get?

A
  • Secondary - amber

- Primary - cyan

64
Q

Where does SMC receive air data from?

A

ADS 4

65
Q

Where is the satellite interface unit located?

A

Tail compartment

66
Q

Where is the Nav com module located?

A

REER mini cabinet

67
Q

Where is barometric correction made?

A

The flight guidance panel

68
Q

Why don’t we touch air data probes?

A

Get extremely hot and cause harm

69
Q

Where are the aircraft personality modules located?

A

NIC/PROC’s 1 and 4

70
Q

How many GPS systems are required for position and height?

A
  • position = 3

- height = 4

71
Q

What does WAAS (wide area augmentation system) compliance do in GPS antennas?

A

Removes errors from GPS satellites

72
Q

Where is the FMS software?

A

MAU NIC/PROC’s 2, 5, and 6

73
Q

What does EGPWS prevent?

A

CFIT (controlled flight into terrain)

74
Q

Which EGPWS function can’t be disabled?

A

Wind shear (mode 7)

75
Q

What types of wire from EVS to processor and from processor to HUD computer?

A
  • EVS to processor = fibre optic

- Processor to HUD computer = coax

76
Q

EVS sapphire window has what length heating cycle when selected?

A

2 mins

77
Q

What is unique about the EVS camera image?

A

Inverted

78
Q

What does the NUC (none uniform correction) do in the EVS system?

A

Calibration and cooling of light sensors

79
Q

What is the minimum permissible exposure distance for WX?

A

15 feet

80
Q

What type of system in the WX?

A

X band

81
Q

Where is the weather radar controlled from?

A

SMC (pilot and copilot independent)

82
Q

In the AP system, which servo does pitch and which does roll?

A
  • left = pitch

- right = roll

83
Q

In the AP system, which AIOP lane commands, and which monitors?

A
  • A = monitor

- B = command

84
Q

How often is RVSM inspected?

A

24 months

85
Q

Where is the CMC card?

A

MAU slot 11

86
Q

What does CMC do?

A

Stores all fault history

87
Q

Where is the CMC member system database?

A

LDI (loadable diagnostic information database)

88
Q

Where does the ground maintenance test switch sends a discrete to where?

A

SGIO 1 and 4

89
Q

What is CMC used for? 3 answers

A
  • testing
  • real time data
  • rigging
90
Q

How long is the CMC power up time?

A

2 mins

91
Q

Where is the ACMF (aircraft conditioning monitor function) located?

A

CMC

92
Q

Where is the auto throttle engage/disengage button located?

A

Aft side of throttle quadrant

93
Q

Where is pitch and roll manually input to AP?

A

Flight guidance panel

94
Q

If CMC is not available on DU2 but is available on DU3, what failure do you have?

A

RIB (remote image bus)

95
Q

Where is the IRU alignment data stored?

A

Configuration modules

96
Q

How is the IRS powered?

A

On switch removes the ground discrete to turn on IRU’s

97
Q

Where is the attitude heading reference system (AHRS) used?

A

For flight information on the SMC’s

98
Q

Where are the magnetometers, what are they used for, and what type of bus do they communicate on?

A
  • located in aircraft tail
  • used in the AHRS system
  • communicate on the CAN bus
99
Q

What is the primary source of altitude information?

A

RADALT between -20 and 2500 feet

100
Q

How do you recalibrate the RADALT?

A
  • press SW1 switch and watch the display go from 500ft to 0
101
Q

How do you test RADALT?

A

Use SMC and watch figure go to 50 feet

102
Q

When do you get 60hz power and why?

A

Only when something plugged in to sockets to provide ground discrete to the RIU’s. To prevent unnecessary power in oxygen rich environment

103
Q

To enable SSEC (static source error correction), what configuration must the aircraft be in?

A

Power off

104
Q

What provides the ground discrete to the APU ready light?

A

APU door fully open

105
Q

How many consecutive APU start attempts can you carry out?

A

3 then must wait an hour?

106
Q

What monitors x tie contactors?

A

Opposite side BPCU’s

107
Q

How many buses comprise the ASCB (avionics standard communication bus)?

A

4 total

  • # 1 primary and secondary
  • # 2 primary and secondary
108
Q

Cabin view is not receiving nav information. Where might our problem be?

A

The FMS maintenance data server

109
Q

What type of bus is between GCMS and the cabin components?

A

Ethernet

110
Q

If any of the TRU’s fail, what happens to cabin power?

A

Cabin power would drop off

111
Q

If the remote terminal for CMC doesn’t work, what could be the problem?

A

The incorrect CMC software version is not installed on the remote terminal

112
Q

What breakers have to be pulled to protect CMC when removing the EBATT’s?

A

MAU 1B primary and secondary

113
Q

Before pulling the CMC card from the MAU, what breaker needs to be pulled?

A

EBATT CB1

114
Q

Where would you download unsent AHTMU data from?

A

Directly from the AHTMU, via Ethernet cable into the maintenance laptop

115
Q

If the AHTMU is up and running, why might it not record?

A

Avionics standard communication bus (ASCB) not up and running yet

116
Q

What profile allows the operator to set specific settings on the aircraft?

A

The operator profile (OP)

117
Q

The crew reports a P2 and P3 fault. What could be the issue?

A

Faulty SIM card

650 (9 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions