Week 1 Flashcards

1
Q

The purpose of Pre-op

A

provide the patient with an estimate of anesthetic risk

obtain informed consent

anesthetic plan

identify patients that will have that will need additional testing or patients that are so poor condition it will cause death

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

pre-op items

A

H&P-to include- planned procedure, allergies, medications(current and past), substance abuse, responses to previous anesthesia. illness (current and past) (METs). (ASA standards). last oral intake.

consults

specific diagnostic testing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Metabolic equivalent of 4 or more

A

predicts a low risk of preoperative complications

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

ASA 1

A

a normal health patient. health, non smoking no or minimal alcohol use.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

ASA II

A

a patient with mild systemic disease

mild diseases only without substantive functional limitation. Eg smoker, social drinker, pregnancy obesity BMI 31-39. well controlled dm/htn mild lung disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

ASA III

A

a patient with severe systemic disease

substantive functional limitations; one or more moderate to severe diseases. poorly controlled dm. htn cold morbid obesity active hepatitis alcohol dependence or abuse. BMI >=40 implanted pacemaker moderate reduction of ejection fraction. ESRD undergoing scheduled dialysis. premature infant PCA <60 weeks history >3 months of MI, CVA, TIA, or CAD/stents

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

ASA IV

A

a patient with severe systemic disease that is a constant threat to life.

< 3 months MI, CVA, TIA, or CAD/Stents, ongoing cardiac ischemia or severe valve dysfunction. severe reduction of ejection fraction, sepsis, dic, ards, or esrd not undergoing regularly scheduled dialysis.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

ASA V

A

a moribund patient who is not expected to survive without a operative

examples include but are not limited to reputed abdominal thoracic aneurysm, massive trauma, intracranial bleed with mass effect, ischemic bowl in the face of significant cardiac pathology or multiple organ/system dysfunction.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

ASA VI

A

a declared brain dead patient whose organ are being removed for donor purposes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

ASA E

A

Emergency surgery - delay of the patient would lead to a significant increase in the threat to life or body part.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

1 MET=

A

3.5mlO2/min/kg of body weight.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Difficult Mask Ventilation

A
age greater than 55
BMI Greater than 26
beard
lack of teeth
OSA
previous head/neck/radiation/surgery or trauma
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Findings for difficult direct laryngoscopy

A

osa
hx difficult intubation/aspiration pna after intubation/ dental or oral trauma following intubation.
previous head/neck/radiation/surgery or trauma
obesity cervical spinal disease or surgery
congenital disease: downs syndrome teacher collins & pierre robin
inflammatory arthritic disease. rheumatoid arthritis, enclosing spondylitis, scleroderma.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Findings for difficult airway examination component

A
length of upper incisors
relationships of maxillary and mandibular incisors during normal jaw closure. 
relationship of maxillary and mandibular incisors during voluntary protrusion of mandible 
inter incisor distance
visibility of uvula
compliance of the mandibular/oral space
thyromental distance
length of neck
thickness of neck
range of motion of the head and neck
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

micrognathia

A

a short distance between the chin and the hyoid bone. prominent upper incisors, a large tongue, limited range of motion of the temporomandibular joint or cervical spine, or a short or thick neck suggest that difficulty may be encountered in direct laryngoscopy for tracheal intubation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

mallampati class1, 2, 3, 4

A

class 1 = soft palette, uvula, fauces, pillars

class 2= soft palette, uvula, fauces

class 3 = soft palette base of uvula

class 4= soft palette not visible

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

STOP-BANG

A
snoring
tiredness
observed- stop breathing
pressure
Bmi greater than 35
Age>50
N-neck
Gender male
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

when should anti platelets be held after Bare metal stent

A

1 month

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

albumin

A

anasarca, liver disease, malnutrition, malabsorption

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

b-hcg

A

suspected pregnancy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

cbc

A

alcohol abuse, anemia, dyspnea, hepatic or renal disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

consultation done

A

specific advice regarding diagnose or management of a condition in order to aid safe anesthetic planning

23
Q

when should anti platelets be held after drug eluding stent- stable

A

hold 6 months after placement

24
Q

when should anti platelets be held after drug eluding stent- unstable

A

hold 12 months after placement

25
Q

aspirin

A

continue

26
Q

urgent surgery anti platelets should be held

A

3-6 months following DES placement if delayed surgery is greater than the stent thrombosis risk

27
Q

EKG class III

A

routine preoperative resting 12 lead ECG is not useful for asymptomatic patients undergoing low risk surgical procedures

28
Q

EKG Class IIb

A

preoperative resting 12 lead egg may be considered for asymptomatic patients without known coronary heart disease

29
Q

EKG Class IIa

A

preoperative resting 12-lead egg is reasonable for patients with known coronary heart disease, significant arrhythmia, peripheral arterial disease, cva, or other significant structural heart disease, except for those undergoing low risk surgery.

30
Q

HTN

A

degree of end organ damage
morbidity and mortality
maintain BP within 20% of baseline for adequate organ perfusion.
systolic greater than 200- MI

31
Q

coronary artery disease

A

mild, stable or severe,
significant complications during anesthesia. MACE- major adverse cardiovascular events
not all patients with cad require
stable- no testing
cad- decompensated heart failure- severe valuable heart disease. new onset angina. acute coronary syndrome- further investigate
mets greater than 4- no because they have a good functional capacity.
otherwise get a consultation.

32
Q

Preoperative events that may be discussed with the patient

A
nausea vomiting
myalgia
dental injury
sore throat/hoarness
death
33
Q

DNR

A

discuss with the patient- usually dnr are resented in or

34
Q

GI issues

A

gerd is a disastrous pulmonary complication of surgical anesthesia. high risk include- pregnant women )2nd and 3rd trimester)

no LMA with gerd

35
Q

albumin

A

anasarca, lliver disease. malnutrition malabsorption

36
Q

b hcg

A

pregnancy

37
Q

cbc

A

alcohol abuse, anemia, dyspnea, hepatic or renal disease, malignancy, malnutrition. bleeding, poor exercise tolerance, recent chemo or radiation

38
Q

creatinine

A

renal disease, poorly controlled diabetes

39
Q

chest xray

A

active, acute or chronic significant pulmonary symptoms such as cough dyspnea abnormal physical findings of palpitations decompensated heart failure, malignancy with thorax, radiation therapy

40
Q

echo

A

alcohol abuse active cardiac condition severe obesity syncope amidolarone or digoxin

41
Q

electrolytes

A

alcohol abuse, cardiovascular hepatic renal or thyroid disease. malnutrition or dig or diuretics

42
Q

glucose

A

steroids and dm

43
Q

lft

A

alcohol abuse, hepatic disease, recent hepatitis undiagnosed bleeding disorder

44
Q

platelet count

A

alcohol abuse, hepatic disease, bleeding disorder hematologic malignancy recent chemo or radiation thromcytopenia

45
Q

pt

A

alcohol abuse hepatic disease malnutrition bleeding disorder warfarin

46
Q

Tsh t3t4

A

goiter thyroid disease unexplained dyspnea, fatigue, palpitations tachycardia

47
Q

ua

A

suspected UTI

48
Q

trisomony 21

A

large tongue, small mouth

49
Q

pierre robin

A

large tongue, small mouth

50
Q

goldenhar

A

hypoplasia mandibular

cervical spine immobility

51
Q

klippel feil

A

neck rigidity because of cervial vertebral fusion

52
Q

teacher collins

A

laryngoscopy difficult

53
Q

turner syndrome

A

difficulty intubation