Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

12 Week Reading > Week 1 > Flashcards

Week 1 Flashcards

1
Q

Who is responsible for establishing the routine maintenance schedule for the rig?

A

Company Commander. TB App C2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is the acceptable rate of air loss when testing the brake system?

A

Max 1 lb. per 10 minutes. Max 10 lbs. per application. TB App C2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

How long is the TL and AL emergency system tested for?

A

Max 30 seconds (weekly). TB App C2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

When checking the rig, what are the four items that are checked each tour?

A

Fuel, Belts, Lights, Air tanks. TB App C2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

You are on BI and see an FDNY ambulance that does not have the vehicle security decal on it. Who do you contact and how?

A

Borough dispatcher via mixer off message. TB App C2A2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

T/F. When vehicle security decal on apparatus becomes damaged, the apparatus shall remain in service awaiting replacement.

A

True. TB App C2A2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is the max apparatus speed after snow chains are applied?

A

Must not exceed 30 mph. TB App C2A1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

The snow chains on the rig break while out of quarters. When can officer not stop the rig to have it fixed?

A

While responding to fires or emergencies. TB App C2A1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What fire department vehicles can be recovered using the vehicle recovery strap?

A

EMS ambulances and Battalion vehicles. TB App C2A3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Is the preferred method for vehicle recovery from the front or the rear?

A

Recovery from the front. TB App C2A3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is the size of the safety zone while utilizing the vehicle recovery strap?

A

35’ TB App C2A3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

When the emergency override rotation limit switch is enabled, the device will not allow ladder rotation of more than ______ degrees from the center line of the apparatus towards the short jacked side.

A

15 degrees. TB App L7

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

T/F while pumping you always have to have either the front or rear wheels chocked.

A

False. Always rear wheels. TB App P2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Which position on the engine transfer valve is to be utilized as a standard operating procedure?

A

Volume. TB App P3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Which position on the engine transfer valve is to be utilized when head pressure must be overcome? (Standpipes)

A

Pressure. TB App P3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is pump idle pressure?

A

The pressure from pumps at lowest RPM’s plus water intake pressure from source (hydrant, other rig) TB App P3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is static pressure?

A

Pressure on intake gauge when water is not flowing. TB App P3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

When first to arrive on the first alarm, what hydrant connections may be used?

A

10’ small or 35’ soft. TB App P3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

T/F when other than first to arrive at the first alarm, you can order ECC to utilize 10’ hard suction.

A

True. Can use 10’ small, 35’ soft or 10’ hard. TB App P3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What hydrant connection must be used at drafting operations?

A

10’ hard. TB App P3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

During pumping operations, when does the ECC need to call for augmentation?

A

When residual pressure drops below 15 psi on the intake pressure gauge. TB App P3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

T/F after water is introduced to the pump, and after increasing pump pressure, the ECC must prime the pump before opening any discharge outlet.

A

False. After water is introduced, prime before increasing pump pressure and opening discharges. TB App P3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What is the formula for determining 1 3/4 line pressure?

A

50 psi at nozzle plus 20 psi per length friction loss. (Add 5 psi for each floor above grade). TB App P3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What is the formula for determining 2 1/2 line pressure?

A

40 psi at nozzle plus 5 psi per length friction loss. (Add 5 psi for each floor above grade). TB App P3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

If you need to change the position of the transfer valve, throttle the engine down first. Pump pressure gauge should read no more than _____ psi above the intake pressure gauge.

A

50 psi. TB App P3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Who does ECC notify if intake pressure drops below 15 psi?

A

Incident Commander. TB App P3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

T/F utilize the pressure position when drafting water?

A

False. Volume. TB App P3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What is the service life of an SCBA cylinder?

A

15 years. TB SCBA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

How often is the SCBA cylinder hydrostatically tested?

A

Every 5 years. TB SCBA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

The vibralert and HUD activate when approximately what percentage of full cylinder pressure remains?

A

25 % TB SCBA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

When are spare cylinders inspected?

A

Weekly on Monday. TB SCBA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

How are training cylinders identified?

A

Blue top or sleeve. TB SCBA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

The SCBA PRA normally reduces operating pressure to what psi?

A

100 psi. TB SCBA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Malfunction of the PRA primary system will cause operating pressure to be reduced to what PSI?

A

150 psi. TB SCBA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Malfunction of the PRA secondary system in the open position will reduce pressure to what PSI?

A

185 psi. Partially close cylinder valve. TB SCBA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

If the SCBA manual shut off switch is not pressed a full cylinder can be depleted in how many minutes?

A
  1. TB SCBA
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

How many holes are in the regulator spray bar?

A

Nine. TB SCBA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

How many lights are in the SCBA HUD?

A

Five. Four rectangular lights for cylinder pressure and one round red battery light. TB SCBA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Two green lights glowing in SCBA HUD.

A

Full cylinder. TB SCBA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

One greed light glowing in SCBA HUD.

A

3/4 cylinder. TB SCBA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

One yellow light flashing slowly SCBA HUD.

A

1/2 cylinder. TB SCBA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

One red light flashing rapidly SCBA HUD.

A

1/4 cylinder. TB SCBA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Face piece color sizes. Small. Comfort. Xl.

A

Small -Green
Comfort - Black
XL - Red

TB SCBA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

SCBA pre alarm begins after how many seconds?

A

20 seconds of motionless SCBA. TB SCBA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

If the SCBA is not moved during pre alarm, how many seconds until full alarm?

A

12 seconds after pre alarm starts. TB SCBA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

How many seconds from SCBA pre alarm to full alarm?

A

32 seconds. (20 to pre, 12 more to full) TB SCBA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Can you activate the manual alarm on the SCBA if the unit is not pressurized?

A

Yes. TB SCBA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

When are SCBA’s inspected?

A

Immediately after roll calls.

Immediately before start of MUD.

After each use.

TB SCBA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

T/F when a member needs to perform an emergency procedure they must give a mayday if any difficulty is encountered?

A

False. Must give mayday before attempting to free yourself.

TB SCBA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

How many blows is the emergency touch signal?

A

Four distinct blows on the shoulder then pull in specific direction. TB SCBA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

How many full pumps of isopropyl alcohol are used to clean regulator?

A

6 full pumps. TB SCBA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

How much contact time is allowed for isopropyl alcohol to disinfect regulator?

A

10 minutes. TB SCBA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

SCBA Color Code

E, L, R, HM, SQ, BC, Bat Spare, Marine, MSU Spare

A 
E- Black
L- Red
R and HM- Blue
S and BC - Yellow
Bat Spare - Orange
Marine - Green
MSU Spare - Black
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

SCBA label numbers 1-6.

A

Officer, Chauffeur N,B,C,D

Officer, Chauffeur R,O,I,C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

How long are FAST Pak hoses?

A

5’ High
20’ Low

TB SCBA A1

56
Q

In how many seconds will a high pressure hose equalize both cylinders?

A

60 seconds. TB SCBA A1

57
Q

In what two situations can Fast Pak be used on civilian?

A

IDLH removal not immediately possible.
Confined Space Rescue.

TB SCBA A1

58
Q

How many adaptors and cartridges does each unit receive?

A

Six adapters and twelve cartridges. TB SCBA A2

59
Q

CO combines with blood how many times more readily than oxygen?

A

210 TB SCBA A3

60
Q

A concentration of hydrogen cyanide is fatal at what level?

A

270 ppm. TB SCBA A3

61
Q

Acrolein begins to irritate at less than what level?

A

Less than 10 ppm. TB SCBA A3

62
Q

HCL is colorless but has what odor?

A

Pungent odor. TB SCBA A3

63
Q

Phosgene is tasteless and odorless at first but at 6 ppm has what smell?

A

Musty hay. TB SCBA A3

64
Q

Members submitting paperwork for corrective lens kit must have prescription less than what time?

A

Less than one year old. TB SCBA A7

65
Q

What is the max range of the Pak tracker?

A

900’ line of sight. TB SCBA A8

66
Q

Once Pak tracker receives alarm signal who is notified?

A

Fast Officer notifies IC. Fast Officer attempts to notify member. If for emergency or no contact give mayday to IC. TB SCBA A8

67
Q

How many seconds of SCBA full alarm for it to register on Pak tracker?

A

Full alarm for ten seconds. TB SCBA A8

68
Q

T/F Pak tracker can lock onto two SCBA’s at the same time?

A

False. Only one at a time. TB SCBA A8

69
Q

How do you hold Pak tracker to begin searching?

A

Waist height top of unit towards target. TB SCBA A8

70
Q

At what signal strength do the Pak tracker lights illuminate?

A

Above 50%. TB SCBA

71
Q

When sweeping with Pak Tracker how many seconds do you pause for?

A

3-4 seconds. TB SCBA A8

72
Q

Signal from Pak tracker will usually pass through what?

A

Glass, light building materials, openings, wood. TB SCBA A8

73
Q

Max characters displayed on Pak tracker?

A
  1. TB SCBA A8
74
Q

Who verifies apparatus door is fully opened before moving the apparatus?

A

Chauffeur, Officer, and member assigned to open the door. Regs 11

75
Q

When turning corners no apparatus shall be driven in excess of what speed?

A

15 mph. Regs 11

76
Q

The officer in command can turn a premises over to whom?

A

POOR. PD, Occupant, Owner, Responsible Person. Regs 11

77
Q

At a car fire (other than ADV or 41-3), what information is necessary to give to dispatcher?

A

MMLL, Make, Model, License Plate, Location. Regs 11

78
Q

If it is alleged that property has been taken by a Fire Department employee, who is notified?

A

The IG. If 10-41 notify BFI as well. Regs 11

79
Q

Your ladder company is ordered to the roof of building (2nd alarm or greater). What is brought tot he roof?

A

HULL. Hose roller, Utility rope, Life rope, Life belt. Regs 11

80
Q

When checking into the Command Post how far away do you keep the men?

A

At least 25’. Regs 11

81
Q

You know that several units on the 10-66 respond into the command post. Which ones?

A

Rescue, Squad, SOC Support Ladder, FAST and CFR Engine. Regs 11

82
Q

What is the focal point to identify the staging area?

A

The staging area manager vehicle. Regs 11

83
Q

Member is receiving CPR or rescue breathing. Who do you notify?

A

EMS, Department unit with O2, Medical Officer. Regs 11

84
Q

What is the proper angle to adjust the ladder pipe?

A

Distance between tip of ladder and center of turntable is 15-25’ (70-80 degree angle). Regs 11

85
Q

When DOI, Testing Unit or BITS enters quarters, is any notification made to the men?

A

Not unless directed to do so by those personnel. Regs 20

86
Q

Do BITS or Testing Unit have to sign in?

A

No, they can use their ID number instead. Regs 20

87
Q

Are units in service or OOS for EEO inspections?

A

In service. Regs 20

88
Q

Children under what year of age are not permitted to enter quarters without parent?

A

Under 15. Regs 20

89
Q

In general the siren shall be operated in what mode, switched to _____ when encountering heavy traffic or approaching an intersection.

A

Wail mode, Yelp. Safety 1

90
Q

What is the effective range and speed of the siren?

A

125’ at 30 mph. Safety 1

91
Q

What are the three ways the officer can direct member to notify dispatcher of fire or emergency in quarters?

A

Telephone, voice alarm, street box. Safety 61

92
Q

When is the EAP for quarters reviewed?

A

Initially when developed, changed, new personnel, quarterly. Safety 61

93
Q

What is the height of a speed hump?

A

3-4” Safety 76

94
Q

How are concrete reducers striped?

A

According to receding lines design. Safety 76

95
Q

How are asphalt reducers striped?

A

Chevron design. Safety 76

96
Q

What is advise speed for 3 and 4 inch speed humps?

A

15 for 4 and 20 for 3. Safety 76

97
Q

Can the protective hood be worn wet?

A

Yes. Dry, damp or saturated with moisture. Safety 83

98
Q

What do you wash the protective hood in?

A

Lukewarm water and liquid detergent. Safety 83

99
Q

T/F If you feel discomfort through the protective hood you must leave the area unless it can be immediately cooled by a hoseline or can.

A

False. Only hoseline. Safety 83

100
Q

T/F As the OOD you can order these cowards into the fire area without a hood.

A

True. If spare hood is not available instruct member to put earflaps down and coat collar up secured by neck strap. Safety 83

101
Q

How much water should you initially drink, then how much?

A

20 oz initially, then 6-8 oz every 15 minutes. Safety 87

102
Q

Page 500 running backwards is for what entry?

A

Chief visits. Co Jo.

103
Q

Page 497-495 is for what entry?

A

Drill. Co Jo.

104
Q

Page 494 and back is for what entry?

A

MSU and Chiefs. Co Jo.

105
Q

Flagging column is how wide and to what side of red line.

A

3/8” to left of existing line. Co Jo.

106
Q

Flagging Column - ACC

A

Accident

107
Q

Flagging Column - AFID

A

AFID

108
Q

Flagging Column - CV

A

Chief Visit.

109
Q

Flagging Column - CM

A

Cleaning and Maintenance

110
Q

Flagging Column - Com

A

Complaint

111
Q

Flagging Column - DF

A

Diesel Fuel

112
Q

Flagging Column - DSP

A

Discipline

113
Q

Flagging Column - EE

A

Entries Examined

114
Q

Flagging Column - EI

A

Exchanged information

115
Q

Flagging Column - F

A

Heating Fuel

116
Q

Flagging Column - Inj

A

Injuries.

117
Q

Flagging Column - LV

A

Leaves starting other than roll call

118
Q

Flagging Column - MSK

A

Mask Inspection

119
Q

Flagging Column - MESS

A

Messenger

120
Q

Flagging Column - OM

A

Omitted

121
Q

Flagging Column - PR

A

Property

122
Q

Flagging Column - OT

A

Overtime

123
Q

Flagging Column - RPR

A

Repairs

124
Q

Flagging Column - RXD

A

Scheduled to report or be relieved.

125
Q

Flagging Column - SP

A

Special entry

126
Q

Flagging Column - SI

A

Surveillance Inspection

127
Q

Flagging Column - VIS

A

Visit by non member

128
Q

What does officer do when he suspects AUC 202 has been violated?

A 
Prohibit anyone from leaving. 
Relieve on duty members from responding. 
Unit OOS. 
Notify admin BC. 
Notify BITS. 
CO JO mark. AUC 202
129
Q

What is the most significant change noted as a possible indication of alcohol or drug abuse?

A

Change in a persons pattern of behavior. AUC 202 A2

130
Q

What does wearing an SCBA mean?

A

Having it on your back with facepiece in standby position. AUC 220

131
Q

What does using an SCBA mean?

A

Facepiece on with regulator donned. AUC 220

132
Q

What are the two instances members can remove SCBA regulator in smoke or toxic environment?

A

Cylinder depleted, SCBA malfunctioning as to cut off air supply. AUC 220

133
Q

When does officer on duty initial and date proby notebook?

A

When subject matter has been reviewed or drilled on. AUC 323

134
Q

When does company commander initial and date proby notebook?

A

Once a month. AUC 323

135
Q

Who can remove the PR prefix from the proby name?

A

Company commander, when granted tenure on department order. AUC 346

12 Week Reading (12 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions