Week 1 Flashcards

1
Q

which gender gets infective endocarditis more

A

male

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2
Q

most common bacterial cause of infective endocarditis

A

streptococcus viridans

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3
Q

what is infective endocarditis

A

inflammation of the endocardium due to bacterial colonisation, commonly on valves with vegetation

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4
Q

why are valves more prone to bacterial colonisation

A

poor blood supply

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5
Q

which valve is most prone to infective endocarditis

A

mitral valve

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6
Q

who gets right sided infective endocarditis

A

IVDU

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7
Q

3 most common bacterial causes of infective endocarditis

A

streptococcus viridans
strptococcus faecalis
staph aureus

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8
Q

who are more prone to getting infective endocarditis caused by the HACEK organisms

A

IVDU
poor dental hygiene
pre-existing valvular disease

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9
Q

what fungal causes of infective endocarditis are there

A

candida albicans

aspergillus

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10
Q

what are 4 bacterial causes of infective endocarditis that will not culture

A

mycoplasma
brucella
legionella
chalmydia

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11
Q

risk factors of infective endocarditis

A
immunocompromised
artificial heart valves
valvular conditions
hx of infective endocarditis
IVDU
people at risk of bacteraemia
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12
Q

why is prior dental procedure a risk factor for infective endocarditis

A

because streptococcus viridans lives in the mouth and throat and procedures can cause skin punctures and introduction of bacteria into the blood

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13
Q

systemic symptoms of infective endocarditis

A
fever
flu like illness
night sweats
rigors
weight loss
malaise 
fatigue
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14
Q

signs of infective endocarditis

A

murmur
finger clubbing
splenomegaly

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15
Q

what does FROM JANE stand for

A

Fever
Roth’s spots
Osler’s Nodes
Murmur

Janeway lesions
Anaemia
Nail haemorrhages
Embolus

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16
Q

what 2 types of symptoms are found in infective endocarditis

A

vasculitic symptoms and immunologic symptoms

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17
Q

describe janeway lesions and oslers nodes

A

oslers nodes are painful, found on finger and toes

janeway lesions are not painful, found on palms and soles of feet

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18
Q

why is haematuria a sign of infective endocarditis

A

immunologic symptom of infective endocarditis causing glomerulonephritis

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19
Q

investigations of infective endocarditis

A

ECG, urine dipstick
Bloods and culture
imaging - CXR and ECHO

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20
Q

how should blood cultures be taken in infective endocarditis

A

3 cultures 6 hours apart

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21
Q

what is the diagnostic requirement for Dukes criteria

A

2 major
1 major 3 minor
5 minor

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22
Q

what are the major criteria in dukes criteria

A

blood culture findings

echo findings

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23
Q

what are the minor criteria in dukes criteria

A
Fever
Echo findings (not major)
Vasculitic symptoms
Evidence from microbiology
Risk factors
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24
Q

important questions to ask in suspected malaria case

A

travel history
malaria prophylaxis compliance
past history of malaria

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25
Q

symptoms of malaria

A
fever
night sweats
rigors
headache
fatigue
splenomegaly
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26
Q

complications of malaria

A
renal dysfunction
iron deficiency
hypoglycaemia
hypotension
jaundice
hepatosplonomegaly
shock
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27
Q

difference between thick and thin blood films in malaria investigation

A

thick tells you if there is a parasite

thin tells you the species

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28
Q

ABCD of malaria prevention

A

awareness
bite prevention
chemoprophylaxis
Diagnosis

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29
Q

what are some typical malarial chemoprophylaxis

A

doxycyline
chloroquine
malarone

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30
Q

treatment for malaria

A

quinine
doxycycline
artemisinin combination therapy

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31
Q

what is dengue fever caused by

A

Flavivirus - RNA virus with 5 subtypes

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32
Q

which mosquito transmits malaria

A

anopheles

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33
Q

which mosquito transmits dengue

A

aedes egptyi

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34
Q

what time of the day are the malaria and dengue mosquitoes most active

A

malaria - morning/night

dengue - day time

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35
Q

symptoms of dengue fever

A
fever
rash 
arthralgia
retroorbital pain
photophobia
lymphadenopathy
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36
Q

what can dengue fever progress to

A

dengue haemorrhagic fever or dengue shock syndrome

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37
Q

treatment for dengue fever

A

supportive, fluids, blood

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38
Q

causative organism of typhoid?

A

salmonella typhii

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39
Q

transmission route of typhid

A

faecal oral, food

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40
Q

most common areas in the world affected by typhoid

A

india, SEA, africa

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41
Q

clinical features of typhoid

A

malaise, aches, anorexia
abdominal pain
bloody diarrhea
rashes

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42
Q

FBC features of typhoid

A

neutrophillia, leukopaenia, thrombocytopaenia

43
Q

typhoid can be a chronic carrier status - T or F

A

true - treat with 28 days ciprofloxacin

44
Q

5 ‘P’s of sexual history taking

A
sexual practices
partners
past sti history
protection
pregnancy
45
Q

when to examine a person with suspected STI

A

only if symptomatic

46
Q

what position should a female be in an STI examination

A

lithotomy position

47
Q

4 major complaints of STI presentations

A

urethritis/discharge
ulcers
lumps and bumps
vaginal discharge

48
Q

what STIs can cause urethritis

A
gonorrhea
chlamydia
HSV
trichomonas vaginalis
mycoplasma genitalium
49
Q

what is the 2nd most common STI in UK

50
Q

which group of the population have the highest incidence of gonorrhea

A

males 20-24

51
Q

clinical features of gonorrhea

A
purulent discharge
urethritis
inflammation at contact point depending on sexual practice
systemic sysmptoms (fever sweats)
52
Q

2 possible male complications of gonorrhea

A

epididymo-orchitis

prostatits

53
Q

2 possible female complications of gonorrhea

A

PID

bartholinits

54
Q

what can neonates get in vertical gonorrhea infections

A

gonococcal conjunctivities

55
Q

investigation of gonorrhea

A

microscopy

blood cultures

56
Q

what would gonorrhea look like on a microscope

A

gram negative intracellular diplococci

57
Q

there is only 1 strain of chlamydia - T or F

A

F

serotypes D-K are most common of chlamydial STIs

58
Q

most chlamydia infections are asymptomatic - T or F

59
Q

clinical features of chlamydia

A

urethritis
cervicitis
proctitis

60
Q

what STIs can cause genital ulceration

A

HSV
sphillis
scabies
tropical STIs like chancroid LGV

61
Q

where does HSV1 and HSV2 usually infect

A

HSV1 usually mouth

HSV2 usually genitals

62
Q

which group of the population have the highest rates of HSV infections

A

females 20-24

63
Q

stages of HSV STI

A

primary infection
latent phase
reactivation

64
Q

how does primary infection of HSV present

A

itchy, painful ulcerate genitalia
vesicles
regional painful lymphadenopathy
systemic features - fever, headache myalgia

65
Q

where does the HS virus remain latent

A

dorsal ganglia

66
Q

how does HSV reactivation look like

A

genital cold sores

67
Q

how to diagnosis HSV STI

A

clinical appearance

68
Q

blood tests are useful in HSV investigation - T or F

A

F - many people are asymptomatic carriers

69
Q

treatment for HSV STI

70
Q

which strains of HPV are most responsible for genital warts

71
Q

how does HPV warts look like

A

painless genital warts

72
Q

what is the primary causative organism of bacterial vaginosis

A

gardenerella vaginalis

73
Q

which 2 groups of females are more prone to bacterial vaginalis

A

IUCD and WSW

74
Q

symptoms of bacterial vaginalis

A

discharge

foul smelling - like fish

75
Q

describe the discharge in bacterial vaginalis

A

thin, homogenous grey vaginal discharge (NOT purulent)

76
Q

how to diagnose bacterial vaginosis

A

wet film, gram smear

look for clue cells and mixed flora

77
Q

symptoms of candidiasis

A

itchy, dry yeasty smell vaginal discharge

78
Q

microscopy features of candidiasis

A

spores and pseudohyphae

79
Q

what causes trichomoniasis

A

bacteria - trichomoniasis vaginalis

80
Q

symptoms of trichominiasis

A

offensive vaginal discharge - green or yellow

81
Q

microscopy features of trichomoniasis

A

motile trichomonads

82
Q

what route is hepatitis A spread by

A

faecal oral

83
Q

symptoms of hepatitis A

A

systemic - fever, malaise, ruq pain, anorexia, arthralgia

jaundice

84
Q

complications of hepatitis A

A

fuliminant liver failuer

encephalopathy

85
Q

investigations of hepatitis A

A
FBC - lymphocytic
LFTs - hepatitic piture
Clotting - raised PT
Bilirubin - raised if jaundiced
ESR: raised
86
Q

which viral hepatitis infections have vaccines

A

Hep A and B

87
Q

transmission of hepatitis B via?

A

blood, bodily fluids

88
Q

symptoms of Hepatitis B

A

generalised malaise, arthralgia, anorexia, mild fever, RUQ pain, jaundice

89
Q

what are the different possibilities after infection with Hepatitis B virus

A
active infection
resolution
chronic hepatits B infection
fulminant liver failure
hepatocellular carcinoma
90
Q

which blood protein is sensitive for hepatocellular carcinoma

A

alpha-fetoprotein

91
Q

6 types of serological markers in hepatitis B

A
HBsAg
HBeAG
antiHB C IgM
antiHB C IgG
HBe AB
HBs AB
92
Q

serological markers in hepatitis B of

active infection

A

HBs Ag
HBe Ag
HBC IgM
HBV DNA

93
Q

serological markers in hepatitis B of

chronic infection

A

HBs Ag
HBe Ag
HBC IgG
HBV DNA

94
Q

serological markers in hepatitis B of

resolved infection

A

Anti HBs Ab
Anti HBc IgG
Anti HBe Ab

-ve HBV DNA

95
Q

serological markers in hepatitis B of

immunity from vaccination

A

anti HBs Ab

96
Q

which hepatitis B serological marker is a sign of infectivity

97
Q

how does hepatitis D happen

A

co-infection (same time) or superinfection (after) with hepatitis B

98
Q

which is worse with hepatitis D co infection or superinfection?

A

superinfection

99
Q

what risk is increased in hepatitis D superinfection

A

liver cirrhosis, failure and HCC

100
Q

there is a vaccine for hepatitis C T or F?

101
Q

most hepatitis C cases resolve within a month and never appear again - T or F

A

False- 75% of acute cases become chronic

102
Q

hepatitis C or B which is more likely to cause cirrhosis and HCC

103
Q

why is hep C more likely to cause long term damage?

A

because it can exist for decades before becoming detectable