Week 1 Flashcards

1
Q

commonest benign bone tumour

A

osteochondroma

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2
Q

what do osteochondroma consist of

A

bony outgrowth on the external surface with a cartilaginous cap

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3
Q

sign/symptoms of osteochondroma

A

local pain

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4
Q

what is an enchondroma

A

intramedullary and usually metaphyseal cartilaginous tumour caused by failure of normal enchondral ossification at the growth plate.

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5
Q

how does an enchondroma appear

A

lesion usually lucent
can undergo mineralisation with a patchy sclerotic appearance
weaken the bone resulting in fracture

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6
Q

features of enchondroma

A

many are indcidental findings

can occur on femur, humerus, tibia and small bones of hand and feet

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7
Q

what is a simple bony cyst

A

single cavity benign fluid filled cyst in bone

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8
Q

where a simple bony cysts seen

A

in long bones and in talus or calcaneus

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9
Q

features of simple bony cyst

A

asymptomatic
incidental finding
weakness can lead to fracture

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10
Q

how are simple bony cysts and enchondroma treated

A

curettage

bone grafting

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11
Q

what is an aneurysmal bone cyst

A

lots of chambers which are filled with blood or serum

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12
Q

where can aneurysmal bony cysts occurs

A

metaphyses of many different long bones, flat bones (ribs, skull) and vertebral bodies

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13
Q

signs/symptoms of aneurysmal bony cysts

A

locally aggressive causing cortical expansion and destruction
painful

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14
Q

where do giant cell tumours affect

A

epiphysis and can extend to the subchondral bone

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15
Q

where are GCTs commonly found

A

knee
distal radius
pelvis
spine

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16
Q

signs/symptoms of GCT

A

painful
can cause pathological fracture
consists of multi-nucleate giant cells
x-ray ‘soap bubble’ sign

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17
Q

what is fibrous dysplasia

A

disease of bone where a genetic mutation results in lesions of fibrous tissue and immature bone.

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18
Q

features of fibrous dysplasia

A

can be mono or polyostotic
causes angular deformities
affected bone is wider with thinner cortices
stress fractures can occur

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19
Q

what does Extensive involvement of the proximal femur in fibrous dysplasia cause

A

shepherd’s crook deformity

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20
Q

what is an osteoid osteoma

A

small nidus of immature bone surrounded by an intense sclerotic halo.
occur in teens

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21
Q

where do osteoid osteoma occur

A

proximal femur, the diaphysis of long bones and the vertebrae

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22
Q

symptoms/signs of osteoid osteoma

A

intense constant pain, worse at night due to the intense inflammatory response

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23
Q

what is the most common malignant bone tumour, who and where does it most commonly affect

A

osteosarcoma
younger age groups
knee

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24
Q

what can prolonged survival in osteosarcomas

A

radiotherapy then chemotherapy

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25
Q

what is a chondrosarcoma

A

cartilage producing primary bone tumour

tends to occur in older age groups

26
Q

features of chondrosarcoma

A

very large, slow to metastasise

found in pelvis or proximal femur

27
Q

what is Ewing’s sarcoma

A

tumour of primative cells in the marrow
poorest prognosis
occur between 10-20 y/o

28
Q

what is Ewing’s sarcoma associated with and what is it sensitive to

A

associated with fever, raised inflammatory markers and a warm swelling
radio and chemo sensitive

29
Q

treatment of ES

A

surgery to remove the tumour and surrounding tissue to reduce the risk of recurrence
amputations common

30
Q

what do breast cancer mets appear as

A

blastic (sclerotic) or lytic

31
Q

what do prostate cancer mets appear as

A

sclerotic

32
Q

what do lung cancer mets appear as

A

lytic bony metastases

33
Q

what do renal cancer mets appear as

A

large and very vascular lytic “blow out” bony metastases

34
Q

what are features that suggest benign soft tissue neoplasm

A

smaller size, fluctuation in size (malignant tumours don’t regress in size), cystic lesions, well‐defined lesions, fluid filled lesions and soft / fatty lesions

35
Q

what are features that suggest malignant soft tissue neoplasm

A

larger lesions (>5cm), rapid growth in size, a solid lesion, an ill‐defined lesion, an irregular surface, associated lymphadenopathy and systemic upset (weight loss, loss of apetite, fatigue).

36
Q

first line investigation for suspicious swelling

A

MRI

37
Q

what is the commonest benign soft tissue swelling

A

lipoma - neoplastic proliferation of fat

large but may not be well defines

38
Q

where do ganglion cysts occur

A

around a synovial joint or a synovial tendon sheath

may form as a result of herniation or out‐pouching of a weak portion of joint capsule or tendon sheath

39
Q

features of ganglion cysts

A

well‐defined, may be quite firm and readily transilluminate

can be excised but don’t need to be

40
Q

what is bursitis

A

inflammation of bursa around a joint

41
Q

what causes bursitis

A

repeated pressure or trauma

may present as a soft tissue swelling

42
Q

what causes a burial abscess

A

bacterial infection

43
Q

what is AVN

A

ischaemic necrosis of bone

44
Q

what are causes of AVN

A
idiopathic
alcohol/steroid abuse
thrombophilia
sickle cell disease 
antiphospholipid deficiency in SLE
45
Q

AVN can cause secondary osteoarthritis - true or false

A

true

46
Q

what is osteoporosis characterised by

A

reduced bone mineral density and increased porosity

i.e. bone is of normal quality there is just not enough of it

47
Q

what does WHO define osteoporosis as

A

bone mineral density less than 2.5 standard deviations below the mean peak value of young adults of the same race and sex

48
Q

what is osteopenia

A

intermediate stage where bone mineral density is between 1 to 2.5 standard deviations below mean peak value

49
Q

risk factors for osteoporosis

A
menopause
smoking
alcohol abuse
lack of exercise 
poor diet
50
Q

how is bone disease diagnosed

A

DEXA scan

51
Q

what are the serum calcium and phosphate levels in osteoporosis

A

normal

52
Q

Tx for osteoporosis

A

Calcium and vitamin D supplements
Bisphosphonates

HRT - last line

53
Q

what is osteomalacia

A

abnormal softening of the bone due to deficient mineralization of osteoid (immature bone) secondary to inadequate amounts of calcium and phosphorus

54
Q

what is osteomalacia called in children

A

Rickets

55
Q

what is the two primary causes of osteomalacia/rickets (biochemistry)

A

1 - insufficient calcium absorption from the intestine because of lack of dietary calcium or a deficiency of or resistance to the action of vitamin D

2 - or phosphate deficiency caused by increased renal losses.

56
Q

what are diseases/conditions that cause osteomalacia/rickets

A
malnutrition 
malabsorption 
lack of sunlight exposure
hypophosphateamia (alcohol abuse)
CKD
57
Q

Sx of osteomalacia/rickets

A

Bone pain
Deformities of soft bones
Sustain fractures easily
Sx of hypocalcaemia (e.g. paraesthesiae, muscle cramps, irritability, fatigue, seizures, brittle nails)

58
Q

what is seen on x-rays of osteomalacia

A

pseudofractures e.g. Looser’s zones

59
Q

biochemistry results of osteomalacia

A

low calcium
low serum phosphate
high serum alkaline phosphatase.

60
Q

Tx of osteomalacia

A

vitamin D therapy with calcium and phosphate supplementation

61
Q

biochemistry of primary hyperparathyroidism

A

Serum PTH is usually elevated Calcium is high.

Phosphate is normal or low

62
Q

what is secondary hyperparathyroidism

A

overproduction of PTH secondary to hypocalcaemia usually caused by vitamin D deficiency or CKD