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Nur 111 > Week 1-3 > Flashcards

Week 1-3 Flashcards

1
Q

Basic Unit of Measure in the metric system

A

liter
gram
meter

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2
Q

how many mililiters are in 1 liter

A

1000 mililiter

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3
Q

household system of measurement for volume

A

teaspoon
tablespoon
cups

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4
Q

household sytem of measure for weight

A

ounces
pounds

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5
Q

household system of measure uses for length

A

inches
feet
yards

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6
Q

doses less than a teaspoon use what?

A

needleless syringe instead of measuring cup

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7
Q

smallest household measure

A

drop (gtt)

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8
Q

how many teaspoon in a tablspoon?

A

3 teaspoon equals a tablespoon

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9
Q

how many tablespoon in 1 ounce

A

2 tablespoon

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10
Q

1 teaspoon is how many milliliter?

A

5mL

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11
Q

1 tbs is how many mL

A

15mL

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12
Q

1 oz is how many mL?

A

30 mL

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13
Q

1 cup is how many oz?

A

8 oz

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14
Q

8 oz is how many mL?

A

240 mL

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15
Q

1 pt is how many cup?

A

2 cups

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16
Q

1 Pt is how many mL?

A

500mL

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17
Q

1 quart is how many cups?

A

4 cups

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18
Q

1 quart is how many oz?

A

32 oz

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19
Q

1 quart is how many mL?

A

1000 mL

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20
Q

1 pound is how many oz?

A

16 oz

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21
Q

1 foot is how many inches?

A

12 inches

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22
Q

how many cm in 1 inch?

A

2.54 cm

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23
Q

how many feet and inches in 1 yd

A

3 feet or 36 inches

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24
Q

What type of data would the nurse be collect when completeing a physical examinition?

A

objective

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25
Q

Which information would a nurse collect while performing a health history?

A

medication

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26
Q

Which criterion would the nurse use to determine the skills needed to complete a health assessment?

A

clinical practice area

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27
Q

In which part of the health history would the nurse document information about a patient’s hospitalizations?

A

previous illness

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28
Q

In which section of the health history would the nurse document that a patient’s mother had breast cancer?

A

family history

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29
Q

normal oral temperature in Fahrenheit

A

96.8 to 99.5

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30
Q

Which type of data would the nurse collect when completing the health history?

A

subjective

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31
Q

Which action would the nurse take after collecting and documenting health assessment data?

A

cluster the data

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32
Q

Which component would the nurse identify as essential to healthcare?

A

health promotion

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33
Q

At which time would the nurse consider health promotion actions for a patient?

A

during the health assessment

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34
Q

which step is first in clinical reasoning?

A

assessment what has been learned from the patient

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35
Q

Since healthcare providers’ feeling, attitudes, and values can be strong enough to affect clinical decision-making, it is important that healthcare providers know themselves and regularly engage in which activity?

A

critical reflection

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36
Q

At which time would a nurse document health assessment data?

A

at time of the encounter

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37
Q

Which information would the nurse identify as the legal permanent record of a patient’s health status?

A

health record

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38
Q

Which core skill would the nurse use to examine a patient’s skin?

A

inspection

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39
Q

for which reason would the nurse analyze collected data?

A

identify expected and abnormal findings

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40
Q

Which time would the nurse update a patient’s problem list?

A

when a problem resolves

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41
Q

During which time frame in nursing history did Dorothea Dix organize military hospitals and head the US Sanitary Commission?

A

19th century

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42
Q

Which major contribution did Hippocrates make toward the evolution of medicine and health care?

A

Was the first to attribute disease to natural causes rather than supernatural causes and curses of the gods

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43
Q

Which elements are included in the ANA standards of professional performance?

A

ethics
collaborations
quality of practice
resource utilization

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44
Q

Which nursing roles are inherent roles?

A

change nurse
patient advocate

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45
Q

Which contemporary nursing role is one of the fastest-growing specialties in the 21st century?

A

forensic nurse

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46
Q

A dean in a college of nursing is trying to inspire a faculty member to obtain a terminal degree. Which nursing role does this action represent?

A

leader

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47
Q

what was contributed during the middle ages

A

care provided based on sanctity of human life

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48
Q

what was contributed during early civilization

A

advance hygiene and sanitation practices

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49
Q

what was contributed during the early 20th century?

A

American Journal of Nursing was established

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50
Q

what was contributed during the Renaissance period?

A

women were recruited for Sisters of Charity

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51
Q

Which 19th century nurse used her extensive knowledge in tropical medicine to treat patients during the cholera epidemic in the 1850s?

A

Mary Seacole

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52
Q

Which organization’s definition of nursing includes the autonomous role of nurses?

A

International Council of nurses (ICN)

discussed nursing roles including promoting safe environment, participation in research, and participating in shaping health policy and education

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53
Q

Which role do nurses serve?

A

care provider
educator
researcher

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54
Q

Which role describe how nurses function to ensure that members of the healthcare team work together to accomplish a common goal?

A

collaborator

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55
Q

A charge nurse is authorized to make changes in the number of staff members who work a shift. Within which nursing role is the charge nurse functioning?

A

manager

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56
Q

Which roles is the nurse demonstrating when recognizing a problem and collecting data to sufficiently support the need for policy updates?

A

researcher and change agent

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57
Q

During which time frame in nursing history did Dorothea Dix organize military hospitals and head the US Sanitary Commission?

A

19th century

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58
Q

Which major contribution did Hippocrates make toward the evolution of medicine and health care?

A

Was the first to attribute disease to natural causes rather than supernatural causes and curses of the gods

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59
Q

altruism

A

engaging in selfless acts

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60
Q

which term describes how nurses engage in selfless act

A

altruism

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61
Q

competence

A

the ability of the nurses to demonstrate skills accurately in nursing

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62
Q

autonomy

A

the ability of the nurse to function independently

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63
Q

which criteria establish nursing as a profession

A

licensure
specialized body of knowledge
higher education

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64
Q

which nursing action demonstrate accountability

A

accepting responsibility for decisions

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65
Q

Which entity publishes and updates the Standards of Nursing Practice focusing on quality care?

A

American Nursing Association (ANA)

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66
Q

Which document is best for the nurse to consult to ensure that the standards of right and wrong behavior and decisions are followed for the delivery of quality patient care?

A

ANA code of ethics

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67
Q

Which elements are defined by state nurse practice acts for nurses residing or working in that state?

A

scope of practice
legal practice limit

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68
Q

Which strategy can be utilized by a nurse to ease the transition from student to professional nurse?

A

acquiring a mentor

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69
Q

Which one of Benner’s nursing proficiency levels includes being able to begin to see situations more holistically?

A

competent

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70
Q

A new graduate nurse attending a hospital’s orientation session is an example of which process?

A

socialization

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71
Q

Which nursing action demonstrates the concept of autonomy?

A

making independent decision

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72
Q

Which group can a nurse join to gain support and encourage high standards within the nursing profession?

A

professional organization

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73
Q

Which action is consistent with the purpose of addressing diversity in nursing practice?

A

demonstrating cultural competence

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74
Q

Which document is best for the nurse to consult when making decisions about nursing practice or conduct?

A

code of ethics for nurses

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75
Q

Which values does the ANA Code of Ethics for Nurses address?

A

improving the environment
patient advocacy
commitment to others

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76
Q

Resource ultilization

A

considers factors related to safety, effectiveness, cost, and impact on practice in the planning and delivery of nursing services

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77
Q

which degree are considered terminal degree in nursing

A

DNP- doctor of nursing practice
DNS - doctor of nursing science
PhD - doctor of philosphy

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78
Q

Which roles require preparation with a master’s degree in nursing (MSN) but involve indirect or no direct patient care?

A

nursing educator

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79
Q

Which actions are considered requirements or core competencies for the APRN?

A

expert coaching and guidance
direct clinical practice
ethical decision making

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80
Q

According to Benner’s Novice to Expert Model, a nurse who interprets nuances and perceives deviations from normal is at which level of clinical nursing practice?

A

proficient

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81
Q

Which actions would the new nurse recognize as self-care behaviors that can ease the transition from a student to a nursing professional?

A

engaging in physical activity
practice mindfulness
eating healthy food
reducing stress

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82
Q

Which statement may be expressed by a nurse experiencing the recovery phase of Reality Shock?

A

“I’ll start my charting around 1:30 so that I will be finished by the end of my shift.”

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83
Q

Which statement made by the novice nurse, who is learning about drug calculations from the nurse, requires correction?

A

“When I change larger units to smaller units, I will move the decimal to the left.”

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84
Q

To which number would the nurse round a liquid medication?

A

Nearest 10th

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85
Q

Which medicaiton type would the nurse refrain from splitting?

A

capsule
enteric-coated tablets
controlled-released tablets
sustained-release table
extended-release tablets

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86
Q

Which action would the nurse perform to ensure patient safety when administering a continuous intravenous (IV) heparin infusion?

A

verify the label dosage strength

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87
Q

Which syringe would be used to administer U-100 insulin?

A

U-100 insulin syringe

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88
Q

Which action(s) would the nurse perform to prevent injury from infiltration when administering IV fluid of 0.9% normal saline (NS) to a patient with dehydration? Select all that apply. One, some, or all response may be correct.

A

Assess the IV insertion site
Prevent IV Tubing kinks
Monitor the electronic infusion pump
Avoid taking blood pressure on the arm with the IV line

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89
Q

Which intervention(s) by the nurse would help a patient achieve pain relief if the patient is using the patient-controlled analgesia method? Select all that apply. One, some, or all responses may be correct.

A

Instruct the patient about the use of a control button
Instruct the patient to report any side effects
Advise the patient about the safety features of the pump.

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90
Q

Where will the generic name of a medication appear on a drug label?

A

directly under the brand name

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91
Q

Which are the identifiers for a medication’s trade name on a drug label?

A

capitalized
registered
trademark

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92
Q

Why are the bar codes located on medication labels useful in the clinical environment?

A

They identify the drug in the medication distribution system.

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93
Q

CR

A

controlled release

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94
Q

DS

A

double strength

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95
Q

EC

A

enteric coated

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96
Q

ER

A

extended release

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97
Q

ER

A

extended release

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98
Q

LA

A

long acting

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99
Q

SR

A

sustained release

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100
Q

XL

A

long acting

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101
Q

Why do some drug labels list only a generic name, instead of a trade name along with its generic name?

A

the medication’s generic name is official name

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102
Q

Which nursing action is appropriate to determine if a drug recall affects a medication administered in the hospital?

A

check the lot number or control number on the drug label

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103
Q

Which method is best for measuring the temperature of a critically ill patient who is catheterized?

A

thermistor port temparture

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104
Q

Over which regions is the pulse rate palpated?

A

carotid
radial
popliteal
femoral

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105
Q

what is the maximum normal pulse rate

A

100 beats per minute

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106
Q

what is considered bradycardic

A

less than 60 beats per minute

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107
Q

The nurse should measure respiratory rate immediately after measuring which vital sign?

A

pulse rate

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108
Q

normal respiration for adults

A

12-20 breaths

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109
Q

what is blood pressure

A

measure peripheral functions of cardiac system

force of blood against artery wall during contractions and relaxation of ventricles

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110
Q

systolic

A

when ventricle contract

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111
Q

diastolic

A

when ventricle relax and heart is filling

pressure exerted by peripheral vascular resistance

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112
Q

normal blood pressure

A

120/80

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113
Q

elevated BP

A

120-129 for systolic and less 80 for diastolic

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114
Q

stage one HTN

A

130-139 for systolic and 80-89 for systolic

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115
Q

Stage 2 HTN

A

g>140 for systolic and 90 for diastolic

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116
Q

how do you determine cuff size

A

40% wide and 80 % long of patient’s arm

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117
Q

what is the reading if the cuff is too narrow

A

give high reading

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118
Q

what kind of reading if the cuff is too big

A

gives low reading

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119
Q

how to determine when to stop inflation of cuff

A

20-30 mmHg above palpable systolic pressure

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120
Q

what is the maximum blood pressure considered normal

A

19mmHg

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121
Q

When measuring the blood pressure of a patient, which measurement represents the force exerted by peripheral vascular resistance when the heart is in the filling or relaxed state?

A

diastolic pressure

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122
Q

Which assessment method should be used to identify the systolic and diastolic blood pressure?

A

auscultation

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123
Q

what is considered hypoxia

A

sats below 90% oxygen

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124
Q

Why is it important to ensure a strong pulse during pulse oximetry testing?

A

the change in the color between oxygenated and deoxygenated arterial blood in minutes

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125
Q

Which areas of the body are used for measuring the oxygen saturation in infants?

A

foot
big toe
palm
thumb

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126
Q

what is considered normal reading for oximetry

A

95%-100%

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127
Q

An increase in body temperature may be an indication of which condition?

A

infection
damage to hypothalamus
vasoconstriction
vasodilation

128
Q

Contraction and relaxation of the skeletal muscles result in what temperature-regulating reaction?

A

shivering

129
Q

Which is the best method by which to measure temperature in a 5-month-old patient?

A

tympanic

130
Q

Which communication term can be applied to this statement: How messages are received and interpreted would include personal states such as mood disturbance, environmental stimuli related to the setting of the communication, and contextual variables?
Metacommunication

A

metacommunication

131
Q

A patient does not make eye contact with the nurse and folds their arms at their chest. Which aspect of communication has the nurse assessed?

A

nonverbal

132
Q

The nurse is admitting a new patient to the psychiatric unit. Which factor will most likely contribute to a positive outcome of the interaction?

A

the environment is quiet

patient has been admitted to the facility in the past

patient is awake, alert, and oriented to the person, place, and time

133
Q

The nurse is having a therapeutic conversation with a patient newly diagnosed with hypertension. Which communication techniques will most likely prove effective for this patient?

A

the nurse presents a laminated poster to the patient the depicts food that would be low sodium diet

the nurse and patient engage in humorous conversation about the top ten “what not to eat when you are being treated for hypertension”

the nurse help identify weight loss goals that are reasonable

the nurse waits until the patient has been away for a few hours before beginning the teaching plan

134
Q

Communication in professional nursing practice encompasses a wide range of practices. Which is an exemplar of communication in nursing practice?

A

handoff/reporting

assertive communication

therapeutic communication

electronic health record documentation

135
Q

normal oral temperature in celsius

A

36-37.5

136
Q

normal rectal temp in Fahrenheit

A

97.3 to 100.2

137
Q

normal rectal temp in celsius

A

36.3 to 37.9

138
Q

normal tympanic temp in Fahrenheit

A

97.2-100

139
Q

normal tympanic temp in celsius

A

36-37.8

140
Q

The nurse should measure the recumbent length of a child until what age?

A

2 years

141
Q

lymphoid growth includes what?

A

thymus, lymph nodes, and intestinal lymph masses

142
Q

neural growth includes what?

A

brain, dura, spinal cord, optic apparatus, and head deminsion

143
Q

genital growth includes what?

A

reproductive organ growth

144
Q

when does brain growth peak?

A

during fetal development and early infancy

145
Q

when does the most rapid brain growth occur

A

during conception and 3 year

146
Q

when does muscle growth peak

A

during fetal development and adolescence

147
Q

when does adipose tissue peak

A

during infancy and adolescence

148
Q

when does lymphoid growth peak during?

A

ages 10-14

149
Q

neural growth peaks during when?

A

ages 4-14

150
Q

genital growth peak during when?

A

adolescence as reproductive organs achieve maturation and function

151
Q

what happens to organs as we age

A

the size and weight of the liver, kidney, and lungs decreases

152
Q

what happen during fetal stage?

A

fetal weight increases in the third trimester with organ development

head is the fastest growing skeletal portion of fetal growth

153
Q

what occurs during infant years

A

growth of trunk dominates (main area of skeletal growth)

weight gain is initially rapid but slows as the infant reaches 1 years of age

154
Q

what happens during child years

A

weight is steadily gain until age 7

at age 7 prepubital increases and fat will occur prior to true growth spurt

legs are the fastest growing body part

155
Q

what happens during adolescent years

A

50% of individuals body weight is gained

organs double in size.

male have increase in body fat during early adolescence and average lean muscle body mass to 90%

females have increase in body fat and slight decrease in lean body mass to 75%

156
Q

what happens to older adult

A

over age of 60 years, have 5% body weight loss over several years with an increase in body fat.

results due to skeletal muscle.

157
Q

at what age does the intervertebral disc thin and kyphosis develop?

A

50 years of age

158
Q

what is kyphosis

A

abnormal condition of the vertebral columns

increase curvature of the spine viewed from the side

can be cause by ricket or TB of the spine

159
Q

cause for kyphosis

A

skeletal muscle decreases as a result of decrease in excercise and steroid production

160
Q

what is the most rapid period of brain growth occur?

A

conception and 3 years of age

161
Q

Which age-related physical changes contribute to skeletal muscle loss in the older adult?

A

decrease in excercise

decrease in steroid production

162
Q

during what stage is skeletal growth considered complete?

A

late puberty

163
Q

what does growth hormones do?

A

promotes growth

increase in organ size

regulate carbohydrates

lipid matobolism

164
Q

what does thyroid hormones do?

A

stimulate growth hormones
production of insulin-like growth factor-1

effect growth of other body tissue

influence other metabolic processes, such as weight, heart rate, temperature, and menstruation

165
Q

what is insulin-like growth factors

A

regulated by insulin

exerts negative feedback on growth hormone secretion to control growth in peripheral tissue

stimulate target cells that control tissue growth adn ossification to stimulate muscle and skeletal growth

166
Q

what does estrogen do

A

stimulates development of female secondary sex characteristic

167
Q

what does testosterone

A

enhances muscular development and sexual maturation

168
Q

what does adrenal hormones do?

A

secreted by adrenal glands

promote masculinization of secondary sex characteristics and skeletal maturation

169
Q

what is Ghrelin?

A

produce by gastric lining of the stomach intake and the development of ebesity

170
Q

what is interleukin-6

A

helps in bone formation and reabsorption

171
Q

what is leptin?

A

hormone in regulating body fat and is thought to be a trigger for puberty

172
Q

what is luteinizing hormone?

A

stimulates the gonads to release more sex hormones

173
Q

growth at puberty depends on interactions of which hormones

A

growth hormones

insulin-like growth fator-1

174
Q

growth hormones-releasing hormones stimulates the pituitary glands ro release which hormones?

A

growth hormones

175
Q

which organ completes physical development more quickly than other body parts

A

brain

176
Q

at ehich developmental age do the legs grow faster than any other body part

A

child

177
Q

what physical assessment finding in the older adult suggest skeletal muscle loss?

A

increase in fat

loss of body weight

178
Q

at what age does the head make up nearly 50% if the body

A

fetus

179
Q

which hormones helps regulate an individuals height

A

insulin-like growth factor-1

180
Q

which hormone, regulated by insulin, stimulates cells that control connective tissue growth and ossification

A

insulin-like growth factor-1

181
Q

what hormone is responsible for bone maturation and epiphyseal fusion

A

testosterone

182
Q

which characteristics describe the purpose of the clinical judgment in nursing practice

A

affect patient outcome

involves recognizing cues

influences the plan of care

is the observed outcome of critical thinking

183
Q

what rationales supports the significance of recognizing patient cues as soon as the nurse enters the room

A

the nurse is less likley to miss key information if listening to the patient and observing the environment

184
Q

to effectively recognize cues, which concepts would the nurse need to understand?

A

the first few minutes of hrte patient encounter are critical

a nonjudgmental environment promotes communication

the nurse should adapt the physical assessment based on patient age

185
Q

which factos can hinder the nurse’s ability to recognize patient cues?

A

the patient is 3 years old

the patient is crying uncontrollably

the patient does not speak English as a first language

the patient’s culture discourage eye contact with strangers

186
Q

which factors can influence the nurse’s ability to recognize and categorize patient cues

A

experience with other patients

187
Q

dose-response relationship

A

the body’s physiological response to change in drug concentration at the site of action

determine minimum amount of drug needed to elicit a response

the maximum response a drug can illicit

how much to increase the dosage to produce the desire increase in response

188
Q

efficacy

A

the drugs ability to produce the desire result

189
Q

maximum efficacy

A

largest effect that a drug can produce

height the does-response curve

190
Q

potency

A

the amount of drug needed to elicit a specific phsiologic response to the drug

higher the potency the less drug is needed

the lower the potency the higher the dose to illicit the same effect

191
Q

Minimum Effective Concentration (MEC)

A

lowest blood level needed to cause intended action

if body eliminated the drug fater tahn drug enters the body, drug level at any given time will not be enough

if body eliminate teh drug more slowly than the drug enters teh bodyk the drug level could become high enough to increase side effects or reach toxic concentration

192
Q

onset

A

the time it takes for a drug to reach MEC after administration

193
Q

peak

A

occurs when the drug reaches its highest concentration in the blood

indicates the rate of drug absorption

194
Q

how many hours does it take oral drug to peak

A

2-3 hours

195
Q

how many hours does it take intramuscular drug to peak

A

2-4 hours

196
Q

how long does it take IV drug to peak

A

30 minutes to 60 minutes

197
Q

duration of actions

A

length of time the drug exerts a therapeutic effect

198
Q

drug half-life

A

the time it take for the amount of drug in the body to be reduced by half

199
Q

what is factors the can affect drug half-life?

A

the amount of drug administered

the amount of drug remaining from previous dose

body’s metabolism

elimination from the body

200
Q

what is the half life of Ibuprofen

A

2 hours

201
Q

the half life of digoxin

A

36 hours with normal kidney function

takes 5 days to reach a steady state of concentration

202
Q

loading dose

A

initial large does of drug administered at onset of therapy

203
Q

maintenance does

A

smaller does given to maintain plateau drug level

204
Q

what to collect during assessment of drug?

A

examin patient’s history to identify factors relevant to onset, peak, and duration (kidney disfuntion)

collect drug history including date, time, and drug taken

peform a physical assessment to identify problems that may be relevant to the onset, peak and duration of drug to be administered. (dyphagia in the need for IV vs oral delivery

205
Q

what do n urses do during implementation of a drug

A

provide patient education related to procedures to monitor drug onset, peak, and duration (fingerstick for glucose) in a way do they understand

provide education where they feel safe to express themselves and their concerns

check peak levels and trough levels of drug especially those with narrow therapeutic range

206
Q

how does nurse evaluate after drug is administered

A

evaluate physical, social, and psychological outcomes of education related to pharmacotherapy

evaluate the therapeutic effectivenes sof pharmacotherapy

207
Q

If the body eliminates a drug more slowly than the drug enters the body, which conditions can occur?

A

toxic concentration

increased side effects

208
Q

how many half-life does it take for a drug to reach a steady state

A

4 half-lives

209
Q

ligand-gated channel

A

binding is on the cell surface and activate the enzyme inside the cell and a response is initiated

210
Q

g-protein-couple receptor system

A

has 3 component

  1. the receptor
  2. the g-protein that binds with guanosine triphosphate

3.the effector

211
Q

cell membrane-embedded enzymes

A

channel crosses the cell membrane. when channel opens ions flow into and out of the cell

affects sodium and calcium ions

212
Q

transcription factors

A

found in the cell nucleus on DNA not on the surface.

activation of receptors through transcription factors regulate protein synthesis and is prolonged

213
Q

nonselective drug

A

exert their effect across many tissues

free flowing

214
Q

relatively selective drugs

A

exerts a singular effect on a specific targe tissue or organ

215
Q

highly selective drugs

A

drugs that exert their effect on a single organ or organ system

216
Q

agonist

A

drugs that binds to receptor and produce desired response by mimicking the body’s own regulatory molecules

217
Q

antagonist

A

block receptor activation and prevent the receptor from behaving in its normal manner

218
Q

partial agonist

A

have moderate intrinsic activity

they act as agonist and antagonist

219
Q

affinity

A

the preference or attraction a drug has for its receptor

220
Q

drugs that don’t act through recpetors

A

antacid

antiseptics

hormones

chelating agents

221
Q

drug-drug interaction

A

an alteration in drug effect as a result of interaction with one or multiple drugs

222
Q

symptoms of drug-drug interaction

A

nausea

heartburn

headache

lightheadedness

223
Q

additive drug effects

A

two drugs are administered in combination to which the response is increase beyong what either could produce alone

224
Q

synergic drug effects

A

the therapeutic effect is substantially greater than that of either drug

both drugs are equally, both drug reduce does of each drug

225
Q

potentiation

A

a second drug is added to help with the therapeutic effect

226
Q

antagonistic drug effects

A

drugs with antagonistic effects are administered together, one reduces or blocks the effect of the other

example: Morphine Sulfate OD uses naloxone

227
Q

grapefruit juice

A

drug category:
amiodarone, buspirone, carbamazepine, cyclosporine, nifedipine, calcium channel blocker, anticholesterol drugs

outcone:
decrease metabolism of drug and increased effects

228
Q

caffeine

A

drug category:
theophylline

outcome:
Excessive CNS excitation

229
Q

Salt substitute

A

drug category:
potassium-sparing diuretic

outcome:
dangerously high potatssium level

230
Q

citrus beverage

A

drug category:
aluminum containing antacid

outcome:
excessive absorption of aluminum

231
Q

leafy green veggie

A

drug category:
warfarin

outcome:
decrease anticoagulant effect

232
Q

dairy product

A

drug category:
tetracycline and fluoroquinolones

outcome:
chemical binding of the drug leading to decreased effect and treatment failure

233
Q

St. John’s wort

A

reduces effectiveness of many drugs such as warfarin, digoxin, and oral contraceptive

234
Q

what are common side effects of drugs

A

constipation - opiod analgesiac

sexual disinterests or imptency - antidepressant and antihypertensive

diarrhea - antibacterial or penicillin

drowsiness - antihistamine

decrease in blood clotting - aspirin

235
Q

dose related adverse effects

A

result from decreased drug clearance in pateint with impaired kidney or liver function or from durg-drug ineraction

example; medication for UTI causing jaundice and elevated liver funciton

236
Q

allergic adverse effects

A

allergies developed when a drug acts as an antigen or allergen.

requires prior exposure

237
Q

Idiosyncratic adverse effects

A

genetically determine abnormal response

occur in small percentage of patient given a drug

238
Q

paradoxical effect

A

effect that is opposite of the indended drug response.

239
Q

therapeutic index

A

the difference between the effective (therapeutic, ED50) dose and the toxic dose (TD50)

240
Q

which age group is more vulnerable to adverse effect

A

pediatric and older adult patients

241
Q

which TI drugs requires close monitoring of blood levels to adjust dosing

A

digoxin

lithium

warfarin

phenytoin

242
Q

how many phase are there on the dose-response curve

A

3

243
Q

phase 1 dose response cruve

A

the dose is too low to elicit any measureable response

244
Q

phase 2 dose response curve

A

increase in does elicits an increase in response

245
Q

phase 3 of dose response curve

A

an increase in dose is unable to elicit any further increase in drug response

246
Q

what are the half-life of 4 hours?

A

4 hours is 50%
8 hours is 75%
12 hours is 88%
16 hours is 94%
20 hours is 97%

247
Q

which drug clases interact adversely with cheeses (dairy)?

A

tetracycline

fluoroquinolones

Monoamine oxidase (MAO) inhibitor

248
Q

the brain consist of what three major area?

A

the brain stem

the cerebellum

the forebrain

249
Q

the forebrain

A

cerebral cortex

involve in higher function

has 4 lobes; frontal, parietal, temporal, and occipital

has 3 motor cortex; somatosensory, broca area, and wernicke area

250
Q

Brainstem

A

contains medulla oblongata, the pons, and the midbrain

251
Q

cerebellum

A

adjacent to the the brainstem and below occipital lobe

252
Q

reflex arcs

A

closed circuits of spinal and peripheral nerves and not under control of the brain

253
Q

dermatome

A

an area of skin that is supplied by a single berve

254
Q

broca area

A

formation of words and speech

255
Q

w

A
256
Q

Wernicke area

A

processing of words in coherent though

understanding of written/spoken words

257
Q

motor cortex

A

controls voluntary movement

258
Q

somesthetic (sensory) area

A

processing sensory information from the body surfaces, including the muscle, tendon, and ligament

259
Q

cerebellum

A

coordination of movement and focusing of function of the muscles, joints and tendon

maintain balance and equilibrium

260
Q

medulla oblongata

A

regulates respiration, heart rate and blood pressure

261
Q

pons

A

regulate respiration

acts as a relay to signal between the forebrain and the cerebellum

262
Q

cranial nerves

A

communication between the brain and the body

exits brain directly and have both sensory and motor functions

263
Q

primary sensory neuron

A

relays signals from the peripheral to the central nervous system

264
Q

corticospinal fibers

A

relay stimulation for the motor neurons

265
Q

tertiary sensory neuron

A

relays stimulation from the thalamus to the postcentral gyrus of the parietal lobe

266
Q

secondary sensory neuron

A

relay stimulation from the spinal cord to the thalamus

267
Q

pyramidal pathway

A

conducts impulses for voluntary muscle contraction

268
Q

extrapyramidal pathway

A

conducts impulse for instinctual and reactionary movement rather than voluntary muscle contraction

269
Q

trigeminal nerve (V)

A

muscles for chewing (jaw movement)

control facial sensation

largest cranial nerve

270
Q

hypoglossal (XII)

A

muscle that move the tongue

help speaking, swallowing, and chewing

271
Q

facial (VII)

A

muscle for face and scalp (facial expression)

stimulate tongues and oral cavity and lacrimal glands

272
Q

olfactory (I)

A

transmit infor regarding smell

273
Q

vestibulococlear (VIII)

A

infor regarding sound and balance information from the inner ear to brain

274
Q

optic nerve (II)

A

process visula info

275
Q

oculomotor nerve (III)

A

eye movement

blinking, pupil constriction and eyelid positioning

276
Q

trochlear nerve (IV)

A

eye movement up and down and back and forth direction

277
Q

abducen nerves (VI)

A

control horizontal movement of the eyes toward the temple

278
Q

Glossopharyngeal (XI)

A

oral sensation and taste

279
Q

Vagus (X)

A

control body function such as digestion, heart rate, and immune system

280
Q

Accessory (XI)

A

should elevation or movement of neck and sholder

head turning from side to side

281
Q

which physical condition will result if there is a lack of impulse conduction to skeletal muscle?

A

paralysis

282
Q

from which reasons would the nurse avoud nontherapeutic communication in a nurse-patienbt helping (therapeutic) relationship?

A

requires justification of actions fromteh patient

283
Q

what are the interaction spaces and distance

A

intimate 0 - 1.5 feet
personal 1.5 - 4 feet
social 4 - 7 feet
public greater than 12 feet

284
Q

Acronym SOLER

A

s = sit facing patient
o = open stance or posture
l = lean toward the patient
e = eye contact
r = relax

285
Q

How many times does the nurse check a medication before administering it under the ‘right drug’ part of the ‘six rights’ of medication administration?

A

three

286
Q

the study of drug effects on the body

A

pharmacodynamics

287
Q

which term is used to describe the ration between and drug’s therapeutic effects and tis toxic effects?

A

therapeutic index

288
Q

which type of effect occurs when a psychological benefit is obtained from a compound that may not have a drug effect

A

placebo

289
Q

what are the time limit within which the nurse must administer a prescription of paracetamol 7650 mg by mouth stat

A

immediately

290
Q

which method helps standardize medication prescription

A

computerized order entry

291
Q

which safety feature is specific to computerized healthcare provider (HCP) order entry systems?

A

include the ability to identify drug interaction with the patient’s current and newly prescribed drugs

292
Q

which action by the nurse determines the ‘right patient’ when following the six rights of medication administration?

A

scan the bar code on the patient’s wristband, verify with the patient’s eletronic medicaiton administration record, and ask the patient to state full name.

293
Q

which term best describe the nurse’s action when asking the patient to provide a list of all medications, including herbal and over-the-counter drugs, the patient takes?

A

medication reconciliation

294
Q

for which reason are specific medication classified as “high-alert’ medicaiton?

A

potential for patient harm is higher with these medications.

295
Q

which nursing action is appropriate after the nurse administers a medication to the wrong patient?

A

notify the healthcare provider and document the error in an incident report

296
Q

which number of patient identifier will the nurse check before administratin g a medication to a patient?

A

two

297
Q

according to the current healthcare laws in the United States, which professional can legally prescribe medication?

A

Primary health care provider

nurse practictioners

physician assistants

298
Q

how many times does the nurse verify a prescription before administering a medication to the patient?

A

three

299
Q

which information is of the highest priority when obtaining a pharmacologic history from a patient?

A

allergies

300
Q

which information in the medication prescription does the nurse verify before administering the drug?

A

date of drug prescription

301
Q

which action does the nurse take during medication reconciliation of the patient who has renal failure?

A

instructs the patient to keep a list of medications in his or her wallet

302
Q

which action does the nurse take before administering medicaitons to the elderly patient recently admitted to the hospital fromt eh skilled nursing facility

A

check teh patient’s identification band against the medication profile and prescription

303
Q

which action does the nurse take after reviewing a prescription written as ‘diazepam 5 mg once daily at 2100.’

A

administer the medication after confirming the route with the healthcare provider

304
Q

which nursing strategy is most appropriate to prevent medicatin errors when admitting an elderly patient to an acute care setting.

A

ask the patient to provide you with a written list of all medicaitons being taken at home

305
Q

which piece of information will the nurse review after the patient states, ‘I just read on the internet that some people are having really aweful side effects of the drug I’m suppose to take and I’m scare to continue taking the drug?’

A

Black box warning

306
Q

which action will the nurse perform first when unable to read the drug name from a medication prescription

A

call the healthcare provider

307
Q

which action correctly describe how to dispose of the remaining protion of a discontinued intravenous medication?

A

flush the discontinued intravenous medication down the hopper in the utility room

308
Q

which statement is true regarding a prescription for 10mg/kg/day of a medicaiton whent he automatic dispensing cabinet (ADC) is stocked with unit does of the medication

A

the nurse does not have enough information to determine the dose

309
Q

after the patient is resuscitated from an inadvertent administration of high dose morphine, what will the nurse’s next action?

A

report teh error to the nurse manager

310
Q

which specific information related to a drug does the nurse obtain while doing a drug assessment for a patient with gastroesophageal reflux disease who has been prescribed a new medication to be taken by mouth?

A

sign and symptoms of allergic reactions

adverse reactions of the drug

patient’s ability to swallow tablet

patient’s ability to pay for the drug

311
Q

which drug does the nurse suspect was administered in error whena patient who has parkinson disease does not improved symptoms and developed diarrhea?

A

polyethylene glycol instread of pramipexole

312
Q

tachyphylaxis

A

rapid decrease in response to a drug

313
Q

which drug delays the renal excretion of penicillin

A

probenecid

314
Q

which instruction would the nurse include when teaching a patient about the administration of sulfonamide?

A

stay out of the sun when possible, and use sunscreen when you are outside

315
Q

which instruction would the nurse include when teaching a patient about the administration of phenelzine?

A

refrain from eating sour cream

316
Q

which statement describe a characteristics of highly protein-bound drugs

A

they increase the risk of drug-drug interactions

317
Q
A

Nur 111 (6 decks)

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