Week 1 Flashcards

1
Q

What is leukemia?

A

uncontrolled growth of WBC progenitor cells in bone marrow

blasts crowd out the healthy bone marrow, so you can’t make RBCs or platelets

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2
Q

What is lymphoma?

A

uncontrolled growth of B or T cells in the lymphoid tissue

can’t make WBCs, RBCs or platelets

form tumors in the lymph nodes

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3
Q

if you see fevers, chills, night sweats, are you thinking leukemia or lymphoma?

A

lymphoma

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4
Q

How does treatment for chronic vs acute leukemias differ?

A

acute = chemo

chronic = pills (like a -nib)

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5
Q

What 3 drugs are risk factors for AML?

A

benzenes, radiation, prior chemo (alkylating agents)

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6
Q

What marker is positive in AML?

A

MPO+

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7
Q

What is hallmark sign of AML?

A

Auer rods

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8
Q

What is APL?

A

a subtype of AML associated with t(15:17)

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9
Q

Which type of leukemia disrupts the retinoic acid receptor?

A

APL [t(15;170]

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10
Q

What type of chemo for AML?

A

doxorubin

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11
Q

What is MOA of doxorubin?

A

inhibits topoisomerase II

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12
Q

How do you treat APL?

A

all-trans retinoic acid

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13
Q

What are the cells in the myeloid lineage?

A

neutrophils

basophils

eosinophils

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14
Q

What is a hallmark physical exam finding of CML?

A

splenomegaly

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15
Q

What is defining chromosome translocation in CML?

A

Philadelphia t(9;22)

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16
Q

Do you see blasts in acute or chronic leukemias?

A

acute

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17
Q

How do you treat CML?

A

imatinib

a tyrosine kinase inhibitor pill

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18
Q

If you have <20% blasts that are MPO+, what are you looking at?

A

myelodysplastic syndrome

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19
Q

Which leukemia presents with bone pain?

A

ALL

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20
Q

What is a common associated finding in ALL?

A

mediastinal mass

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21
Q

Philadelphia chromosome with ALL, means what prognosis?

A

poor

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22
Q

What is a marker of lymphoid leukemia?

A

TdT+

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23
Q

Do myeloid or lymphoid leukemias tend to have enlarged lymph nodes?

A

lymphoid

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24
Q

What is a characteristic finding of CLL?

A

Smudge cells on smear

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25
What is abnormal cytometry seen in CLL?
CD5+ with CD20+ (B-cells)
26
How can you treat CLL for fixed duration?
rituximab
27
Rituximab MOA
CD20 monoclonal antibody
28
TRAP staining indicates ...
hairy cell leukemia
29
How do you treat hairy cell leukemia?
with cladribine, which is a purine analog
30
How many lymph nodes involved in Hodgkin lymphoma?
1
31
How many lymph nodes involved in non-Hodgkin lymphoma?
many
32
What is seen on histology for Hodgkin lymphoma?
Reed-sternberg cells
33
What predicts a good prognosis in Hodgkin lymphoma?
lymphocyte rich
34
What does Reed Sternberg cell look like?
Owl eyes
35
What 3 chemos can you give for Hodgkin lymphoma?
doxorubicin bleomycin vincristine
36
What is main side effect of doxorubicin?
cardiotoxic
37
Wha is main side effect of bleomycin?
pulmonary fibrosis
38
What is main side effect of vincristine?
neuropathy
39
What is most common Non-Hodgkin lymphoma?
diffuse large B-cell lymphoma
40
What translocation do you see in Burkitt lymphoma?
t(8:14) Starry sky
41
What type of lymphoma is Burkitt?
B-cell non-Hodgkin's lymphoma
42
When should you add rituximab to treatment of non-Hodgkin lymphoma?
if CD20+
43
How does multiple myeloma look on smear?
looks like a straight line of RBCs
44
What happens in multiple myeloma?
you have too many plasma cells which leads to too many immunoglobulins being secreted
45
What are the symptoms of multiple myeloma?
CRAB criteria! C: hypercalcemia R: renal insufficiency A: anemia B: bone lytic lesions
46
How does multiple myeloma cause hypercalcemia?
RANK-L secretion increases osteoclast activity and Ca2+ released from bones into blood
47
What is a symptom of multiple myeloma?
back pain
48
How can you make the multiple myeloma diagnosis? (2)
1) M spike on SPEP 2) Free light chain ratio
49
If you have a small M spike with no CRAB criteria what do you have?
MGUS
50
If you have a larger M spike (>3) with no CRAB criteria what do you have?
smoldering myeloma
51
If you have CRAB and M spike what do you have?
multiple myeloma
52
What is treatment for multiple myeloma? And MOA?
-mibs proteasome inhibitors that arrest G2-M phase
53
What is waldenstrom macroglobulinemia?
type of multiple myeloma with IgM overproduced leads to hyperviscosity
54
What type of control is neoadjuvant therapy?
local control – treatment of cancer we can measure
55
What type of control is adjuvant therapy?
systemic control – treatment of cancer we cannot measure
56
What are examples of neoadjuvant therapy?
radiation, surgery
57
What are examples of adjuvant therapy?
chemo, immunotherapy, TKIs
58
Name 4 common alkylating agents for chemo
1) Cyclophosphamide 2) Cisplatin 3) Busulfan 4) ifosfamide
59
Side effect of cyclophosphamide
hemorrhagic cystitis
60
Side effect of ifosfamide
renal Fanconi's syndrome
61
Side effect of cisplatin
hearing loss, renal damage
62
What is MOA of doxorubicin?
planar rings that block polymerase
63
Which drug has unique side effect of heart failure?
doxorubin
64
What is MOA of methotrexate?
folate antagonist that blocks purine synthesis
65
What is MOA of topotecan / irinotecan?
topoisomerase inhibitor that leads to super coiling of DNA
66
What phase do topotecan and irinotecan work on?
S phase
67
Which drugs specific side effect is diarrhea?
topo inhibitors
68
Which drug has incurable leukemia as a side effect?
etoposide (topo II inhibitor)
69
Which drugs are M phase specific?
taxanes (docetaxol, paclitaxol) vincristine
70
How do taxanes work?
prevent depolymerization in M-phase
71
How does vincristine work?
prevent polymerization in M-phase
72
Which drugs are taxanes?
ones that end in -taxol
73
What is side effect of vincristine?
stocking glove neuropathy
74
How does bleomycin work?
blocks G2 to M phase induces DNA breaks to prevent DNA replication
75
How do you do traditional chemo?
big doses every 21 days (bone marrow regenerates)
76
What is purpose of metronomic therapy?
continuous smaller dose to prevent growth of blood vessels
77
What pathway does imatinib block?
BCR-ABL pathway in CML *targets a specific oncogene*
78
Which monoclonal antibody works against CTLA-4?
ipilimumab
79
Which monoclonal antibody works on Veg-F?
bevacizumab
80
What is PD1?
limits T-cell activation nivolumab works against PD1
81
What are main side effects (2) of immunotherapy with PD1?
psoriasis ocular autoimmune disease
82
What is an irreversible side effect of immunotherapy with PD1?
thyroid effects
83
How do you treat neutropenic fever?
Cefepime IV antibiotic ASAP
84
When you have a mediastinal mass what should you avoid?
sedation
85
What is treatment for TLS?
rasburicase to catalyze metabolism of uric acid
86
What is only low lab value in TLS?
hypocalcemia
87
How do you prophylaxis for TLS?
IV fluids and allopurinol
88
What disease is leukostasis most common in?
AML
89