Onc Review Flashcards

1
Q

What is Grade 4 of tumor?

A

completely undifferentiated cells on pathology

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2
Q

What are common sanctuary sites? Why?

A

CSF and scrotum

they have special barriers that medications cannot reach as easily

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3
Q

Does grading and TNS predict prognosis?

A

yes

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4
Q

What type of therapy do you give for lymphoma?

A

give systemic therapy first

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5
Q

What are some key features of clonal proliferation?

A

one mutation (or two hits in TSG) leads to entire colony of tumor cells

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6
Q

What is SEER?

A

NIH cancer statistics

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7
Q

What is USPSTF?

A

provides screening recommendations

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8
Q

Which clinical trial phase is a RTC?

A

phase III

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9
Q

What is a difference between phase I and phase II of clinical trials?

A

phase I assesses toxicity and pharmacokinetics

phase II assesses treatment efficacy and optimal dosing

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10
Q

What is grouping for cancer?

A

grouping is how surgeons talk about the extent of resection

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11
Q

What are the 3 groups for grouping?

A

R0 = negative margins
R1 = microscopic disease
R2 = gross disease

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12
Q

What is local control?

A

treatment of cancer we can measure

neoadjuvant therapy

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13
Q

What is systemic control?

A

treatment of cancer we cannot measure

adjuvant therapy

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14
Q

What is neoadjuvant / adjuvant therapy from a timeline perspective?

A

neoadjuvant is everything that happens before local control

adjuvant is everything that happens after local control

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15
Q

What are the 3 volumes that are used in radiation oncology?

A
  1. GTV: gross tumor volume = clinically detectable disease
  2. CTV: clinical target volume = GTV + microscopic extension of tumor
  3. PTV: planning target volume = GTV + CTV + margin thought to account for uncertainty in treatment
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16
Q

When you radiate a larger area, what do you have to do?

A

lower the dose

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17
Q

What are common second malignancy sites after radiation?

A

thyroid, bone, breast, skin and brain

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18
Q

What does a margin refer to?

A

healthy tissue that is removed from around the tumor

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19
Q

What are possible margins? (3)

A

Negative = no cancer cells touching margin

Positive = cancer cells touching margin

Close = cancer cells close to margin but not touching

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20
Q

How does chemotherapy work in general?

A

induces apoptosis

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21
Q

Does chemotherapy use the immune system?

A

No

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22
Q

What are 3 common systems to chemo in general?

A

hair loss

nausea

marrow suppression

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23
Q

What is the MOA of TKIs? (2 types)

A

1) Specific to a mutated oncogene within the tumor

2) Block VEG-F stimulated tyrosine kinase activity

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24
Q

What is the ending of TKIs?

A

all end in -nib

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25
Which 3 TKIs are specific to a mutated oncogene ?
Imatinib (BCR-ABL in CML) Erlotinib Crizotinib
26
Do TKIs cause apoptosis?
No, they mostly just slow the tumor growth
27
What is a concern of using TKI with chemo?
If inhibitory, the TKI will inhibit routine chemo *They are still used together though!*
28
What is a side effect of the -nibs that block VEGF?
delayed wound healing
29
What are side effects of rituximab?
depletes B-cells since it works on CD20 which leads to hypogammaglobulinemia
30
What is side effect of bevacizumab?
can impair wound healing
31
What can monoclonal antibodies predispose you to?
reactivation of latent infections like TB
32
What does PD1 do?
limits T-cell activation
33
What was the first target approved for CAR-T therapy?
CD19
34
What is a marker for presence of CAR-T cells?
hypogammaglobulinemia
35
Which chemotherapy can cause infertility in particular? What drug class are they?
cyclophosphamide and busulfan they are both alkylating agents (in general alkylating agents are bad for fertility)
36
What is difference between supportive care and palliative care?
Palliative care engages when it is known that a patient cannot survive At this point, the patient knows that they are probably not going to be cured
37
What is difference between hospice care and palliative care?
hospice is when goals have changed entirely to quality of life (no longer focused on treating the cancer)
38
What prophylaxis is crucial in ALL?
CNS prophylaxis to prevent relapse
39
What is needed to assess microscopic disease?
surgery
40
What is the primary MOA of PD-1 inhibitors?
activation of suppressed T-cells
41
Which phase of clinical trials compares a new treatment to standard treatment?
phase III
42
Do you stop chemo when initially treating TLS?
No!
43
What is the inheritance pattern of tumor suppressor genes?
TSGs follow autosomal dominant inheritance
44
What is the inheritance of oncogenes?
autosomal dominant
45
What do oncogenes promote?
excessive cell growth and division
46
What is clonal evolution?
process by which cells acquire genetic mutations over time, leading to heterogenous populations of cells within a tumor *heterogenous populations but all have the mutation*
47
What age group does synovial sarcoma affect the most?
young adults
48
What is the primary MOA of radiation?
radiation leads to DNA mutations that eventually lead to apoptosis
49
Why are cancer cells more susceptible to radiation?
the high rates of division and less robust DNA repair mechanisms
50
What can be a complication with surgery following radiation?
radiation can impair wound healing and lead to wound dehiscence
51
What gene is diagnostic of synovial sarcoma?
SSYT gene
52
What type of chemo is ifosfamide? What kind of side effect can it have?
alkylating chemo can lead to infertility
53
When do you see secondary malignancy emerge following radiation?
after 5 years *see dermatology to follow up*
54
What is the generation and coverage of cefepime?
4th generation cyclosporin that covers gram negative and gram positives
55
What is the trend in pediatric survival of ALL?
survival rates are increasing
56
How does Blinatumomab work? What is it used for?
it binds a leukemia cell (CD19) to a T-cell (CD3) this allows the T cell to kill the leukemia cell
57
What does bone marrow tap of leukemia look like?
fat is largely replaced with cells cannot see any fat in the bone marrow
58
What test can help classify cell types in leukemia?
flow cytometry
59
What is the NCL criteria for childhood leukemia?
3 drug induction that uses 4 time points over 28 days
60
How does the patient have to present for NCl criteria?
> 1 and < 10 years old WBC of less than 50
61
What does karyotype allow us to see?
large chromosomal deletions, additions and translocations
62
What are the stages of NCl criteria?
first stage allows us to characterize the disease (gene testing, flow cytometry on day 8) and the later stages allow us to see how you are responding the treatment
63
What do you use FISH for?
to study well-known targets not ideal to just explore DNA need to know specific possibilities
64
What do you use microarray for?
more sensitive than karyotype and can see small changes maps the entire genome
65
When do you use PCR?
good for analyzing a small number of genes with a known sequence very sensitive for small changes within these specific genes
66
What 3 cancers is HPV associated with?
cervical, oropharyngeal and anal carcinoma
67
At what age should you ideally vaccinate for HPV by? If you missed that, what is the next age?
around 11-12 up until age 26
68
What type of oropharyngeal cancer does HPV cause?
squamous cell carcinoma
69
What has better prognosis in head and neck squamous cell carcinoma, HPV + or HPV - ?
HPV + has better prognosis
70