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summer scholars > week 1 > Flashcards

week 1 Flashcards

1
Q

Define OLDCARTS

A

ONSET, LOCATION, DURATION, CHARACTERISTICS, AGGRAVATING FACTORS, RELIEVING FACTORS, TIMING, SERVERITY

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2
Q

define FEDTACOS

A

FOOD, EXERCISE, DRUGS, TOBACCO, ALCOHOL. CAFFEINE, OCCUPATIONS, SUPPORT

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3
Q

What is the subjective information

A

symptoms

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4
Q

what is the objective information

A

signs

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5
Q

Define the components of the SOAP notes

A

subjective, objective, assessment, plan

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6
Q

What is the term for all the chemical reactions in all the cells of the body

A

metabolism

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7
Q

define the rate of heat liberation during chemical reactions

A

metabolic rate

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8
Q

does ATP or phosphocreatine have high energy phosphate bonds and is more abundant

A

phosphocreatine

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9
Q

what functions as an accessory storage deport for energy and as an ATP buffer

A

phosphocreatine

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10
Q

Glycolysis, TCA cycle, and ETC are aerobic or anaerobic mechanisms

A

aerobic (oxygen is present)

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11
Q

What cellular respiration cycle is anaerobic

A

glycolysis

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12
Q

What is an allosteric inhibiter of phosphofructokinase?

A

ATP

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13
Q

high or low levels of ATP/ADP ration indirectly inhibits PDH

A

high

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14
Q

high or low levels of ADP slows down ATP production

A

low

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15
Q

Patient exposed to botulinum toxin which prevent acetylcholine released, will the patient be paralyzed? if so will it be flaccid or spastic and why

A

yes, flaccid because the ACH isnt even allowed to the post synaptic cleft so the muscle is unable to contract.

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16
Q

What is the mechanism of death for botulism

A

respiratory failure

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17
Q

patient is exposed to acetylcholinesterase inhibitor which prevents acetylcholine breakdown in the neuromuscular junction. will the patient be paralyzed? if paralyzed, will it be spastic or flaccid paralysis. why?

A

Yes, spastic because the muscle will continuously contract because ACH isnt being removed from the synaptic cleft

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18
Q

what is the mechanism of death for someone being exposed to acetylcholinesterase inhibitor

A

respiratory failure

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19
Q

what is a cosmetic procedure that is similar to botulism or the botulin toxin?

A

botox

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20
Q

Where does ACH come from after an AP is initiated in the cell

A

synaptic vesicle into the synaptic cleft

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21
Q

After ACH binds to ACH receptors and opens ion channels… does the cell depolarize or hyperpolarize

A

depolarize

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22
Q

What releases calcium after the cell is depolarized

A

Sarcoplasmic reticulum

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23
Q

Does the A band get shorter, longer or stay the same during muscle contraction?

A

stay the same

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24
Q

Does the I band get shorter, longer or stay the same during muscle contraction?

A

gets shorter

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25
Q

Does the z line get shorter, longer or stay the same during muscle contraction?

A

gets shorter

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26
Q

What is the relationship of a muscles velocity of contraction to its load

A

they have an inverse relationship. When velocity increases, force decreases. As weight gets heavier, you go slower. As weight gets light you go faster.

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27
Q

What type of muscle fibers store energy such as creatine phosphate

A

Type II

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28
Q

What type of muscle fibers store much of their energy as triaglycerides

A

type I

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29
Q

What type of muscle fibers need oxygen, have a high level of mitochondria and myoglobin

A

Type 1

30
Q

What type of muscle fibers are slow twitch and exist in long distant runner

A

Type 1

31
Q

What kind of abnormal curvature do pregnant women and people who are obese have?

A

hyperlordosis

32
Q

What abnormal curvature is typically caused by osteoporosis, brittle bones and compression of bone

A

hyperkyphosis

33
Q

lordosis is posterior or anterior concave

A

posterior, primarily in the cervical and saccral region

34
Q

kyphosis is posterior or anterior concave

A

anterior

35
Q

What abnormal curvature happens typically in younger girls 12-15 years old?

A

scoliosis

36
Q

what disease of the of the intervertebral disc is caused by decreased hydration of nucleus pulposus

A

degenerative disc

37
Q

What are some of the characteristics of aging of intervertebral discs

A

loss of proteoglycan, loss of elastan, and becomes stiffer

38
Q

what is the 2nd most common visit to the doctors office

A

back pain

39
Q

Differentiate between strain vs. sprain

A

strain is the muscle, sprain is the ligament

40
Q

What type of injury is the action of hyperextension to hyperflexion of the cervical vertebrae

A

whiplash injury (cervical hyperextension)

41
Q

What type of injury can occur by diving head first into the shallow water? what part of the vertebrae does this affect

A

burst (jefferson) fracture; atlas or C1 vertebrae

42
Q

Define spondylolysis

A

fracture of the pars interarticularis of the lumbar vertebrae.

43
Q

define spondylolistheses

A

when the fracture occurs and the bones actually move/realign

44
Q

describe glycolysis

A

breakdown of glucose for generation of energy and/or metabolic prescursors

45
Q

describe gluconeogenesis

A

formation of new glucose; primarily in the liver

46
Q

describe glycogenesis

A

production and storage of glycogen from excess glucose mainly in muscle and lover

47
Q

describe glycogenolysis

A

breakdown of glycogen to produce G1P and then G6P which is used to produce energy in muscle or is converted to glucose and exported to the liver

48
Q

describe lipogenesis

A

de novo synthesis of fatty acids from acetyl CoA, mainly derived form surplus glucose

49
Q

describe esterification

A

combo of fatty acids and glycerol to form triacylglycerol, the body’s main fuel reserve

50
Q

describe lipolysis

A

breakdown of triacylglycerol, stores to produce free fatty acids

51
Q

describe beta oxidation

A

cyclical oxidation of fatty acids to acetyl CoA, which enters TCA or used to make ketone bodies

52
Q

describe ketogenesis

A

synthesis of ketone bodies from fatty acids by the liver to export to muscle and other tissues for use as a fuel source

53
Q

Describe the central role of the TCA cycle in connecting glycolysis, gluconeogenesis, oxidative phosphorylation, fatty acid metabolism, and amino acid metabolism

A

The TCA cycle facilitates the oxidation of many substrates by their primary enzymes. Such as oxaloacetate in gluconeogenesis and pyruvate, citrate in acetyl CoA and B oxidation, succinate in the oxidative phosphorylation cycle and AKG in glutamate.

54
Q

what ligament prevents hyperextension of the vertebrae and maintain stability of the intervertebral joints

A

anterior longitudinal ligament

55
Q

what ligament limits flexion of the vertebrae and runs within the vertebral canal along the posterior aspect of vertebral bodies

A

posterior longitudinal ligament

56
Q

what joint permits gliding movements between the articulation processes

A

zygapophyseal joints

57
Q

Broad, pale yellow elastic fibrous tissue that connects the laminae of adjacent vertebrae

A

ligamentum flavum

58
Q

connects the spinous processes of adjacent vertebrae

A

interspinous ligament

59
Q

connects the tips of the spinous processes together, strong than the interspinous ligaments

A

supraspinous ligament

60
Q

strong median ligament of the neck, extends form external occipital protuberance and posterior border of foremen magnum to the spinous process of cervical vertebrae

A

nuchal ligament

61
Q

transverse ligament of atlas and longitudinal bands combine to create this ligament

A

cruciate ligament

62
Q

this ligament extends form the sides of the dens to the lateral margins of the foramen magnum. prevent excessive rotation

A

alar ligament

63
Q

articulation bertween the atlas (C1) and the cranium. permits “nodding” of the head (yes motion)

A

antlanto-occipital joint

64
Q

articulation between the atlas and axis. permits movement of the head form side to side “no” motion

A

atlanto-axial joint

65
Q

What type of agonist occupy all of the receptors, which results in a smaller response so their Emax (maximal efficiency) will be lower

A

Partial agonist

66
Q

wha type of agonist binds to the same receptors as an agonist but brings about an opposite response to that of the agonist

A

inverse agonist

67
Q

What type of antagonist reversibly binds to the same receptor site where an agonist binds, but it does not activate it

A

competitive antagonist

68
Q

what type of antagonist dont bind to the same sit as an agonist. They bind to a spot called an allosteric site. When they bind it causes the shape of the receipt to alter in such a way that the ligand can no longer recognize it as a binding sit

A

noncompetitive antagonist

69
Q

What type of antagonist occurs when one drug antagonizes the physiological action of another drug

A

functional antagonist

70
Q

What is elimination

A

removal from the body (usually by kidneys)

71
Q

What is clearance

A

Removal from the blood

summer scholars (3 decks)

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