week 1 Flashcards by Mykel Adams

Define OLDCARTS

ONSET, LOCATION, DURATION, CHARACTERISTICS, AGGRAVATING FACTORS, RELIEVING FACTORS, TIMING, SERVERITY

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define FEDTACOS

FOOD, EXERCISE, DRUGS, TOBACCO, ALCOHOL. CAFFEINE, OCCUPATIONS, SUPPORT

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What is the subjective information

symptoms

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what is the objective information

signs

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Define the components of the SOAP notes

subjective, objective, assessment, plan

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What is the term for all the chemical reactions in all the cells of the body

metabolism

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define the rate of heat liberation during chemical reactions

metabolic rate

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does ATP or phosphocreatine have high energy phosphate bonds and is more abundant

phosphocreatine

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what functions as an accessory storage deport for energy and as an ATP buffer

phosphocreatine

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Glycolysis, TCA cycle, and ETC are aerobic or anaerobic mechanisms

aerobic (oxygen is present)

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What cellular respiration cycle is anaerobic

glycolysis

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What is an allosteric inhibiter of phosphofructokinase?

ATP

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high or low levels of ATP/ADP ration indirectly inhibits PDH

high

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high or low levels of ADP slows down ATP production

low

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Patient exposed to botulinum toxin which prevent acetylcholine released, will the patient be paralyzed? if so will it be flaccid or spastic and why

yes, flaccid because the ACH isnt even allowed to the post synaptic cleft so the muscle is unable to contract.

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What is the mechanism of death for botulism

respiratory failure

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patient is exposed to acetylcholinesterase inhibitor which prevents acetylcholine breakdown in the neuromuscular junction. will the patient be paralyzed? if paralyzed, will it be spastic or flaccid paralysis. why?

Yes, spastic because the muscle will continuously contract because ACH isnt being removed from the synaptic cleft

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what is the mechanism of death for someone being exposed to acetylcholinesterase inhibitor

respiratory failure

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what is a cosmetic procedure that is similar to botulism or the botulin toxin?

botox

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Where does ACH come from after an AP is initiated in the cell

synaptic vesicle into the synaptic cleft

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After ACH binds to ACH receptors and opens ion channels… does the cell depolarize or hyperpolarize

depolarize

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What releases calcium after the cell is depolarized

Sarcoplasmic reticulum

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Does the A band get shorter, longer or stay the same during muscle contraction?

stay the same

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Does the I band get shorter, longer or stay the same during muscle contraction?

gets shorter

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Does the z line get shorter, longer or stay the same during muscle contraction?

gets shorter

What is the relationship of a muscles velocity of contraction to its load

they have an inverse relationship. When velocity increases, force decreases. As weight gets heavier, you go slower. As weight gets light you go faster.

What type of muscle fibers store energy such as creatine phosphate

Type II

What type of muscle fibers store much of their energy as triaglycerides

type I

What type of muscle fibers need oxygen, have a high level of mitochondria and myoglobin

Type 1

What type of muscle fibers are slow twitch and exist in long distant runner

Type 1

What kind of abnormal curvature do pregnant women and people who are obese have?

hyperlordosis

What abnormal curvature is typically caused by osteoporosis, brittle bones and compression of bone

hyperkyphosis

lordosis is posterior or anterior concave

posterior, primarily in the cervical and saccral region

kyphosis is posterior or anterior concave

What abnormal curvature happens typically in younger girls 12-15 years old?

scoliosis

what disease of the of the intervertebral disc is caused by decreased hydration of nucleus pulposus

degenerative disc

What are some of the characteristics of aging of intervertebral discs

loss of proteoglycan, loss of elastan, and becomes stiffer

what is the 2nd most common visit to the doctors office

back pain

Differentiate between strain vs. sprain

strain is the muscle, sprain is the ligament

What type of injury is the action of hyperextension to hyperflexion of the cervical vertebrae

whiplash injury (cervical hyperextension)

What type of injury can occur by diving head first into the shallow water? what part of the vertebrae does this affect

burst (jefferson) fracture; atlas or C1 vertebrae

Define spondylolysis

fracture of the pars interarticularis of the lumbar vertebrae.

define spondylolistheses

when the fracture occurs and the bones actually move/realign

describe glycolysis

breakdown of glucose for generation of energy and/or metabolic prescursors

describe gluconeogenesis

formation of new glucose; primarily in the liver

describe glycogenesis

production and storage of glycogen from excess glucose mainly in muscle and lover

describe glycogenolysis

breakdown of glycogen to produce G1P and then G6P which is used to produce energy in muscle or is converted to glucose and exported to the liver

describe lipogenesis

de novo synthesis of fatty acids from acetyl CoA, mainly derived form surplus glucose

describe esterification

combo of fatty acids and glycerol to form triacylglycerol, the body's main fuel reserve

describe lipolysis

breakdown of triacylglycerol, stores to produce free fatty acids

describe beta oxidation

cyclical oxidation of fatty acids to acetyl CoA, which enters TCA or used to make ketone bodies

describe ketogenesis

synthesis of ketone bodies from fatty acids by the liver to export to muscle and other tissues for use as a fuel source

Describe the central role of the TCA cycle in connecting glycolysis, gluconeogenesis, oxidative phosphorylation, fatty acid metabolism, and amino acid metabolism

The TCA cycle facilitates the oxidation of many substrates by their primary enzymes. Such as oxaloacetate in gluconeogenesis and pyruvate, citrate in acetyl CoA and B oxidation, succinate in the oxidative phosphorylation cycle and AKG in glutamate.

what ligament prevents hyperextension of the vertebrae and maintain stability of the intervertebral joints

anterior longitudinal ligament

what ligament limits flexion of the vertebrae and runs within the vertebral canal along the posterior aspect of vertebral bodies

posterior longitudinal ligament

what joint permits gliding movements between the articulation processes

zygapophyseal joints

Broad, pale yellow elastic fibrous tissue that connects the laminae of adjacent vertebrae

ligamentum flavum

connects the spinous processes of adjacent vertebrae

interspinous ligament

connects the tips of the spinous processes together, strong than the interspinous ligaments

supraspinous ligament

strong median ligament of the neck, extends form external occipital protuberance and posterior border of foremen magnum to the spinous process of cervical vertebrae

nuchal ligament

transverse ligament of atlas and longitudinal bands combine to create this ligament

cruciate ligament

this ligament extends form the sides of the dens to the lateral margins of the foramen magnum. prevent excessive rotation

alar ligament

articulation bertween the atlas (C1) and the cranium. permits "nodding" of the head (yes motion)

antlanto-occipital joint

articulation between the atlas and axis. permits movement of the head form side to side "no" motion

atlanto-axial joint

What type of agonist occupy all of the receptors, which results in a smaller response so their Emax (maximal efficiency) will be lower

Partial agonist

wha type of agonist binds to the same receptors as an agonist but brings about an opposite response to that of the agonist

inverse agonist

What type of antagonist reversibly binds to the same receptor site where an agonist binds, but it does not activate it

competitive antagonist

what type of antagonist dont bind to the same sit as an agonist. They bind to a spot called an allosteric site. When they bind it causes the shape of the receipt to alter in such a way that the ligand can no longer recognize it as a binding sit

noncompetitive antagonist

What type of antagonist occurs when one drug antagonizes the physiological action of another drug

functional antagonist

What is elimination

removal from the body (usually by kidneys)

What is clearance

Removal from the blood