Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Nursing 105 > Week 1-12 > Flashcards

Week 1-12 Flashcards

You may prefer our related Brainscape-certified flashcards:
Nursing Mental Health flashcards Nursing Management of Care flashcards NCLEX-PN® flashcards NCLEX-RN® flashcards Nursing Fundamentals flashcards Nursing Pediatrics flashcards Nursing Safety & Infection flashcards Nursing Pharmacology flashcards Nursing Maternity flashcards Family Nurse Practitioner (FNP) flashcards
1
Q

What is the acronym OLDCART stand for?

A

O= Onset
L= Location
D= Duration
C= Characteristics
A= Aggravating factors
R= Relieving
T= Treatment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is the questions
for pain assessment?

A

P= What Porvokes the pain?
T= What type of pain is it?
M= Dose the pain move?
R= How would you rate your pain
T= How long ago did the pain start

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is a normal blood pressure?

A

120/80 mmHG

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What dose the first and last heart beat mean?

A

First= systalic
Last= Distalic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Name the normal pulse rate for adults, children, and new borns

A

Adluts= 60-100 beats/min
Children= 80-110 beats/min
New borns=120-160 beats/min

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is the normal respiratory rate for an adult?

A

10-20 breathes per/min

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is a skill?

A

It is something you practice

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Name the 4 type of ways you can take a temp. E.g., oral

A

tempanic= ear
Rectal
Oral
Axillory=armpit

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Name the medical terms for these temps 41c°,37.5c°,37c°,34c°,28c°

A

Hyperthermia=temp above 41c°
Febrile= temp above 37.5c°
Afebrile= normal temp 37c°
Hypothermia= 34c°
Severe Hypothermia=28c°

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Name the 8 pulse points on the body from the head to ankles.

A

Temporal
Carotid
Brachial
Radial
Femoral
Popliteal
Dorsalis pedis
Porsterial tiblial

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is Bradycardia?

A

When the heart rate is to slow less then 60bpm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is Tachycardia?

A

When the heart rate is more then 100bpm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Name the 4 force the heart can beat at. E.g., weak

A

Absent
Weak/thread
Normal
Full/blunding

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Finish this sentence.
Breathing should be….

A

Relaxed
Regular
Automatic
Silent

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What does the acronym IPPA stand for?

A

I= inspection
P= palpation
P= percussion
A= auscultation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is a desirable amount of fluid intake and loss for a healthy in 24 hrs?

A

1500 to 3500ml

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What objective data would you use to assess a patient fluid balance status?

A

Daily weight
Fluid intake/output
Skin turgor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What does ABCDE stand for in skin assessment?

A

Asymmetric
Border
Colour
Diameter less then 6 mm
Evolution

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What are the 4 things to look for with skin?

A

The texture
The thickness
The vascularity
And oedema

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What should you look for when assessing lesions?

A

The colour
How elevated it is
The pattern or shape
The size
The location
Exudate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

When doing a assessment looking at hair what should you look for?

A

Colour
Texture
Distribution
Lesions
Infestation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What are you looking for when carrying out a nail assessment?

A

Shape and contour of the nail
Consistency
Colour

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

When carrying out a full skin assessment what questions should you ask them to get a health history?

A

Have you had any hair loss/gain?
Have you had any chance in your nails?
Have you been exposed to any hazards environment or any chemicals?
What medication do you take?
Can you tell me about you salf care practices?

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Define patient centred care.

A

Care that puts people/patients at the centre of care and their individual context, history, culture, family and that take in to a count their strengths and weakness

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

When you are asking Pamabout her pain what factors about her pain need to be considered

A

Onset
Location
Duration
Characteristics
Aggravates
Relieving
Treatment
Scale.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Pamreports her pain to be 8 out of 10. What sort of data is a pain score?

A

Subjective

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Pam’s temperature was 36.8oC this is classed as a normal body temperature it is also referred to as

A

Afebrile

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

As a Student nurse you are working under the supervision and delegation of a Registered nurse. You are asked to take the patients pulse. What is the most common place to feel the pulse

A

Radial pulse

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What objective data would you use to assess Mr Lyman’s fluid balance status?

A

Daily weight

Fluid Intake/output

Skin mobility/ turgor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Which class of laxatives will promote peristalsis?

A

Stimulant laxatives

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Which type of diet is recommended for healthy bowel function?

A

High fibre

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What are the 5 A’s?

A
  1. Accessible
  2. Affordable
  3. Appropriate
  4. Acceptable
  5. Adaptable
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Describe what primary health care is.

A

PHC is an approach to to health that try’s to make it such that all groups in our society have a golden standard of of health care by providing measures.
E.g. Health education and free dental care for under 18’s

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What is primary prevention?

A

Aims at preventing the Onset of illness

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What is secondary prevention?

A

Catching the illness early.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What is tertiary prevention?

A

Reduce severity/ prevent progression of illness.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Describe the epidermis layer

A

1.Epidermis layer is the top layer of the skin
2.It is the protective waterproof layer of keratin
3. It has no blood vessels and relies on the dermis and hypodermis for nourishment/ waste removal.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Describe the dermis layer of skin

A

The dermis is made up of strong connective tissue as well as nurse here follicles glands their ducks arteries veins and capillaries.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Describe the hypodermis layer

A

1.The hypodermis layer is a fatty subcutaneous layer of fat tissue.
2.Hypodermis anchors the skin layer and serves as a heat insulator and shock absorber for the body.
3. The skin layer contains blood vessels lymph vessels and nerves and fat cells.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What is a laceration

A

Tearing of tissue edges not in aligned

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Name the 6 types of wounds

A

Incision
contusion
laceration
abrasion
penetrating wound
thermal wound

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Describe an incision

A

A cut from a sharp object wound edges are aligned

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Describe a contusion

A

Damage to vessels caused bleeding below skin surface EG bruise

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Describe abrasion

A

Rubbing or scraping of surface level epidermis layer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Describe what a penetration at wound is

A

This is when a foreign object enter scan at high velocities.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Describe a thermal wound

A

A thermal wound can be low or high temperature Burns

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Name the three types of ulcers

A

Pressure ulcers
diabetic ulcers
arterial ulcers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Describe what a pressure ulcers

A

It is injury to the skin and any underlying tissue as a result from prolonged pressure on that area

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Describe a diabetic ulcer

A

This is an ulcer impacted by poor circulation and sensation due to their diabetes.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Describe an arterial ulcer

A

This wound is occurs in the area of the leg or ankle caused by abnormal or damaged blood vessels/arteries leading to poor circulation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

What are the two types of wound classifications

A

Surgical and non-surgical/traumatic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Describe what a surgical wound is and give an example.

A

These words are made under sterile conditions

have clean lines and controlled bleeding

risk of infection is minimal and healings is facilitated

EG inclusions are example of this class of wood

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Describe non surgical or traumatic wounds classification

A

These wounds occur in a non sterile environment

contamination is likely

wound edges are usually Jagged and bleeding is uncontrolled

there is a high risk of infection and longer time healing.

An example of this type of wound would be a laceration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Name the four phase and wound healing

A

Homeostasis
inflammatory
proliferative
remodelling or the maturation phase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Describe 4 stages of homeostasis in wound healing and how long after the injury this phase occurs

A

the homeostasis phase begins 0 to 24 hours after damage or injury

  1. Ruptured cells release inflammatory factors that causes the blood vessel to vasoconstriction.

2.Platelets aggregate to form temporary platelet clot within 60 Seconds

  1. these platelets release chemicals and activate the secondary fibrin clot and the clotting cascade.

4.These platelets release chemicals such as serotonin, prostaglandins and histamin which causes vasodilation and increased capillary permeability.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Describe the inflammatory phase and the 3 steps involved and when
disturbed occurs after injury

A

This stage can a curse 0 to 4 days after damage

  1. Neutrophils are first to the site of injury in jesting bacteria and cell debris.

2.After 24hrs macrophages are released and enter the wound area they ingest debris and release growth factors that are needed for new epithelium cells blood vessels as well as attracting fibroblasts.

3.Blood plasma accumulates causing swelling and pain at site of wound.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Describe the 3 steps in the proliferation phase and the time period occurs in

A

It occurs between 3 days to 3 weeks of the injury.

1.Firbroblasts enter the wound site then granulated tissue begins to form and capillaries grow across the wound bringing nutrients to the wound for healing

2.epithelial tissue is light pink in colour and usually migrates inward from the wound margins but can appear in spots over the surface of the wound.

  1. The final step in the proliferation phase is collagen synthesis and accumulation.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Describe the remodelling stage as well as the when it started and after injury (2 steps)

A

This is the final stage of wound healing collagen is remodelled strengthening wound.

New collagen continues to be deposited which compressors blood vessels in the wound so that scar tissue eventually becomes a flat and thin white line.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

What are the three things needed for good wound healing

A

Water
good blood circulation
and nutrients

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

What is the difference between chronic and acute wounds

A

Acute wounds heal normally following the wound-healing process and skin is restored to normal within weeks

chronic wounds do not progressed normally through the wound healing process meaning they can take much longer to heal up to months.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

Name of the three types of wound healing

A

Primary intention
secondary intention
tertiary intention

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

Describe the primary intention wound type

A

Best type of wound is a surgical incision or Papercut

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

Describe the secondary intention wound type

A

Best type of wound healing takes longer there is more debris and fluids to clean away before wound can heal.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

Describe the tertiary intentions of wound healing.

A

This wound is delayed primary intention. Is usually contaminated left open and needs to be stitched closed to prevent further infection obviously after cleaning.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

Name the 6 things that can go wrong with wound healing.

A

Hypergranulation
sloughing
necrosis
Dehiscence (dis-a-da-in-s)
Evisceration (e-ves-a-ray-tion)
Maceration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

What does ISBAR stand for?

A

Identity of patients
Situation
Background
Assessment and action
Response and Rationale

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

What is your basal metabolic rate related to?

A

The energy requirement of a person during rest

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

When undertaking a musculoskeletal assessment you notice the patient has abdominal lateral curve of the thoracic and lumbar spine this is refers to as………

A

Scoliosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

Implicit bias is defined as what?

A

This is bias that is unconscious and automatic achieved within an individual.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

What is the difference between objective and subjective data

A

Subjective data is personal interpretation of data. E.g., patients description of their illness.

Objective data viewpoint is based on factual data. E.g., patients blood pressure records

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

The Glasgow Cama Scale (GCS) is divided into 3 areas name those three areas

A

Eye-opening, monitor response and verbal response

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

What does the right upper Quadrant of the abdomen contain

A

Liver
gallbladder
transverse colon

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

What does the upper left Quadrant of the abdomen contain

A

Spleen
stomach
pancreas

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

What does the lower left Quadrant of the abdomen contain

A

Descending colon
Sigmoid colon

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

What does the lower right quadrant of the abdomen contain

A

Small intestine
Ascending colon
The appendix

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

What is escherichia coli?

A

It is a bacteria most commonly found in undercooked ground beef.
Within 24hrs of Ingesting ecoli, you will become diuretic with bad stomach cramps pain and profuse vomiting

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

What are the droplet safety practises

A

Gowns, gloves, mask and covered shoes and glasses. An example of these kinds of illnesses are mumps and rubella.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

What are the standard safety practises

A

Gloves and mask. Example of this type of illness HIV Hepatitis B and C

79
Q

What are the contact safety practises

A

Gloves, gown, masks. An example of this kind of illnessi is lice and scabies.

80
Q

What are the airborne safety practises

A

Gloves, special filter mask (N-95), gown covered shoes, glasses. EG full PPE

an example of this type of illness is chickenpox and measles.

81
Q

What is the Waterlow Score

A

It is a calculation of the risk of pressure ulcers developing on individual based on it’s system
E.g., 1 low risk 10 high risk

82
Q

What is oliguria

A

A medical term for low urine output

83
Q

What are Prion?

A

Infectious proteins

84
Q

What are fungi?

A

These are your yeast and moulds with a eukaryotic cells
nuclei
unicellular yeast dividing asexualy

85
Q

What is a parasite?

A

Eukayotes.
Maybe multicellular
ranged from protozoa to tapeworm.

86
Q

What are viruses?

A

They are infectious particles with proteins coated in nucleic acid ( DNA or RNA).

Needs to infect host cells to replicate Make new nucleic acid and proteins for the virus particles.

87
Q

What are bacteria?

A

They are prokaryotic unicellular organisms that replicate via asexual division.

They do not possess a nuclei, Golgi bodies, Or an endoplasmic reticulum.

Bacteria can also be classified by using a gram stain.

88
Q

When applying the principles of pain management what is the first concern

A

Client must be believe about perceived levels of their pain

89
Q

What is chronic pain characterised by

A

Exacerbation and remission
greater than 3 months duration and effects normal functions

90
Q

What is used for respiratory assessment

A

The respiratory rate
patients use of accessory muscles
skin colour
O2 saturation

91
Q

What term is used to describe rapid breathing?

A

Tachypnoea (tac-pi-ne-a)

92
Q

When performing percussion over and abdominal cavity the expected sound is what?

A

Resonance

93
Q

When conducting a general survey what is included

A

Measurements of Vital Signs

94
Q

When auscultating the heart what order should you be listening to

A

Aortic, pulmonic, tricuspid, mitral

95
Q

A patient is admitted and they have been vomiting and diarrhoea for 3 days what symptoms would you expect in their physical exam?

A

Trachycardia

96
Q

Poor oxygenation of the blood will affect the pulse rate causing it to become what?

A

Slower-than-normal

97
Q

A young woman has HIV as a result she will be increased risk of what?

A

Cervical cancer

98
Q

The onset of drugs action is the time it takes for the drug to…

A

Produce a response in the patient

99
Q

What effects does smoking have on wound healing

A

Decreased oxygen supply to wound bed related to vasodilation

100
Q

What are the 9 fundamental of care?

A
  1. Communication
  2. Clinical monitoring/management
  3. Care environment management
  4. Comfort /pain
  5. Respect/dignity
  6. Nutrition/hydration
  7. Personal care
  8. Safety/prevention
  9. Self-care
101
Q

What is the assessment for stool (6)

A
  1. Frequency
  2. Colour
  3. Consistency
  4. Shape
  5. Amount
  6. Odour
102
Q

Name stool type 1-7

A
  1. Like little nuts
  2. Looks a bit lumpy
  3. Has a cracked surface
  4. Normal
  5. Blobs
  6. Mushy
  7. Not soild
103
Q

Disease VS Illness

A

Disease is a medical term used to describe pathological changes that impact body function. And can be objectively measured.

Illness is the response of a person to a perseved illness. And is measured subjectively.

104
Q

Name the words in English.
Taha Tinana=…..
Tana Wairua=…..
Tana Whanau=….
Tana Hinengaro=….

A

Physical health
Spiritual health
Family health
Mental health

105
Q

What does EWS chart stand for?

A

Early
Warning
Score

106
Q

The functional ability of the GI tract most severely affected by ageing is

A

Metabolism

107
Q

Name the thing you should look for when conducting a neurovascluar assessment? {6}

A

Colour of the affected area
Temperature warm/could
Move conpaired to other side
Sensation can they feel that?
Pulses blood flow to that area
Capillary refill 3-5 seconds

108
Q

What does ADPIE stand for?

A

Assessment
Diagnosis
Planning
Implementation
Evolution

109
Q

What drug is given to patients who are having a severe asthma attack?

A

Ventolin (vent-a-line) or subutamol (sub-bu-t-a-mole) . This helps relax the muscles around the airway allowing them to breathe easier

110
Q

How to correctly use/find a peak flow measurement

A

Make sure the patient has a new mouthpiece

Reset the peak flow metre back to 0.

They should be sitting up straight with shoulders back.

Get the patient to take the deepest breath and they can before blowing into the peak flow metre.

Repeat this process three more times to get them medium.

111
Q

List the questions for a verbal respiratory assessment?

A

1.Any nasal discharge
2.Any sinus pain
3.Have you had any injuries or trauma to your nose.
4.any nose bleeds and how often?
5.any allergies. EG hay-fever
6.have your sense of smell changed
7.how does your throat feel?
8.do you smoke? If so how much
9.have you been coughing?
10. Any shotness of breath?
11.any chest pain?
12.do you have a past history of chest pain and chest infection?
13. Have you been exposed of any hazid environments?
14. What medication do you take?

112
Q

What sounds should you heir over the tracheal?

A

A harsh high pitched sound.

113
Q

What sounds should you heir over the bronchial?

A

A loud high pitched sound.

114
Q

What sounds should you heir over the bronchovesicular?

A

A Medium in pitch and loud.

115
Q

What sounds should you heir over the vesicular?

A

A soft low pitched sound.

116
Q

Describe what resonance is

A

An air filled structure

117
Q

Describe what hyper resonance?

A

Over inflated of a air fuelled space

118
Q

Describe what dull is

A

Soild organs and bones.

119
Q

Describe what tympany (bell like) is

A

A fluid and air filled area. EG., abdomen.

120
Q

What is an open ended questions?

A

An open ended question require more than one word response, and encourages elaboration.
e.g., What concerns you most about the surgery?

121
Q

What is an closed ended questions?

A

An closed ended questions is answered with one word or yes/no.
e.g., Have you been in hospital before?

122
Q

what is a leading questions?

A

Leading questions are questions that are worded in a way that makes the patient feel like there is a right answer or an answer you expecting them to give.
e.g., You are phakia/white, right?

123
Q

Define sleep Vs rest

A

Sleep; is a state of rest accomplished by low level the brain activity with lower sensitivity to external stimuli.

Rest; is a state where the body has decreased levels of activity but is still awake.

124
Q

Name the two types of physiology of sleep.

A

Cyclical of naturl sleep {2 steps}

Circadian rhythm

125
Q

Name the 2 system used to control the nature cyclical of sleep.

A

Reticular activaing system= RAS (wakefulness)
bulbar synchronising region= BSR (sleep)

126
Q

What are the two stages of sleep?

A

Non rapid eye movement sleep= NREM

Rapid eye movement sleep=REM

127
Q

What dose RAS and BSR stand for?

A

Reticular activaing system= RAS
bulbar synchronising region= BSR

128
Q

What dose NREM and REM stand for?

A

Non rapid eye movement sleep= NREM

Rapid eye movement sleep=REM

129
Q

Name the 4 stages of NREM sleep
Describe each stage
And their time frame.

A

NREM Stage 1= light sleep EG., dosing {1-5 min}

NREM Stage 2= Napping {10-20 min}

NREM Stage 3= normal sleep {15-30 min}

NREM Stage 4 = exhausted sleep {15-30 min}

130
Q

Describe REM sleep

A

Usually Vivid full colour dreams occur in REM sleep and REM sleep usually begins 90 minutes after you fall asleep

131
Q

What are normal sleep patterns for newborns.

A

Newborns and infants usually sleep 16 to 18 hours per day

132
Q

What is a normal sleep pattern for a toddler

A

Toddlers have a normal sleep pattern of 8-10 hours with napping during the day

133
Q

What is the normal sleep pattern for preschool children

A

Pre-school children usually have a sleep pattern of between 9 to 16 hours with with an average of 12 hours sleep

134
Q

Describe the sleep patterns for school-aged children

A

School age children usually need between 10 and 12 hours of sleep

135
Q

Describe the sleep patterns of adolescents

A

Adolescents usually only need 8 to 10 hours of sleep

136
Q

Describe the sleep patterns of adults

A

Adults only need 6 to 8 hours of sleep

137
Q

Describe the sleep patterns of elderly

A

Elderly only need 5 to 7 hours of sleep

138
Q

What are the four major classifications of sleep disorders

A

Dissomnias
Parasomnias
sleep disorders
other disorders

139
Q

Describe the Dyssomnias

A

They are characterised by insomnia or exclusive sleeplessness

140
Q

Describe parasomnia

A

They are described as a pattern of walking behaviour that appears during sleep.

141
Q

Describe sleep order classification

A

Sleep disorders associated with medical or psychiatric disorders

142
Q

Name the 3 types of Parasomnias and describe what each are.

A

Somnambulism= sleep walking
Som-nam-b-ilz-im
Sleep taking
Bruxism= grinding of teeth during sleep
Br-ox_is_im
Enuresis= urinating while sleeping
N-u-re-sis

143
Q

Name the 5 classes of Dyssomnias

A

Insomnia= difficulty sleeping and maintaining sleep.

Hypersomnia= extensive sleeping particularly during the day.

Narcolepsy= uncontrollable desire to fall asleep (asleep while standing)
Nar-co-lip-see

Sleep apnoea= does not breathe between the storing intervals 20 to 10 seconds up to 2 minutes
App-knee-a

Restless leg syndrome= cramping and crawling or tingling sensation in legs

144
Q

Name the two classification for treatments of Dyssomnias

A

Pharmacologic therapy
nonpharmacologic therapy

145
Q

Name two types of Pharmacologic therapy

A

Hypnosis
Sedatives

146
Q

Name the 6 types of non pharmalogic therapy

A

Stimulant control

sleep restrictions

sleep hygiene

cognitive therapy

multiple-component therapy

relaxation therapy

147
Q

Steps and sleep assessment?

A

1.Sleep history
1a. Normal sleeping patterns
1b. Does the patient feel rested
Does the patient get a sufficient amount of sleep (for their age).

  1. Does the patient keep a sleep diary.
    2a. What is their sleeping routine

3.Does the patient snore while asleep
3a. Does the patient experience periodic limb movement ( also known as myoclonus)

148
Q

Name the three relevant classes of law descriptions for each.

A

Criminal law= criminal act 1961

Civil law= family industrial and common law

Law of Torts= a civil wrong that causes someone else to suffer loss or harm resulting in liability.

149
Q

When was the end of life choice at written into law.

A

2019

150
Q

What criteria must the patient met to be eligible for the end of life choice ACT (6 steps)

A

1.Must be a terminal illness

2.prided under lawful processes

3.The health professional is not under any obligations

4.Assisted dying must not suggested by the healthcare professional

5.Requires a first and second opinion by attending medical professionals and a third opinion via psychologist maybe needed

6.Documentation and records are kept

151
Q

What does NFR stand for

A

Not For Resuscitation

152
Q

Describe drug/medication

A

Any substance that modifies body function when taken into the body

153
Q

Describe pharmacology

A

A study of chemicals that affect the body’s function.

154
Q

Describe what a genetic names for medications is.

A

The name associated by the manufacturer that first developed the drug

155
Q

Describe what a trend name of the medication is/means

A

The brand name selected by the drug company that sells the drug

156
Q

What are Class A drugs?

A

Very high risk of harm drugs
E. G., Cocaine

157
Q

What are Class B drugs give an example of a Class B drug

A

High risk of harm E.g., Morphine

158
Q

What are class C drugs give an example of a class c drug

A

Moderate risk of harm E.g., Codeine

159
Q

Class D drugs eg4 schedule

A

This is a precursor substance such as methamphetamine

160
Q

What are the 5 factors affecting drug absorption give examples each

A

Route of administration EG injection or oral

drug solubility e.g. liquid absorbs more rapidly than solid

pH EG acidic drugs well absorb into the stomach

location conditions at the site of administration EG food in the stomach can delay or enhance absorption

drug dosage EG loading Vs maintenance

161
Q

Name the 8 rights of medication administration

A

The right patient
The right time
The right medication
The right dosage
The right route
The right reason
The right to refuse
The right documentation

162
Q

Name the types of Orders (6)

A

Routine order ( low dose of aspirin)

PRN order ( take as needed)

Single of order ( once only at a specific time)

Stat order (immediately)

Verbal or telephone order

standing order ( O2 therapy

163
Q

PRN Order is

A

Take as needed

164
Q

Stat order stand for….

A

Immediately

165
Q

What is the lub sound in the heart

A

Closing of the mitral valve and tricuspid valve.

166
Q

What dose the dub sound in the heart?

A

The dub sound is the closing of aortic and pulmonary valve.

167
Q

Normal pulse rate for 1-12 months

A

80-140bpm

168
Q

12 months - 2 years normal pulse rate.

A

80-130bpm

169
Q

2-6 years normal pulse rate.

A

75-120bpm

170
Q

6-12 years normal pulse rate.

A

75-110bpm

171
Q

12+ years normal pulse rate.

A

60-100 bpm

172
Q

Normal blood pressure

A

120/80

173
Q

Pre- hypertension blood pressure

A

139/89

174
Q

Stage 1 hypertension blood pressure

A

140/90

175
Q

Stage 2 hypotension blood pressure

A

<160/<100

176
Q

Gals stands for…..

A

Gait
Arms
Legs
Spine

177
Q

Orthostatic hypertension, venous thrombosis causes

A

Blood pressure drop when the patient stands up

178
Q

What are the function of bones in the body?

A

They support and protect international oranges e. g., the skull protects the brain.

179
Q

What are the function of the muscles in the body?

A

Muscles pull against bones to make movement.

180
Q

What is the mean function of the joints in the body?

A

The area where two bones are attached for the purpose of permitting body parts to move.

181
Q

TDS

A

Twice a day

182
Q

OD

A

Once a day

183
Q

Sloughing is what?

A

When the skin (wound) change from moist, yellow and stringy to dry and black.

184
Q

Describe hypergranulation

A

This is the excess of granulated tissue the has filled and wound area and had gone beyond the high of the area of the wound.

185
Q

Describe necrosis

A

Necrotic wouds are areas of tissue loss that occurs following the death of their component cells.

186
Q

Describe Dehiscence wouds

A

Dehiscence wouds are where a surgical incision has gone wrong and the side of the wound are pulling apart

187
Q

Describe Evisceration

A

This the simular to Dehiscence but the intra domainal contents of the abdominal cavity is OUTSIDE of the abdomen!

188
Q

Describe Maceration

A

This occurs when skin has been exposed to moisture for to long. Skin can be soggy looking and appears to be whiter then usual.

189
Q

Attributes of a nurse 6

A

Open minded
Self awareness
Moral responsibility
Motivation
Leadership
Bravery and question the system

190
Q

What are the 3 main part of child hood development?

A

Physical
Cognitive
Psychological

191
Q

What is Jean piaget theory on child hood development? Date?

A

The theory of cognitive development (1969)

192
Q

What is Erik Erik’s on theory on child hood development? Date?

A

The theory of psychosocial development (1963)

193
Q

What is Sigmund Freud theory on child hood development? Date?

A

The theory of psychosexual instinctaul drive? (1923)

Nursing 105 (2 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions