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micro 201 Flashcards

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1
Q

Give an example of external defenses that are non-specific.

A

i. Mucus
ii. Cilia lining respiratory tract
iii. Acid in stomach

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2
Q

Give an example of Internal defense in the body.

A

i. Phagocytosis
ii. Complement system
iii. Interferon system

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3
Q

Innate vs Adaptive

A

INNATE IMMUNITY
is One non-specific
Two early defenses
Three physical barriers, microbial factors, phagocytic cells

ADAPTIVE IMMUNITY
are B & T cells
Antigen-specific
Later defenses
Results from the activation of one or more classes of
lymphocytes

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4
Q

How do Phagocytosis Work?

A

Neutrophils recognize surface proteins on the cell walls of bacteria adheres to them then the folds its membrane around the bacteria then releases digestive enzymes to kill and digest bacteria.

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5
Q

How does the complement system work?

A

The first complement will recognize the bacteria and attach to it, which then will activate the other complement components causing a castigate effect of activation of the complement system until the bacteria is completely coated in complements which will make it easier for macrophages, neutrophils and other pathogens to phagocytosis the bacteria.

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6
Q

How does the Interferon system work?

A

When a cell is infected, it will release interferon proteins to signal to uninfected cells to stay away and will induce changes in the uninfected cells that help them become temporarily resistant to the infection, the release of the Interferon protein will also activate natural killer cells that will help kill off the virus and the infected cells that are releasing the interferon proteins.

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7
Q

B-cells VS T-cells (4 points each)

A

B lymphocytes
1. works on foreign antigen before it enters a cell
2. Involve antibodies
3.helps gainst extracellular viruses and bacteria, toxins
4. Binds to antigens in body fluids

T lymphocytes
1. works on foreign antigen after it has entered a cell
2. No antibodies involved
3. hepl against virus-infected cells, tumor cells, transplanted organs
4. Can only bind to antigen epitopes which are presented to them on the surface of cells

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8
Q

How do B cells work

A

The B cell has two immune responses, primary and secondary. Primary only occurs, If the foreign body has never been detected before, The B-cell will attach to the virus and becomes a memory B cell. The secondary Immune response occurs when the body has previously encountered the foreign antigens and is able to respond rapidly by creating more of the memory B cells from its last encounter with the antigen.

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9
Q

How do T cells work?

A

There are two main types of T cells, cytotoxic T cells and helper T cells. T-cells have receptors covering their surface which are antigens specific, which means they can only bind to one shape of antigen, when helper T-cells bind to viral antigens and send out signals to the cytotoxic T cell who releases cytokines to help kill the infected cells.

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10
Q

Endogenous Vs Exogenous

A

Endogenous: Comes from inside the body, e.g., appendicitis.
Exogenous: Come from outside, e.g., C Difficile.

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11
Q

Definition of Streptococcus pyogenes (S.pyeogenes)

A

An autoimmune
disease affecting
the heart, joints, skin and brain.

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12
Q

name 2 disease streptococcus pyogenes can make.

A
  1. Rheumatic heart disease
  2. Rheumatic fever
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12
Q

name 2 disease Streptococcus pyogenes can
make

A
  1. Rheumatic heart disease
  2. Rheumatic fever
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13
Q

Pathophysiology of Streptococcus pyogenes in Rheumatic fever (3 steps)

A
  1. Stars as a untreated recurrent infections of S. pyogenes leading to.
  2. Repeated attacks of rheumatic fever.
  3. Then goes to rheumatic heart disease which is long-term damage from rheumatic fever.
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14
Q

Autoimmune mechanism of the body against Streptococcus pyogenes.

A

Streptococcal A phosgene’s are recognizes by the Immune system by the M protein on the surface of the compound. Because this compound is so similar to host proteins antibodies found on cardaic tissue and may mistakenly identify the host as the foreign pathogen and attack the host as well

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15
Q

Signs & Symptoms of Streptococcus pyogenes

A
  • Fever
  • Swollen joints
    (pain)
  • Rash
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16
Q

Diagnostic Test for Rheumatic fever (5)

A
  1. Inflamed heart muscle (T-cells directed against heart muscle proteins)
  2. Erythema marginatum – rash
  3. Random, involuntary body movements
  4. Throat swab + bacteria culture.
  5. if disease happened 3-4
    weeks after infection, bacteria may not be present in throa
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17
Q

Management of Streptococcus pyogenes (4)

A

1.Give aspirin, NSAID

  1. Oral penicillin for 10 days
  2. Prevent recurrence
    Amoxicillin (PO),

4.Benzathine penicillin
(IM) for years or until they reach about 20yo

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18
Q

Definition of staphyloccocus aureus

A

An inflammation and or infection of the of tissue

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19
Q

name 2 disease S.aurses

A

Tonsilitis, and pharyngitis.

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20
Q

Pathophysiology of staphyloccocus aureus in pharyngitis (3)

A
  1. The bacteria adhere to the pharyngeal mucosa.
  2. It then invades the mucosal tissue by producing various proteases and cytolysins
  3. Causing inflammation manifesting as signs and symptoms of pharyngitis
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21
Q

autoimmune mechanism of the body against staphyloccocus aureus

A

Toxins from the S. aureus trigger inflammatory responses and activate inflammatory cells, such as keratinocytes, helper T cells, innate lymphoid cells, macrophages, dendritic cells, mast cells and, neutrophils.

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22
Q

Signs & Symptoms (5) staphyloccocus aureus.

A
  • Redness
  • Swelling
  • Heat
  • Pain
  • Loss of function in that area
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23
Q

Diagnostic Test for staphyloccocus aureus.

A

Swap of puss or infection.

Throat swabs.

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24
Q

Management of staphyloccocus aureus.

A

A cours of antibiotics, Penicillin, or amoxicillin.

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25
Q

Signs & Symptoms Helicobacter pylori (4)

A
  1. Excessive diarrhea may be blood stained.
  2. fever
  3. An ache or burning pain in your stomach.
  4. Unintentional weight loss
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26
Q

How to say Helicobacter pylori

A

(hell-o-co-back-ta-er pie-law-i)

27
Q

Definition of helicobacter pylori

A

an infection that occurs within the upper GI tract
that may cause ulcers, and information.

28
Q

Pathophysiology of helicobacter pylori

A

H. pylori gastritis typically starts as an acute gastritis in the antrum, causing intense inflammation and, over time, it may extend to involve the entire gastric mucosa, resulting in chronic gastritis.

29
Q

name 2 disease helicobacter pylori can make.

A
  1. Peptic ulcer disease
  2. Chronic gastritis
30
Q

immune mechanism of H. Pylori

A

immune mechanism:
H. Pylori cause a strong systemic immune response,

Creating a chronically inflamed environment with reduced stomach acidity that favors the growth of other bacteria in the GI environment,

maintaining the inflammation and thereby reducing the level of vitamin C in the gastric juice

31
Q

Signs & Symptoms helicobacter pylori

A
  1. Excessive diarrhea may be blood stained.
  2. fever
  3. An ache or burning pain in your stomach.
  4. Unintentional weight loss
32
Q

What are diagnostic test for helicobacter pylori

A
  1. Gram-negative
  2. A tissue biopsy of stomach lining
  3. A blood test of antibodies
33
Q

Management of H. pylori (2)

A
  1. H. pylori infections are usually treated with at least two different antibiotics at once to helps prevent the bacteria from developing a resistance.
  2. Proton pump inhibitors (PPIs) to help heal the gut
34
Q

How to day escherichia coli

A

(S -ska-ric-e -a)

35
Q

Definition of escherichia coli

A

An bacteria in the gut that can star to harm the host if they feel they can or need to.

36
Q

how does a appendicitis start

A

Buildup of bacteria, In the appendix, Due to obstruction or blockage

37
Q

Give two examples of escherichia coli in the body.

A
  1. Appendix
    2.UTI
38
Q

Which age group has the highest rates of pneumonial disease?

A

over 65 years old

39
Q

Which bacterial species is the most common cause of pneumonia in people living in New Zealand?

A

Streptococcus pneumoniae

40
Q

Which antimicrobial is most likely to kill the bacterial species that is the most common cause of pneumonia in people in New Zealand?

A

penicillin

41
Q

Which immune cell is the first to challenge S. pneumoniae upon migration to the alveolus?

A

macrophage

42
Q

A positive Ziehl-Neelsen stain indicates

A

an acid fast bacillus

43
Q

When educating women about prevention of a UTI, what is one simple way the client can do this?

A

Wipe from front to back after passing urine

44
Q

Which immune cell is responsible for clearing HBV infections?

A

cytotoxic lymphocyte

45
Q

Which laboratory results indicate that the body fluids of the tested person have a high risk of transmitting hepatitis B virus?

A

serum is strongly positive for e antigen of hepatitis B virus

46
Q

When caring for a client with hepatitis B, the nurse should monitor closely for the development of associated with a worsening decrease in hepatic function?

A

Irritability and drowsiness

47
Q

While beta-lactam antibiotics remain one of the most commonly prescribed types of antibiotics, they have side effects that can range from mild to life-threatening in nature. What type of side effect is most commonly observed?

A

allergic reaction

48
Q

Most strains of Staphylococcus aureus are resistant to penicillin because they are able to

A

produce an enzyme to destroy the drug

49
Q

which antibiotic is a semi-synthetic antibiotic?

A

amoxycillin

50
Q

Fluoroquinolone antibiotics inhibit the synthesis of

A

DNA

51
Q

Which of the following antibiotics belong to the class of beta-lactams

A

penicillin

52
Q

If treated, the time between HIV infection and AIDS disease is commonly

A

longer than 10 years

53
Q

Where was HIV infection first transmitted from person to person?

A

Central Africa

54
Q

The risk of HIV transmission is greatest for

A

an infected mother giving birth

55
Q

Vaccination against a viral pathogen, e.g. influenza virus, results in the production of antibodies that help the body control the infection by?

A

blocking infection of new cells

56
Q

Which of the following human vaccines should not be given to immunocompromised patients

A

Live vaccines e.g., Measles vaccine

57
Q

The HiB (Haemophilus influenzae type B) vaccine is a component antigen vaccine given in New Zealand as:

A

4 immunisations between 6 weeks and 15 months old

58
Q

Which microbial component most strongly inhibits phagocytosis and thereby greatly enhances the virulence of the bacterium that most commonly causes pneumonia in people in New Zealand?

A

capsular polysaccharide

59
Q

Which of the following test results most strongly suggests that a person is at high risk of transmitting Mycobacterium tuberculosis to their close contacts?

A

profuse acid fast bacilli seen in sputum

60
Q

The effective treatment of tuberculosis requires

A

a long course of multiple anti-mycobacterial antibiotics

61
Q

what features does not protect against cystitis developing

A

high glucose load in urine

62
Q

What is present in the vaccine used to protect against hepatitis B virus infection?

A

Purified hepatitis B virus surface antigen (HBsAg)

62
Q

What is present in the vaccine used to protect against hepatitis B virus infection?

A

Purified hepatitis B virus surface antigen (HBsAg)

63
Q

What is the usual method of diagnosing that a person has HIV infection?

A

Detecting antibody to the virus in the person’s blood

64
Q

Herd immunity occurs when a large percentage of a population has become immune to an infection, thereby providing a measure of protection for individuals who are not, this is an example of

A

indirect protection

Nursing 105 (2 decks)

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