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Immuno SHSUCOM > Week 1 > Flashcards

Week 1 Flashcards

1
Q

What are the primary lymph organs

A

red bone marrow and thymus

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2
Q

What are the secondary lymph organs

A

lymph nodes, spleen, MALTs (tonsils, peyers, appendix)

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3
Q

What is the purpose of primary lymph organs

A

supply immature, ANTIGEN INDEPENDENT T and B cell precursors to peripheral tissues

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4
Q

What is the purpose of secondary lymph organs

A

provide committed, ANTIGEN DEPENDENT T and B cells that respond to specific antigens

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5
Q

Where is antigen exposed to lymphocytes

A

secondary lymph organs

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6
Q

What lymphatic duct drains most of the body

A

left duct

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7
Q

Terminal lymphatic vessels lack

A

smooth muscle walls

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8
Q

Collecting lymphatic vessels have both

A

valves and smooth muscle walls

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9
Q

Myeloid progenitor cells differentiate into

A

the granulocytes— neutrophils, eosinophils, basophils, mast cells, monocytes, dendritic cells, and macrophages

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10
Q

Lymphoid progenitor cells differentiate into

A

B cells, T cells, NK cells

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11
Q

What cells act as APCs

A

macrophages, dendritic cells, and B cells

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12
Q

What are macrophages derived from

A

monocytes

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13
Q

What type of immune cells are osteoclasts and microglial cells

A

macrophages

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14
Q

What are the 3 fxns of macrophages

A

phagocytes, APCs, and cytokine producers

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15
Q

Large, irregularly shaped cell with large nucleus, many lysosomes and well developed RER and Golgi

A

activated macrophage

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16
Q

What are dendritic cells derived from

A

monocytes

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17
Q

What type of APCs are highly phagocytic

A

dendritic cells

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18
Q

What is the mechanism of DCs

A

phagocytize pathogens—> convert Ags into MHC-peptide complexes—> presents on surface with MHC-II receptors to T cells—> becomes activated

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19
Q

Once a DC becomes activated it

A

moves into lymph node to activate T cells

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20
Q

What are the differences between DCs and macrophages

A
  • DCs can leave the tissue

- DCs ONLY process Ags and present them

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21
Q

Where are DCs found

A
  • skin (Langerhans, dermal DCs)
  • mucosa (nose, lungs, stomach, intestines)
  • immaturely in the blood
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22
Q

Langerhan cells express

A
  • MHC-II receptors
  • Cd1a surface antigen
  • langerin
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23
Q

What layer of the epidermis are Langerhans most prominent

A

spinosum and granulosum

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24
Q

Beside the epidermis, where else are Langerhans found

A
  • papillary dermis around BVs

- mucosa SSE of mouth, vagina, ectocervix, rectum, foreskin

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25
Q

Cells with lobulated nucleus, rod shaped inclusions that have a zipper like appearance with a bulb shape end that look like tennis rackets

A

Langerhans

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26
Q

What type of cells have Birbeck granules

A

Langerhans (the bulb part of the tennis racket)

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27
Q

Where do B cells mature

A

bone marrow

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28
Q

What is the first Ab produced and activates compliment

A

IgM

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29
Q

What is the mechanism of B cell activation

A

free Ag binds to IgM or IgD on B cell—> B cell engulfs, processes, and presents Ag to activated Th cells—> Th cells release IL4 to provide second stimulation of B cell—> activated B cell differentiates into memory B cells and antibody-producing plasma cells

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30
Q

Once Ag is present in a lymphatic nodule, what forms

A

mantle zone of nonproliferating B cells with a germinal center of FDCs and proliferating lymphoblasts

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31
Q

What cells have a comet-like cytoplasm, clock-face nucleus, and ghost-like region

A

plasma cells

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32
Q

Where do T cells originate from

A

bone marrow

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33
Q

What type of connective tissue is found in lymphoid organs EXCEPT the thymus

A

reticular

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34
Q

Reticular fibers in lymphoid tissue is

A

type III collagen

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35
Q

Where do abnormal plasma cells build up in multiple myeloma

A

bone marrow causing bone tumors

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36
Q

What are the blood proteins of innate immunity

A

complement

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37
Q

What are the cells of adaptive immunity

A

B & T cells

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38
Q

What are the 2 principal types of reactions of the innate immune system

A

inflammation and antiviral defense

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39
Q

Innate immune cells recognize

A

PAMPs & DAMPs

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40
Q

Innate immune receptors are encoded in

A

the germline— identical in all cells

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41
Q

What are the types of receptors produced by the innate immune cells

A

TLRs, NLRs, RLRs, lectin receptors, mannose receptors, N-formyl methionyl receptors, and complement receptors

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42
Q

Where are receptors of the innate immune system located

A

cell surface, in endosomes, and in cytosol

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43
Q

What is the function of cytokines

A

mount an inflammatory response

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44
Q

What are the primary communicators between immune cells

A

cytokines

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45
Q

Children who develop HSE have a deficiency in

A

TLR3

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46
Q

What happens if the initial inflammatory response fails to clear the inflammation

A

chronic inflammation

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47
Q

What are the 5 Rs of a typical inflammatory response

A 
Recognition of the injurious agent
Recruitment of leukocytes
Removal of the agent
Regulation of the response
Resolution and repair
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48
Q

What are the cardinal signs of inflammation

A 
Heat
Redness
Swelling
Pain
Loss of function
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49
Q

What are the 2 components of acute inflammation

A

vascular and cellular

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50
Q

What causes pain in an inflammatory response

A

prostaglandins, neuropeptides, and cytokines

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51
Q

What causes tissue damage in inflammation

A

toxic metabolites

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52
Q

What are the causes of inflammation

A

infections (microbes)

foreign bodies (exogenous and endogenous)

tissue necrosis (ischemia, trauma, physical and chemical injury)

immune reactions (autoimmune and allergies)

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53
Q

What immune cells mediate asthma

A

eosinophils (IgE antibodies)

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54
Q

What is seen pathologically in ARDS lung tissue

A

DAD- diffuse alveolar damage

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55
Q

What are the 3 morphologic patterns of acute inflammation

A

serous, fibrinous, and purulent

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56
Q

Exudation of fluid into spaces created by injury that typically has no infectious agents or leukocytes present

A

serous inflammation

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57
Q

What is effusion in serous inflammation

A

the derivation of fluid from either the plasma or secretions of mesothelial cells

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58
Q

Fibrous inflammation occurs when

A

the vascular leaks are large or there is a local procoagulant stimulus

59
Q

What type of inflammation is commonly seen in the meninges, pericardium, and pleura

A

fibrinous inflammation

60
Q

How is fibrin inflammation mediated

A

by fibrinolysis and cleared by macrophages

61
Q

What happens if fibrin is not removed during acute inflammation

A

it can lead to fibrous scarring called “organization”

62
Q

What is the most frequent cause of purulent inflammaiton

A

pyogenic bacteria

63
Q

What is pus

A

exudate of neutrophils, liquefied debris of necrotic cells, and edema fluid

64
Q

What type of inflammation is acute appendicitis

A

purulent inflammation

65
Q

What are the 3 genes involved in H chain recombination

A

VDJ

66
Q

What is the first step of B cell development

A

commitment of the common lymphoid progenitor to the B cell lineage

67
Q

What is an antibody composed of

A

2 identical H chains and 2 identical L chains

68
Q

What is located between the V and C genes in the HSCs germline

A

D & J segments

69
Q

Only the H has both

A

D & J segments

70
Q

What are the committed B cells called

A

pro-B cells (progenitor B cells)

71
Q

What are RAG genes

A

Recombination Activating Genes

72
Q

When are RAG genes expressed

A

from the start of the pro-B cell stage until they are immature B cells

73
Q

What markers are associated only with B cells

A

CD19, CD20, CD21

74
Q

What are the 2 pathways of TLR signaling

A
  1. TLR recognizes PAMP
  2. Toll IL 1 receptor (TIR) recruits adaptor proteins NF-kB
  3. NF-kB activates transcription
  4. Increased cytokines, costimulators, and adhesion molecules lead to
  5. Acute inflammation and stimulation of adaptive immunity

OR

  1. TLR recognizes PAMP
  2. Toll IL 1 receptor (TIR) recruits adaptor proteins IRFs
  3. IRFs activate transcription
  4. Production of type 1 interferons (IFN alpha & beta) leads to
  5. Antiviral state
75
Q

What are the components of an inflammasome

A

NLR + adaptor + inactive caspase 1

76
Q

What is the function of an inflammasome

A

convert caspase from inactive form to active form which can then cleave pro-IL1 B into IL1-B

77
Q

NLRP3 defects or deficiency can lead to

A

autoinflammatory syndromes with gain of function leading to chronic inflammation

78
Q

Secreted IL1-B function

A

pro-inflammation
fever
promote leukocyte migration

79
Q

What are the type 1 IFNs

A

IFN alpha and IFN beta

80
Q

What is the fxn of type 1 IFNs

A

antiviral state

81
Q

What type of innate receptors recognize peptidoglycan on GRAM POSITIVE bacteria

A

NOD 1 and NOD 2

82
Q

What innate receptors recognize viral RNA

A

RLRs- RIG 1 and MDA 5

83
Q

What innate immune cell is most predominant in circulation

A

neutrophil

84
Q

What are the major cytokine producing cells of the innate immune system

A

macrophages

85
Q

What kind of cells produce extracellular traps

A

neutrophils– NETs

86
Q

Type 2 IFNs are

A

IFN gamma

87
Q

What is the main function of IFN type 2

A

macrophage activation

88
Q

What does complement do

A

coats pathogens for phagocytosis

89
Q

If a macrophage receives signals from TLR ligands or IFN gamma what is their response

A

microbe killing and inflammation

90
Q

If a macrophage receives signals from IL 13 or IL 4 what is their response

A

anti-inflammatory response and tissue repair

91
Q

M1 vs M2 macrophages

A

M1— pro-inflammatory and anti-microbial

vs

M2— anti-inflammatory and tissue repair

92
Q

Where are mast cells found

A

skin and mucosa

93
Q

What do mast cells express

A

CD16 and CD56

94
Q

NK cells share similarities to

A

CD8+ T cells

95
Q

To kill an infected cell, NK cells release

A

perforin and granzyme B

96
Q

NK cells will not kill a cell if

A

it expresses self antigen via MHC I on the surface— inhibitory receptor

97
Q

What are the 2 types of receptors that NK cells express on the surface

A

KAR— activating receptor

KIR— inhibitory receptor

98
Q

What complements induce inflammation

A

C3a and C5a

99
Q

What is opsonization

A

when complement proteins or Ab coat a pathogen for phagocytosis

100
Q

Which complement induces opsonization and phagocytosis

A

C3b

101
Q

What complements induce lysis of the microbe

A

C6, C7, C8, C9

102
Q

C6-C9 complements induce lysis of the microbe by

A

forming a MAC

103
Q

Rolling of a leukocyte happens because

A

selectin on the tissue binds with the selectin ligand expressed by the leukocyte— this weak binding slows down the leukocyte so that it can migrate into tissues

104
Q

What enzymes are important for oxygen-dependent phagocytosis of innate cells

A

NADPH oxidase, myeloperoxidase, nitric oxide synthase

105
Q

What area of the brain is responsive to pyrogens which results in fever

A

hypothalamus

106
Q

Which cells are mainly responsible for producing IFN B during antiviral response

A

fibroblasts

107
Q

How do pneumococci resist phagocytosis

A

capsular polysaccharide

108
Q

How do staphylococci evade innate immune response

A

resistant to ROS during phagocytosis due to production of catalase

109
Q

What are the 3 major mechanisms of the anatomical barriers

A
  1. directly prevent entry
  2. can produce local antibiotics
  3. intraepithelial T cells
110
Q

What are the 3 major sentinel cells

A

mast cells, DCs, and macrophages

111
Q

What are the inflammatory mediators produced upon recognition of a pathogen by sentinel cells

A
  1. histamines
  2. prostaglandins
  3. leukotrienes
112
Q

What are the 3 types of CD4+ T cells

A

Th1, Th2, Th17

113
Q

What are the 2 signals of T cell activation

A
  1. TCR signal after recognition of MHC on APC

2. CD28 on T cells binding B7 (CD 80 and CD86) on APCs

114
Q

What does a T cell produced after it receives both of its activation signals

A

IL-2 AND the IL-2R (receptor)

115
Q

What type of Th cells are best for intracellular pathogens

A

Th1

116
Q

What type of Th cells are best for extracellular bacteria and parasites

A

Th2

117
Q

What type of Th cells are best for extracellular bacteria and fungi

A

Th17

118
Q

What cytokines drive differentiation of T cells in to Th1

A

IL-12 produced DCs & macrophages

IFN-gamma produced by NKs

119
Q

What main cytokine does Th1 cells produce

A

IFN gamma

120
Q

Other than IFN gamma, how else do Th1s activate macrophages

A

CD40L on Th1 binding CD40 on macrophage

121
Q

Once fully activated by Th1s, what do MPs produce to kill pathogens

A

ROS and NO

122
Q

How do M1 MPs amplify T cell response

A

higher expression of MHC II and increased B7 costimulatory molecules

123
Q

Other than Th1 cells producing IFN gamma, how else can M1 macrophages become activated

A

CTLs produce IFN gamma also

124
Q

IFN gamma activates M1 macrophages but what effect does IFN gamma have on B cells

A

can lead B cells to class switch to IgG which acts as an opsonin to enhance phagocytosis and complement activation

125
Q

What stimulates differentiation of T cells in Th2 cells

A

IL-4 produced by mast cells

126
Q

What do Th2 cells produce

A

IL-4, IL-5, and IL-13

127
Q

How do Th2 cells induce B cells to class switch to IgE

A

IL-4

128
Q

What action does IL-4 and IL-13 have on intestines during a parasitic infection

A

increases mucus production and stimulates peristalsis

129
Q

What is the function of M2 macrophages

A

tissue repair and fibrosis

130
Q

What promotes differentiation of macrophages into M2 macrophages

A

IFN gamma, IL-4 and IL-13

131
Q

What type of T cells play a primary role in allergies

A

Th2s

132
Q

What cytokines induce differentiation of T cells into Th17s

A

IL-1, IL-6, and IL-23

133
Q

What are the major cytokines produced by Th17 cells

A

IL-17 and IL-22

134
Q

What is the major function of Th17s

A

recruitment of neutrophils and monocytes

135
Q

What does IL-22 produced by Th17s do

A

promote repair of damaged epithelium

136
Q

What would you expect to find in a patient who has defects in their Th17 cells

A

mucocutaneous candidiasis, bacterial skin abscesses, psoriasis, RA, and IBD

137
Q

What is cross presentation

A

when a DC presents extracellular Ag on MHC I to CD8+ cells

138
Q

What 3 binding processes take place during activation of a CTL

A

MHC I, TCR, and CD8 coreceptor

139
Q

What holds CTLs and infected cells together

A

LFA-1 (an integrin)

140
Q

What do CTLs release upon binding and activation by an infected cell

A

perforins and granzymes

141
Q

What does granzyme B released by CTLs do to the infected cell

A

activates caspases which leads to apoptosis

142
Q

CTLs express FasL which binds to Fas (CD95). What is the purpose of Fas

A

promotes cell death

143
Q

How does murine CMV evade NK cells

A

expresses decoy MHC I like molecules

144
Q

How does EBV evade CTLs and NKs

A

inhibits proteasomal activity

Immuno SHSUCOM (3 decks)

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