Week 03 Flashcards

Respiratory Alterations/ Pharmacology/ Blood Administration

1
Q

upper respiratory pathophysiology

A

provides a passage for air to be breathed in and out of the lungs, but it also heats, humidifies, and filters the air and is involved in cough, swallowing and speech

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2
Q

lower respiratory pathophysiology

A

pull in air from the upper respiratory system, absorbs oxygen, and releases carbon dioxide in exchange

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3
Q

which side of the lungs has more lobes

A

right side

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4
Q

what happens to blood pressure on vent patients

A

BP drops

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5
Q

what is ventilation

A

mechanical and involves the movement of air

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6
Q

what is respiration

A

involves the exchange of gases in the alveoli

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7
Q

are rails and crackle lungs sounds wet or dry

A

wet

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8
Q

should you use a breathing treatment on a patient with rails or crackle lung sounds

A

no

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9
Q

what is the only medication that will help stridor

A

racemic epinephrine

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10
Q

what is racemic epinephrine

A

inhalation epi

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11
Q

if acidic pH is

A

low

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12
Q

if alkaline pH is

A

high

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13
Q

what does ROME stand for

A
  • R: respiratory
  • O: opposite
  • M: metabolic
  • E: equal
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14
Q

what breath sound is due to fluid overload

A

rails

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15
Q

subjective assessment data

A

health history, medications, surgeries

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16
Q

objective assessment data

A

physical observation, inspect, palpate, auscultate, percuss

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17
Q

what position should you inspect the thorax in

A

sitting

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18
Q

what are some abnormal lung sounds

A
  • fine crackles
  • corse crackles
  • wheezing
  • pleural friction rub
  • stridor
  • cheye-stokes
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19
Q

compensation mechanisms: mechanical buffers

A
  • on the scene in seconds
  • already present in tissue and will handle minor changes in acid base balance
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20
Q

compensation mechanisms: respiratory

A
  • retention or elimination of CO2
  • happens within minutes
  • respiratory compensation can handle mild to moderate acid base shifts
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21
Q

compensation mechanisms: renal

A
  • regulate bicarb (HCO3) to combat hydrogen losses and gains
  • starts within hours but more permanent
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22
Q

what happens when first two compensation mechanisms fail

A

the renal system slowly gets to work and requires up to 5 days to complete

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23
Q

what should be monitored for a arterial occlusion

A

changes in color, temp, swelling, loss of pulse, pain

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24
Q

what side should patient be placed on and position for a air embolism

A

left side in trendelenburg

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25
Q

acidosis, normal, or alkalosis
pH: less than 7.35
CO2: greater than 45
HCO3: less than 22

A

acidosis

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26
Q

acidosis, normal, or alkalosis
pH: 7.35 - 7.45
CO2: 35 - 45
HCO3: 22 - 26

A

normal

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27
Q

acidosis, normal, or alkalosis
pH: greater than 7.45
CO2: less than 35
HCO3: greater than 26

A

alkalosis

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28
Q

what is the purpose of endoscopy/ laryngoscopy

A

visualize the vocal cords, remove foreign objects, obtain tissue samples

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29
Q

what is the purpose of mediastinoscopy

A

insertion above the sternum to the area between the lungs, visualize tumors, obtain tissue samples

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30
Q

what is the purpose of a bronchoscopy

A

permits visualization of the larynx, trachea, and bronchi

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31
Q

what is a/the purpose of thoracentesis

A

a large bore needle is inserted into the pleural space to obtain specimens, instill medications, remove fluid/air

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32
Q

upper respiratory conditions

A
  • allergic rhinitis
  • bacterial/ viral infection
  • sinusitis/ rhinitis
  • influenza
  • epistaxis
  • obstructive sleep apnea
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33
Q

lower respiratory conditions

A
  • bronchitis
  • pneumonia
  • pulmonary TB
  • fungal histoplasmosis
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34
Q

what is rhinitis

A

a upper respiratory infection

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35
Q

rhinitis pathophysiology

A

inflammation of the mucosa and sinuses

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36
Q

sinusitis/ rhinosinusitis pathophysiology

A
  • inflammation of the mucous membrane of one or more sinuses
  • swelling and inflammation block drainage and lead to infection
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37
Q

when does sinusitis/ rhinosinusitis occur

A

after rhinitis

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38
Q

bronchitis pathophysiology

A

inflammation of the bronchi

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39
Q

pneumonia pathophysiology

A
  • many causes that result in reduced gas exchange
  • excess fluid in the lungs
  • acute infection of lung parenchyma
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40
Q

what is community acquired pneumonia (CAP)

A

contracted outside the healthcare system

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41
Q

what is healthcare associated pneumonia (HAP)

A

onset occurs less than 48 hours of hospital admission

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42
Q

what is hospital acquired pneumonia (HACP)

A

onset/ diagnosis greater than 48 hours of hospital admission

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43
Q

what is ventilator associated pneumonia (VAP)

A

onset/diagnosis within 48-72 hours after EET intubation

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44
Q

what is aspiration pneumonia

A

chemical pneumonitis of gastric contents

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45
Q

what is necrotizing pneumonia

A

cavitation of lung and abscess
RARE

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46
Q

what is opportunistic pneumonia

A

immunocompromised leading to pneumocystis jiroveci (PJP) and cytomegalovirus (CMV)

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47
Q

best position for pneumonia/ respiratory patients

A

high-fowler’s

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48
Q

most used medication for pneumonia

A

penicillin and cephlosporins

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49
Q

latent TB pathophysiology

A
  • TB lives but doesn’t grow in the body
  • don’t make a person feel sick or have symptoms
  • can’t spread
  • can advance to TB disease
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50
Q

TB disease pathophysiology

A
  • Tb is active and grows in the body
  • makes a person feel sick and have symptoms
  • can spread from person to person
  • can cause death if not treated
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51
Q

pulmonary TB medications

A
  • Isoniazid (INH)
  • Rifampin (RIF)
  • Pyrazinamide (PZA)
  • Ethambutol
  • Streptomycin Sulfate
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52
Q

what is histoplasmosis

A

fungal infection

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53
Q

histoplasmosis pathophysiology

A

inhalation of spores, not transmittable

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54
Q

biggest risk factor to contracting histoplasmosis

A

bird and bat droppings

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55
Q

histoplasmosis treatment

A

amphotericin B-IV

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56
Q

what is epistaxis

A

nosebleed

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57
Q

when is a nosebleed considered an emergency

A
  • non stop bleeding for 20 minutes
  • significant blood loss
  • caused by severe trauma
  • patient has high BP
  • can taste blood
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58
Q

obstructive sleep apnea pathophysiology

A

obstruction or narrowing of air passages r/t relaxation

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59
Q

healthy alveoli look like what compared to unhealthy alveoli

A

healthy look like popcorn
unhealthy look like turtle chocolate candy

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60
Q

respiratory alkalosis s/s

A
  • seizures
  • rapid deep breathing
  • hyperventilation
  • tachycardia
  • low or normal BP
  • hypokalemia
  • numbness and tingling of extremities
  • lethargy and confusion
  • light headedness
  • N/V
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61
Q

respiratory alkalosis causes

A
  • hyperventilation
  • mechanical ventilation
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62
Q

respiratory acidosis s/s

A
  • hypoventilation > hypoxia
  • rapid shallow respirations
  • skin/ mucosa pale to cyanotic
  • headache
  • dysrhythmias
  • increase potassium
  • drowsiness, dizziness, disorientation
  • muscle weakness, hyperreflexia
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63
Q

respiratory acidosis causes

A
  • respiratory distress
  • airway obstruction
  • pneumonia, COPD, ARDS, PE
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64
Q

metabolic alkalosis s/s

A
  • confusion
  • dysrhythmia (tachy from decrease K+)
  • compensatory hypoventilation
  • dizzy
  • increased irritability
  • N/V, diarrhea
  • anxiety
  • seizures
  • tremors, muscle cramps, tingling of fingers and toes
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65
Q

metabolic alkalosis causes

A
  • increased HCO3 (antacids)
  • NG suctioning
  • prolonged vomiting
  • hypercortisolism
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66
Q

metabolic acidosis s/s

A
  • headache
  • low BP
  • muscle twitching
  • warm flush skin
  • n/v
  • decrease muscle tone/ reflexes
  • kussmaul respirations
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67
Q

metabolic acidosis causes

A
  • DKA
  • hyper metabolism
  • renal failure
  • dehydration
  • liver failure
  • diarrhea
  • fistulas
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68
Q

metabolic acidosis treatment

A
  • bicarbonate
  • fluids
  • for DKA: IV insulin, normal saline, K+, D50
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69
Q

metabolic alkalosis treatment

A
  • fluid and electrolyte repletion
  • decrease n/v
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70
Q

respiratory acidosis treatment

A
  • bronchodilator
  • antibiotics
  • fluids
  • ventilation
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71
Q

respiratory alkalosis treatment

A
  • reventilate (paper bag)
  • oxygen
  • anti-anxiety/ sedative meds
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72
Q

pH: 7.32
CO2: 36
HCO3: 19

A

uncompensated metabolic acidosis

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73
Q

pH: 7.1
CO2: 43
HCO3: 13

A

uncompensated metabolic acidosis

74
Q

pH: 7.87
CO2: 39
HCO3: 33

A

uncompensated metabolic alkalosis

75
Q

pH: 7.32
CO2: 53
HCO3: 30

A

partially compensated respiratory acidosis

76
Q

pH: 7.36
CO2: 36
HCO3: 25

77
Q

pH: 7.36
CO2: 47
HCO3: 27

A

fully compensated respiratory acidosis

78
Q

pH: 7.54
CO2: 37
HCO3: 31

A

uncompensated metabolic alkalosis

79
Q

pH:7.28
CO2: 31
HCO3: 16

A

partially compensated metabolic acidosis

80
Q

pH: 7.59
CO2: 43
HCO3: 38

A

uncompensated metabolic alkalosis

81
Q

pH: 7.2
CO2: 49
HCO3: 29

A

partially compensated respiratory acidosis

82
Q

what does amantadine (symmetreal) treat

A

parkinsons disease

83
Q

what should be monitored when taking amantadine (symmetreal)

A
  • renal function
  • mental status including psychosis, hallucinations, depression, suicidal ideations, and dizziness
  • blood and urine test, patients may become agitated, irritable, or display abnormal behaviors
84
Q

what does rimantadine (flumadine) treat

A

used to prevent flu A in patients older than 17

85
Q

rimantadine (flumadine) side effects

A

extreme drowsiness, suddenly fall asleep, lightheadedness

86
Q

how long should rimantadine (flumadine) be prescribed for

A

5-7 days, do not miss any doses

87
Q

what is ribavirin (rebetol) used to treat

A

hepatits C

88
Q

what are contraindications of ribavirin (rebetol)

A

heart problems

89
Q

when taking ribavirin (rebetol) let your doctor know if this symptom presents

A

chest pain

90
Q

what can ribavirin (rebetol) lead to in patients with heart issues

A

heart attack

91
Q

what does zanamivir (relenza) used to treat

A

infection caused by the flu virus

92
Q

dosing for zanamivir (relenza)

A

inhale at least 12 hours apart and at the same time daily

93
Q

zanamivir (relenza) adverse effects

A

SOA, trouble breathing, wheezing

94
Q

what is oseltamivir (tamiflu) used to treat

A

infections caused by viruses

95
Q

how long does a patient have to start oseltamivir (tamiflu) after being exposed to the flu

96
Q

oseltamivir (tamiflu) adverse effects

A

agitation, irritability, abnormal behaviors

97
Q

what does penicillin treat

A

infection caused by bacteria

98
Q

when should you take penicillin

A

take with a full glass of water on an empty stomach 1 hour before meals or 2 hours after meals

99
Q

penicillin adverse effects

A

anaphylaxis, hives, rash, itching

100
Q

what does cephalosporins treat

A

wide range of infections from gram-positive to gram-negative bacteria

101
Q

what should be monitored for when taking cephalosporins

A

superinfection and rash

102
Q

adverse effects of cephalosporins

A

seizures and encephalopathy

103
Q

what does isoniazid treat

A

TB or to prevent its return

104
Q

isoniazid adverse effects

A

tired and weak

105
Q

what doe rifampin treat

106
Q

when should rifampin be taken

A

1 hour before meals or 2 hours after

107
Q

what can happen to body fluids when taking rifampin

A

turn orange/ reddish color

108
Q

what is pyrazinamide used to treat

A

used to kill growth of bacteria that causes TB

109
Q

pyrazinamide adverse effects

A

fever, joint pain, swelling, easy bruising, nausea, dark urine, feeling tired, not hungry, upset stomach, stomach pain, light colored stools, vomiting, yellow skin/eyes

110
Q

what is ethambutol used to treat

A

kills certain bacterias that causes TB

111
Q

ethambutol contrainindications

A

kidney disease, gout, eye disorders such as cataracts

112
Q

ethambutol adverse effects

A

blurry vision, red/green color blindness, loss of vision, numbness, tingling, burning pain, weakness, skin rash

113
Q

what is streptomycin sulfate used to treat

114
Q

what should you not do during streptomycin sulfate therapy

A

get pregnant

115
Q

streptomycin sulfate adverse effects

A

damage to hearing and sense of balance

116
Q

what is amphotericin B used treat

A

serious and potentially life threatening fungal infections

117
Q

amphotericin B adverse effects

A

n/v, fever, hypertension, hypotension, hypoxia

118
Q

what is prednisone used to treat

A

asthma, allergic reaction, arthritis, inflammatory bowel diseases, adrenal/ blood/ bone marrow disorders

119
Q

what does prednisone do to the immune system

A

may decrease your ability to fight infection and may prevent you from developing symptoms if you get an infection

120
Q

prednisone adverse effects

A

elevated blood sugar, mood swings, memory/ behavior issues, confusion, delirium, upset stomach

121
Q

what is prednisolone used to treat

A

allergies, blood disorders, skin diseases, inflammation, infections, certain cancers, prevent organ rejection after a transplant

122
Q

how to prevent stomach upset when taking prednisolone

A

take with breakfast

123
Q

prednisolone side effects

A

hunger, retain water

124
Q

what is triamcinolone used for

A

topical treatment for itching, redness, dryness, crusting, scaling, inflammation, discomfort of various skin conditions, psoriasis

125
Q

what issue is associated with triamcinolone

A

adrenal gland issues

126
Q

what is methylprednisolone used for

A

inflammation, severe allergies, adrenal problems, arthritis, blood or bone marrow problems, eye or vision issues, lupus, skin conditions, kidney problems, ulcerative colitis, flare ups of MS

127
Q

methylprednisolone contraindications

A

liver, kidney, heart, or intestinal disease

128
Q

what can methylprednisolone cause changes in

A

mood or behavior

129
Q

what is dexamethasone used for

A

relief from inflamed areas of the body

130
Q

when should you take dexamthasone

A

in the mornings to avoid messing with sleep

131
Q

what can happen with longterm dexamethasone use

A

thinner bones, eyesight problems, slower growth in children and teens

132
Q

what is albuterol used to prevent/treat

A

wheezing, difficulty breathing, chest tightness, coughing d/t lung diseases ( asthma, COPD)

133
Q

what should be monitored during albuterol therapy

A

RR, O2, lung sounds

134
Q

albuterol adverse effects

A

tachycardia, palpitations

135
Q

what is ipratropium used to manage

A

symptoms of lung diseases such as asthma, chronic bronchitis, and emphysema

136
Q

what should you do while inhaling ipratropium

A

close your eyes so it dont get in them

137
Q

ipratropium adverse effects

A

eye pain or discomfort, blurred vision, seeing halos

138
Q

what is salmeterol used for

A

to PREVENT asthma attacks, treat COPD

139
Q

how/when to use salmeterol

A

same time every day, twice daily every 12 hours

140
Q

salmeterol adverse effects

A

welts, rash, angioedema, bronchospasm, headache, tremors, anaphylaxis

141
Q

what are patients that use salmeterol at risk for and how to prevent it

A

thrush, rinse mouth after use

142
Q

what is Flonase use for

A

seasonal allergies, yearlong allergic and non allergic nasal symptoms such as stuffy nose, itching, and sneezing

143
Q

Flonase adverse effects

A

nosebleeds, nasal ulcers, headaches, sore throat, nausea, cough, nasal burning/ itching

144
Q

what is Flovent used for

A

helps prevent asthma symptoms by reducing inflammation in the airways

145
Q

how to use flovent

A
  • breathe in a deep breath
  • hold for 10 seconds
  • breathe out
  • rinse mouth with water without swallowing after each inhalation
146
Q

Flovent adverse effects

A

rash, itching/ swelling of face, tongue, or throat, severe dizziness, trouble breathing

147
Q

what is guaifenesin used for

A

to help clear mucus or phlegm from the lungs

148
Q

guaifenesin adverse effects

A

headache, n/v, rash, itching/swelling of face, tongue, throat, severe dizziness, trouble breathing

149
Q

what is dextromethorphan used for

A

temporally relieve cough caused by the common cold, flu, or other conditions

150
Q

who should not use dextromethorphan for cough

A
  • chronic cough from smoking
  • asthma
  • emphysema
  • if there are unusually large amounts of mucus with cough
151
Q

what is inhaled epinephrine used for

A

temp relief for mild symptoms of a weak type of asthma

152
Q

inhaled epi adverse effects

A

pulmonary edema, chest pain, difficult/ fast/ noisy breathing, blue lips or fingernails, pale skin, increased sweating, cough (may be pink frothy sputum), swelling in legs or ankles, sudden worsening of breathing problem/ asthma

153
Q

what are calcium channel blockers used for

A

to treat conditions of the heart and blood vessels such as hypertension, angina, some abnormal heart rhythms, and Raynaud’s phenomenon

154
Q

calcium channel blocker adverse effects

A

ankle swelling, flushing, and palpitations, constipations, dizziness, fatigue

155
Q

what is bosentan used for

A

first line treatment for pulmonary artery hypertension

156
Q

bosentan adverse effects

A

liver damage, pain/tenderness in the upper stomach, pale stool, dark urine, loss of appetite, n/v, yellow eyes/skin

157
Q

what is treprostinil used for

A

certain types of pulmonary arterial hypertension

158
Q

treprostinil dosing

A

take when you wake up, no more than every 4 hours

159
Q

treprostinil adverse effects

A

SOA, fainting, dizziness, diarrhea, flushing

160
Q

what is sildenafil used for

A

relax blood vessels in the lungs to allow blood to flow easily, ED

161
Q

how often can you take sildenafil

A

once a day

162
Q

what can you not have while taking sildenafil

A

grapefruit juice

163
Q

sildenafil adverse effects

A

headache, flushing, dyspepsia, abnormal vision, nasal congestion, back pain, nauseam dizziness, rash

164
Q

what is bumex used for

A

swelling from the heart, kidneys, liver disease by making you pee more to remove salt and excess water from your body

165
Q

bumex adverse affects

A

unusual bleeding, bruising, black tarry stools, blood in urine or stool, pinpoint red spots on your skin, muscle cramps

166
Q

what is furosemide used for

A

treat edema

167
Q

how should you take furosemide

A

on empty stomach, 1 hour before food or 2 hours after due to food interfering with absorption

168
Q

adverse affect of furosemide

A

severe stomach pain which could reach through to the back

169
Q

how long is blood type and crossmatch good for before and after a transfusion

A

before: up to 30 days
after: 72 hours after the first unit

170
Q

what is the max blood administration time

171
Q

how long before blood infusion should pre infusion meds be administered

A

30 minutes

172
Q

type O can receive blood from

A

only type O

173
Q

type A can receive blood from

174
Q

type B can receive blood from

A

type B and O

175
Q

type AB can receive blood from

A

AB, A, B, and O

176
Q

Rh+ can receive blood from

A

Rh+ and Rh-

177
Q

Rh- can receive blood from

178
Q

mild to moderate blood transfusion reactions

A

mental status change, itching, anxiety, changes in vital signs, n/v, flushing, headache

179
Q

severe blood transfusion reactions

A

increased heart rate, fever, anxiety, n/v, back pain, chest tightness, SOA, dyspnea

180
Q

what to do during a suspected blood transfusion reaction

A
  • STOP THE TRANSFUSION
  • disconnect the IV tubing from the patient
  • obtain new IV tubing to run NS
  • obtain a set of vital signs
  • assess respiratory and cardiac status
  • notify provider
  • notify blood bank
  • monitor cardiac, respiratory, and urinary status
  • document reaction, treatment, and response
  • advise patient to report reaction to future providers
181
Q

at what times should vitals be check during a blood transfusion

A
  • before
  • 15 minutes after started
  • every hour thereafter
182
Q

what is the only solution you can run with blood during a transfusion