WBC Disorders Flashcards

1
Q

What is a left shift? What are these cells involved characterized by?

A

It occurs when immature neutrophils are released from the bone marrow in order to respond to infection or necrosis. These immature cells have decreased Fc receptors (CD 16).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is the only bacteria that shows a high lymphocyte count?

A

Bordetella pertussis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What are the three main organs/sites that EBV infects?

A

Oropharynx (pharyngitis), liver (hepatitis), B cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What does the CD 8 T cell response in infectious mononucleosis lead to?

A

Generalized LAD, splenomegaly, high WBC count with atypical lymphocytes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What test is used for screening of infectious mononucleosis?

A

Monospot test. Give heterophile antibodies which bind to serum IgM antibodies; test turns positive within 1 week after infection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What test is used for diagnosis of infectious mononucleosis?

A

Serologic testing for EBV viral capsid antigen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What are three complications of infectious mononucleosis?

A
  1. Increased risk for splenic rupture - avoid contact sports for 1 year
  2. Rash with penicillin
  3. Dormancy of virus in B cells - increased risk of recurrence and development of B cell lymphoma especially with HIV
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Which cells are the most sensitive to radiation in the human body?

A

Lymphocytes! Most common radiation-induced cancer (after skin) leukemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What are some clinical features of acute leukemias?

A
  1. > 20% blasts in bone marrow
  2. High WBC count because blasts enter blood
  3. Pancytopenia because blasts crowd out bone marrow - losing normal cells
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

How do blasts appear on blood smear?

A

Large, immature cells with punched out nucleoli

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Which leukemias is Down syndrome associated with?

A

Before Age 5: Acute Megakaryoblastic Leukemia

After Age 5: ALL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Which leukemia requires prophylaxis to scrotum and CSF during chemotherapy?

A

B-ALL; chemotherapy unable to cross blood brain or blood testes barriers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What does T-ALL usually present as?

A

Usually presents in teenagers as a mediastinal/thymic mass –> also called acute lymphoblastic lymphoma
*Remember T T T

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

AML is usually seen in which group of people?

A

Older adults

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

How is DIC associated with acute promyelocytic leukemia?

A

The abnormal promyeloblasts that accumulate contain numerous granules. When patients are given ATRA, these cells mature and granules are released; this can lead to DIC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What are myelodysplastic syndromes characterized by?

A

Cells are not being formed properly so are not released into blood –> cytopenia, hypercellular bone marrow, abnormal maturation of cells
Increased blasts but < 20% (can progress to acute leukemia if blasts >20%)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What are some causes of myelodysplastic syndromes?

A

Alkylating agents or radiotherapy

Pre-existing dysplasia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What are some clinical features of chronic leukemia?

A
  1. High WBC count
  2. Increased proliferation of mature circulating lymphocytes
  3. Insidious in onset and in older adults
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What is the most common leukemia overall?

A

CLL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Which leukemia co-expresses CD5 and CD20?

A

CLL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What is CLL characterized by?

A
  1. Disease of elderly
  2. Co-express CD5 & CD20
  3. Increased lymphocytes and smudge cells
  4. Can involve lymph nodes and lead to generalized lymphadenopathy - small lymphocytic lymphoma
22
Q

What are three complications of CLL?

A
  1. Hypogammaglobulinemia: neoplastic B cells do not produce Ig
  2. Autoimmune hemolytic anemia: even if they make Ig, do a bad job making it
  3. Richter transformation to diffuse large B cell lymphoma (enlarging lymph node or spleen)
23
Q

Why do you see a dry tap on bone marrow aspiration in hairy cell leukemia?

A

Bone marrow fibrosis

24
Q

What are the clinical features of hairy cell leukemia?

A
  1. TRAP positive stain
  2. Splenomegaly (trapped in red pulp)
  3. NO generalized lymphadenopathy
  4. Dry tap on bone marrow aspiration
25
Q

What are the clinical features of Adult T-Cell Leukemia/Lymphoma?

A
  1. Rash/skin infiltration
  2. Generalized lymphadenopathy
  3. Hepatosplenomegaly
  4. Lytic bone lesions with hypercalcemia
26
Q

What is ATLL associated with?

A

HTLV1; seen in Japan & Caribbean

27
Q

What are the clinical features of mycosis fungiodes?

A

Skin infiltrations - skin rash, plaques, nodules

–> If it goes into the blood called Sezary syndrome

28
Q

What are Pautrier microabscesses?

A

Aggregates of neoplastic T cells in epidermis in mycosis fungiodes

29
Q

What are Sezary cells?

A

Lymphocytes with cerebriform nuclei seen on blood smear; indicates that mycosis fungiodes has entered blood stream

30
Q

Is there a cure for mycosis fungiodes?

A

NO! Fatal lymphoma; can come back

31
Q

What are some characteristics of myeloproliferative disorders overall?

A
  1. High WBC count

2. Cells of all myeloid lineages increased but classified based on dominant myeloid cell produced

32
Q

What are two complications of myeloproliferative disorders?

A
  1. Increased risk for hyperuricemia & gout (increased turnover of cells)
  2. Progression to marrow fibrosis or transformation to acute leukemia
33
Q

Which types of cells are increased in CML?

A

Mature myeloid cells; especially granulocytes and basophils

34
Q

What are complications of CML?

A

Transformation to AML (2/3 of cases) or ALL (1/3 of cases(

* Enlarging spleen indicates accelerated phase of disease

35
Q

What are the clinical symptoms of polycthemia vera due to to? Name 4 symptoms.

A

Hyperviscosity of blood!

  1. Blurry vision and headache
  2. Increased risk of venous thrombosis (Hepatic vein, portal vein, sinus)
  3. Plethora - flushed face
  4. Itching especially after bathing (stimulates mast cells to release histamine)
36
Q

How do you treat polycythemia vera?

A

Phlebotomy; hydroxyurea; reduce risk of vascular events - aspirin

37
Q

How serious is polycythemia vera?

A

Death within a year if untreated!

38
Q

Why is there no significant risk of hyperuricemia or gout in patients with essential thrombocytopenia?

A

Platelets have no nucleus - no nuclear material to turn over

39
Q

What are clinical symptoms of patients with essential thrombocytopenia?

A

Increased risk of bleeding and/or thrombosis or can be asymptomatic

40
Q

Which cells are increased in myelofibrosis?

A

Neoplastic proliferation of mature myeloid cells especially megakaryocytes; produce excess PDGF leading to marrow fibrosis

41
Q

What are clinical features of myelofibrosis?

A
  1. Spleno/hepatomegaly due to extramedullary hematopoiesis
  2. Leukoerythroblastic smear: dacrocytes, nucleated RBCs, immature granulocytes –>
  3. Increased risk of infection, thrombosis and bleeding
42
Q

How can staging and leukemic phase be used to differentiate between Hodgkin and Non Hodgkin lymphoma?

A

Hodgkin - staging guides therapy; no leukemic phase

Non-Hodgkin - staging not very important; leukemic phase usually occurs

43
Q

When do non-Hodgkin lymphomas present? What about Hodgkins?

A

Non-Hodgkin - late adulthood

Hodgkin - young adults

44
Q

What is marginal zone lymphoma associated with?

A

Chronic inflammatory states: Hashimoto thyroiditis, Sjogren syndrome, H pylori gastritis

45
Q

What type of cells does the marginal zone contain?

A

Post-germinal center B cells

46
Q

What is Burkitt’s lymphoma associated with?

A

EBV and HIV

47
Q

What does the release of cytokines by Reed-Sternberg cells result in?

A
  1. B Symptoms: fever, chills, sweats
  2. Attracts reactive lymphocytes, plasma cells, macrophages and eosinophils
  3. Fibrosis may occur
48
Q

What is the most common primary malignancy of bone?

A

Multiple myeloma

49
Q

What cytokine is often present in multiple myeloma?

A

IL-6: stimulates plasma cell growth and Ig production

50
Q

What are clinical features of multiple myeloma?

A

C: hyperCalcemia with bone pain because of activation of RANK receptor on osteoclasts leading to lytic bone lesions
R: Renal failure because of free light chains depositing in kidney tubules
A: Anemia because increased serum protein decreases charge between RBCs causing them to stack
B: Bence Jones protein (light chains) in urine

51
Q

What is Waldenstrom Macroglobulinemia characterized by?

A

B-cell lymphoma with monoclonal IgM production

52
Q

What are four clinical features of Waldenstrom macroglobulinemia?

A
  1. Generalized LAD
  2. M spike (IgM)
  3. Serum hyperviscosity –> visual and neurologic deficits
  4. Bleeding (defective platelet aggregation)