Warning Systems

Question 1

What are considered GPWS “radio altitude-
based alerts?”

Answer 1

• Excessive Descent Rate.
• Excessive Terrain Closure Rate.
• Altitude loss after takeoff or go-around.
• Unsafe terrain clearance when not in the
landing configuration.
• Excessive deviation below an ILS glideslope.

Question 2

Additionally, how does the (E)GPWS provide
“look-ahead terrain alerts?”

Answer 2

Using an internal world-wide terrain database

Question 3

What condition will inhibit a terrain alert?

Answer 3

An actual windshear warning (aircraft in windshear).

Question 4

Can terrain and weather radar show together
on a display?

Answer 4

No. If one pilot selects terrain and the other pilot
selects weather radar, each display updates on
alternating sweeps.

Question 5

What conditions inhibit TCAS alerts?

Answer 5

GPWS and windshear warnings.

Question 6

What must an aircraft be equipped with to allow
Resolution Advisories?

Answer 6

Mode C Transponder

Question 7

Why should TCAS be placed in TA ONLY when
performance is limited, such as with an inoperative
engine?

Answer 7

To prevent receiving RAs beyond the aircraft’s
capabilities

Question 8

GPWS windshear alerts are enabled below
what altitude?

Answer 8

1,500 ft RA. GPWS Windshear detection begins at
rotation.

Question 9

When does the weather radar automatically
begin scanning for windshear

Answer 9

(-700) Thrust levers set for takeoff, even if engine is
off or IRS not aligned or in flight below 2,300 ft RA
(predictive windshear alerts are issued below 1,200
ft RA).

(-800) Thrust levers set for takeoff or in flight below
1,800 ft RA (predictive windshear alerts are issued
below 1,200 ft RA).

(MAX) Thrust levers set for takeoff, even if engine is
off or IRS not aligned or in flight below 1800 RA
(predictive windshear alerts are issued below 1,200
ft RA).

Question 10

When are Predictive Windshear Cautions
inhibited?

Answer 10

Between 80 kts and 400 ft RA

Question 11

When are Predictive Windshear Warnings
inhibited?

Answer 11

Between 100 kts and 50 ft RA

Question 12

You are on final for a CAT III approach and the
RVR is reported below minimums. What would you
do?

Answer 12

Go-Around. A Look-See Approach is not authorized
during CAT III approaches.

Question 13

What HGS Mode(s) may be used during CAT
II and SA CAT I approaches?

Answer 13

PRI, IMC or AIII (Unless AIII mode is specifically
required on the Jepp Approach plate).

Question 14

During Taxi, what is required while performing
Intensive Tasks when the visibility is reported below
4000 RVR or 3/4 miles?

Answer 14

Stop the aircraft and set the parking brake.

Question 15

Prior to departure while reviewing your
weather packet, you notice the forecast for your
destination indicates a chance of thunderstorms and wind gusts greater than 20 knots. Is an alternate required?

Answer 15

Yes. Company requires an alternate be listed when
your ETA, from one hour before to one hour after, andThunderstorms or wind gusts greater than 20kts more than the steady state wind velocity

Question 16

When is a takeoff alternate required?

Answer 16

when the weather conditions at the departure airport are below non-HGS CAT I
landing minimums

Question 17

What are the fuel requirements needed to
complete a flight?

Answer 17

No aircraft will depart with less fuel than is required by
the CFR. Each flight must be released with sufficient
fuel to at least comply with the following:

• Fly to the airport to which it is dispatched.
Note: This includes the fuel required to fly one
instrument approach.

• Thereafter, to fly to and land at the most distant
alternate airport, where required, for the airport
to which dispatched.

• Thereafter, to fly for 45 minutes at normal
cruising fuel consumption.

Question 18

What important limitation is associated with
the Engine Anti-ice on the MAX?

Answer 18

AFM L (MAX) The use of engine anti-ice (EAI) when
not in actual or anticipated icing conditions is
prohibited.

Note: Failure to follow anti-ice procedures can result in
engine cowl lip damage.
Note: This limitation does not apply to any engine
dispatched under Minimum Equipment List

Question 19

When is an overweight landing permitted?

Answer 19

• An emergency
• Any condition or combination thereof, in which an expeditious landing would reduce exposure to the risk of additional problems that would result in a compromise of safety

• A Passenger or Crew Member needs
immediate medical attention

• Any inflight interruption due to a non-normal
situation (e.g., aircraft system, ATC restriction,
company requirement) that prevents the flight
from continuing to the dispatched destination.

Question 20

If utilizing the optimum cooling procedure
during taxi-in, unless directed by a supplemental or
non-normal procedure, in what position is the FO
required to place the engine bleed switches during
the engine shutdown flow?

Answer 20

The engine bleed switches should be placed in the ON position during the engine shutdown flow

Question 21

When the autopilot is on and the flaps are
extended where should the Pilot Flying’s hands and
feet be positioned? What about the Pilot Monitoring?

Answer 21

(PF) Prior to the final approach segment, position
hands and feet on the aircraft controls when the
autopilot is engaged and flaps are extended for
maneuvering or approach.

(PM) Prior to the final approach segment, position
hands and feet to immediately assume control of the aircraft if circumstances warrant.

Question 22

Who initiates the 1000ft callout on ALL
approaches?

Answer 22

PM

Question 23

Inside the RRM Model, Risk factors are
anything that increases risk and decreases
performance. What 3 categories are Risk Factors
divided into?

Answer 23

Risk factors are split into three categories:
1. Task Loading
2. Additive Conditions
3. Crew Factors

Question 24

Inside the RRM model what actions do you
perform to improve operational effectiveness and
reduce risk?

Answer 24

A - Assess
B - Balance
C – Communicate risk and intentions
D – Do and Debrief

Question 25

Fill in the graphic for the Operational
Philosophy of Southwest Airlines.

Red check mark?
Green money $ symbol?
Blue airplane symbol?

Answer 25

Red check mark - Safety
$ symbol - Low-Cost
Airplane - reliablility

Question 26

What is the only way to verify that an MCP
mode selection has occurred?

Answer 26

Proper annunciation on the FMA is the only way to
verify that an MCP mode selection has occurred.

Question 27

What are the authorized MCP modes for an
LDA Approach with Glideslope? What about an LDA
without Glideslope?

Answer 27

With Glideslope: VOR/ LOC and APP
Without Glideslope: Roll- LNAV or VOR/LOC
Pitch- VNAV or V/S

Question 28

You are at the gate in KMIA and dispatch
informs you that the PWB will be unavailable due to
a malfunction at the PWB data center. What
resource do you have to acquire take off data?

Answer 28

If a component in the event of systems or component outages (e.g., Ops Suite not available, ACARS inoperative, internet connection not available, or PWB Data Center inoperative), the following PWB sources,
in order, may be used:

1. AeroData cFDP app on the EFB
   communicating with the PWB Data Center
2. Dispatch app communicating with the PWB
   Data Center
3. Flight Suite app on the EFB

Question 29

Where would you find instructions for using
Flight Suite?

Answer 29

AOM 17.9.1
Flight Operations Bulletin 23-21

Question 30

What are the limitations when using Flight
Suite for takeoff?

Answer 30

The use of Flight Suite for Takeoff is only authorized if:

• The Flight Deck Crew contacts the flight’s
Dispatcher.

• The flight’s Dispatcher verifies that the PWB
Data Center is either not operational or not
available due to a technology issue between
Southwest Airlines and the Data Center
preventing the calculation of takeoff data.
Flight Suite for Takeoff is not authorized under any of the following conditions:

• Performance limiting MEL or any CDL