W9 MCQ (Trial, Appeal & Enforcement) Flashcards
A consent order can be used to settle:
A. Either / both an interim application or/and an entire claim.
B. An entire claim.
C. An interim application.
A. Either / both an interim application or/and an entire claim.
Consent orders can be used to settle an entire claim, but they can also be used for an interim application. For example, if one party needs to apply for extra time for service of witness statements, and the other side agrees to this, then the parties will file a consent order at court and ask the court to approve the consent order (thus allowing the extension). The court is not obliged to do so – it can still refuse the extension – but the court is much more likely to grant an application that all parties agree to.
The parties settle a breach of contract claim by the Defendant agreeing to pay the Claimant £15,000 and the Claimant giving the Defendant reduced prices on the Claimant’s goods for the next 1 year. Does this need to be reflected in a Tomlin Order, or can a simple Consent Order be used?
A. A Tomlin Order is required.
B. A Consent Order is sufficient.
A. A Tomlin Order is required.
The court does not have the power to order that the Claimant must provide its goods on particular terms to the Defendant in a breach of contract claim, so this cannot be included on the face of a Consent Order. These provisions will need to go in the schedule to a Tomlin Order.
A Claimant writes a letter of claim to a Defendant in accordance with the Professional Negligence Pre-Action Protocol. Following the Defendant’s reply, the parties agree to mediate. At the mediation, the Defendant agrees to pay the Claimant £65,000 in full and final settlement. How should this settlement be recorded?
A. In a settlement agreement.
B. In a Tomlin Order (and schedule).
C. In a Consent Order.
A. In a settlement agreement.
No proceedings have been issued, so a Consent Order / Tomlin Order is not required. If the settlement agreement is breached, then the aggrieved party effectively has to commence proceedings for breach of contract – the contract being the settlement agreement.
You act for Teleparts Limited, which manufactures parts for televisions. It has instructed you to issue proceedings against Paul Rank & Co, an electronic goods retailer, for failure to pay for goods delivered. The court fixed the trial date to commence on Tuesday 26 November. What is the latest date by which trial bundles must be filed with the court?
A. Tuesday 19 November
B. Saturday 23 November
C. Friday 22 November
D. Wednesday 20 November
E. Thursday 21 November
D. Wednesday 20 November
The trial is due to begin on Tuesday 26 November. Trial Bundles must be filed by the claimant not more than 7 days and not less than 3 days before the start of the trial (CPR 39.5(2)). Trial is an “event” and so when counting time (CPR 2.8) this date and the day on which the period begins must be excluded. Days means clear days. The last date on which the trial bundles can be filed is less than 5 days so Saturday and Sunday must also be excluded (CPR 2.8(4)). The trial bundle must therefore be filed at court by Wednesday 20th November. Although counting time is not dealt with in the ‘preparation for trial and trial’ element, this question serves as a reminder that there are time limits and deadlines throughout civil proceedings, including pre-trial, and therefore the counting time rules are just as applicable here.
At the pre-trial review, what direction MUST the court give on listing?
A. Evidence of experts
B. Evidence of witnesses of fact
C. Fix the trial date
D. Preparation of trial bundles
E. Trial timetable
C. Fix the trial date
The guidance on directions the court must give on listing include that the court will fix the trial date (or confirm the date already given)( PD29). It must also give a time estimate for trial and fix the place of trial. The directions the court may give on listing include provision about: evidence (in particular that of experts or other special arrangements), a trial timetable, the preparation of trial bundles and any other matters required to prepare the case for trial.
Who normally prepares the trial bundle?
A. Every party
B. Claimant
C. Court
D. Defendant
B. Claimant
What usually occurs after the claimant’s opening speech at trial?
A. Claimant’s re-examination
B. Closing speeches
C. Defendant’s cross-examination
D. Defendant’s evidence in chief
E. Claimant’s evidence in chief
E. Claimant’s evidence in chief
After the claimant’s opening speech, evidence will be called on behalf of the claimant. Such evidence may include the evidence of witnesses (of fact and experts), real evidence and documentary evidence. The witness statement of a witness will stand as the evidence-in-chief of that witness (unless the court orders otherwise)( CPR 32.5(2)). The witness will therefore often take the stand and simply confirm that it is his/her/their evidence after which the witness will be cross-examined by the defendant’s counsel and re-examined by their own counsel. The defendant’s case follows the claimant’s case with closing speeches at the end.
When addressing in court a High Court Judge, which of the following is in-keeping with court room etiquette?
A. Would you like me to provide a summary of the facts?
B. Would My Lord / Lady like me to provide a summary of the facts?
C. Would Your Honour like me to provide a summary of the facts?
D. Would Your Highness like me to provide a summary of the facts?
B. Would My Lord / Lady like me to provide a summary of the facts?
Judgment is given on 6 March against the Defendant in the sum of £10,000. The judgment is silent as to by when this must be paid. By when must it be paid?
A. It is not possible to say- clarification from the court will be required.
B. 20 March
C. 18 March.
D. 13 March
B. 20 March
Unless otherwise specified, parties have 14 days to comply with a judgment or order for the payment of money (CPR 40.11).
A judgment is obtained in the sum of £3,000 (the claim has nothing to do with the Consumer Credit Act 1974). The judgment creditor wants to enforce this by taking control of the debtor’s goods. In which court(s) can this judgment be enforced?
A. County Court only
B. County Court or High Court
C. It is not possible to enforce a judgment in the sum of £3,000 by taking control of goods.
D. High Court only
B. County Court or High Court
Sums of £5,000 or more must be enforced in the High Court. Where the sum is less than £600 or arises out of an agreement regulated by the Consumer Credit Act 1974, it must be enforced in the County Court. In between these financial limits, it can be enforced in either court.
Will an order to obtain information from a judgment debtor under CPR 71 always contain a penal notice?
A. Yes, a penal notice will be included to ensure the judgment debtor understands that they will be asked to answer questions under oath.
B. A penal notice will only be included if the judgment debtor’s assets are located abroad, as enforcement will be more difficult in these circumstances.
C. A penal notice might be included if it is anticipated that the judgment debtor might not comply, but this is not a requirement.
D. Yes, this is a requirement so that the judgment debtor can be imprisoned or fined if they do not comply with the order to attend court and answer questions.
E. No. A penal notice will not be required.
D. Yes, this is a requirement so that the judgment debtor can be imprisoned or fined if they do not comply with the order to attend court and answer questions.
In respect of the hearing following the order to obtain information from a debtor…
A. The hearing will be without notice and the debtor will not be notified of the date when it happened until afterwards.
B. The debtor will be given at least 3 days’ notice of the date of the hearing when they must attend court.
C. The debtor will be given at least 14 days’ notice of the date of the hearing when they must attend court.
D. The debtor will be given at least 28 days’ notice of the date of the hearing when they must attend court.
E. The debtor will be given at least 7 days’ notice of the date of the hearing when they must attend court.
C. The debtor will be given at least 14 days’ notice of the date of the hearing when they must attend court.
When is the best time to first consider / investigate an opponent’s means?
A. Upon receipt of the opponent’s precedent H (budget)?
B. Upon receipt of a defence
C. Before commencing proceedings
D. Before deciding what steps to take to enforce a judgment.
C. Before commencing proceedings
You need to investigate this at the outset – it is a pre-action consideration. To consider / investigate this only after commencing proceedings is too late, because by that time, your client is bound into proceedings.
A significant advantage of an order to obtain information in comparison with asking for information by correspondence is…
A. The court’s expertise is harnessed to determine appropriate questions.
B. The debtor might be fined if they refuse to cooperate.
C. The court has a record of the debtor’s answers.
D. It is quicker and more cost effective.
B. The debtor might be fined if they refuse to cooperate.
An order to obtain information will usually include a penal notice so that the debtor can be committed (ie imprisoned) or fined if they refuse to attend court or to comply with the investigation.
Companies House is useful when it comes to investigating a company’s ability to satisfy a judgment because…
A. …companies are required to file returns disclosing ability to pay any judgment entered against them.
B. …it has a register of directors against whom the judgment creditor may then wish to enforce the judgment, including useful details like their address.
C. …it keeps annual accounts for registered companies.
D. …it provides a credit rating in relation to registered companies.
C. …it keeps annual accounts for registered companies.
. Companies House does not provide credit ratings (but other organisations do, and this can be useful). Companies are not required to file returns in relation to their ability to pay any judgments. Companies House does keep a register of directors, but a judgment against a company cannot simply be enforced against a director – directors are not responsible for the debts of the company they direct.