W5 MCQ Flashcards

1
Q

Which of the following statements best describes the costs rules of general application?

A. The court has limited discretion as to costs and will always adopt the starting position that the unsuccessful party pays the costs of the successful party only moving away from this if the conduct of the receiving party makes it fair and just to do so.

B. The court has discretion as to costs with the general rule being that the unsuccessful party pays the costs of the successful party.

C. The court has discretion as to costs but will adopt the starting position that the unsuccessful party pays the costs of the successful party only moving away from this if the conduct of the paying party makes it fair and just to do so.

D. The court has no discretion as to costs and is bound by the rule that the unsuccessful party will always pay for costs of the successful party.

E. When deciding what costs order to make the court will have regard to three factors: the conduct of the party, the value of the claim and any settlement offers made.

A

B. The court has discretion as to costs with the general rule being that the unsuccessful party pays the costs of the successful party.

This is correct. The court has discretion as to whether costs are payable, the amount of costs and when they are to be paid and the general rule on costs (CPR 44.2(2)) is correctly described in this answer. When making a costs order, the court will consider the conduct of both parties and not just the receiving party.

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2
Q

The defendant to a large negligence claim has recently been served with the claim form and particulars of claim. There is no specific pre-action protocol governing the matter but to date the defendant has tried to avoid litigation by providing a detailed letter of response to the initial letter of claim, complying with all requests for information and disclosing key documents relevant to the dispute. It has also suggested some form of alternative dispute resolution (‘ADR’) on three separate occasions. All of these invitations to engage in ADR have been rejected outright by the claimant with no explanation given. How will the court view the claimant’s conduct when exercising its discretion as to costs?

A. The court will expect the claimant to actively engage in ADR but will not consider a refusal to do so to fall under any consideration of party conduct when exercising its discretion on costs.

B. If the defendant goes on to win at trial then the court is likely to exercise its discretion to deprive the claimant of some or all of its costs on the grounds that it has refused to agree to ADR.

C. If the claimant goes on to win at trial then the court is likely to exercise its discretion to deprive the claimant of some or all of its costs on the grounds that it has refused to agree to ADR.

D. If the claimant goes on to win at trial the court is likely to penalise the claimant for its refusal to engage in ADR by rejecting outright any claim for costs incurred during the pre-action stage.

E. The court will not expect the claimant to actively engage in ADR and so it is unlikely there will be any costs consequences of its refusal should it go on to win at trial.

A

C. If the claimant goes on to win at trial then the court is likely to exercise its discretion to deprive the claimant of some or all of its costs on the grounds that it has refused to agree to ADR.

When exercising its discretion on costs the court will have regard to a number of factors contained within the rules in relation to what order to make (CPR 44.2(4)) and in relation to the amount of costs to be awarded (CPR 44.4(3)). One factor common to both of these decisions is that the court will have regard to the parties’ conduct. An example of party conduct that might have an impact on costs is that of an unreasonable refusal by one party to engage in ADR (and this refusal does appear to be an unreasonable refusal).

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3
Q

At the trial of a multi track contractual claim, the court makes its judgment in favour of the defendant. What is the most likely costs order that the court will make in relation to costs?

A. The claimant to pay 100% of the defendant’s costs.

B. The defendant to pay the claimant’s cost on the standard basis.

C. The claimant to pay the defendant’s costs on the indemnity basis.

D. The claimant to pay the defendant’s costs on the standard basis.

E. The claimant to pay 80% of the defendant’s costs.

A

D. The claimant to pay the defendant’s costs on the standard basis.

This is correct: the claim has been successful, and it is normal for the unsuccessful party to pay the costs of the successful party. This would be the ‘usual rule’ given that the application has been unsuccessful (CPR 44.2 and 44 PD 4.2). There is nothing on the limited facts to suggest any of the other costs orders, nor indemnity costs.

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4
Q

Where costs are fixed by the CPR for a particular item, this means that…

A. …a party is entitled to payment of those costs by the opponent, unless the court orders otherwise.

B. …if the court awards costs for that item, the sum awarded will be as set out in the CPR.

C. …if the court awards costs for that item, the sum awarded will be as set out in the CPR, unless the court orders otherwise.

D. …if the court awards costs for that item, the sum awarded will be capped at the sum set out in the CPR, unless the court orders otherwise.

A

C. …if the court awards costs for that item, the sum awarded will be as set out in the CPR, unless the court orders otherwise.

The fixed costs regime applies unless the court orders otherwise. The fixed costs regime is about deciding how much costs should be paid if they are going to be paid, not whether costs should be paid.

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5
Q

If an application is due to be heard at 10am on Wednesday 5 November, when is the latest that a statement of costs (N260) can be filed and served in relation to that application?

A. 10am on Tuesday 4 November

B. 4pm on Tuesday 4 November

C. 4pm on Monday 3 November

D. 10am on Monday 3 November

A

A. 10 AM on Tuesday 4 November.

The statement of costs must be filed and served party not less than 24 hours before the time fixed for the hearing.

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6
Q

In which circumstances will costs be summarily assessed?

A. At the end of fast-track trials and at the end of interim hearings lasting not more than one day.

B. At the end of trials and interim hearings lasting not more than one day.

C. At the end of fast-track trials lasting not more than one day and at the end of interim hearings.

D. At the end of fast-track trials lasting not more than one day and at the end of interim hearings lasting not more than one day.

A

A. At the end of fast-track trials and at the end of interim hearings lasting not more than one day.

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7
Q

A judge hearing a defendant’s application to extend the time for service of a defence has granted the defendant the full 28 day extension requested. In her judgment she is highly critical of the claimant for failing to agree to any extension and refers to aspects of the claimant’s conduct which have put the defendant in a difficult position in the proceedings so far. Given the above which of the following interim costs orders is the judge most likely to make.

A. The defendant’s costs thrown away

B. No order as to costs

C. The defendant to pay the claimant’s costs in any event

D. The claimant to pay the defendant’s costs in any event

E. Costs in the case

A

D. The claimant to pay the defendant’s costs in any event

The judge has found in the defendant’s favour and is very critical of the claimant’s behaviour. The implication is that the judge has sympathy with the defendant and so is likely to award the costs it has incurred in bringing the application. The other options are not appropriate given the facts of the scenario. Costs thrown away relate to where a judgment or order is set aside, costs in the case would defer costs to final hearing and is less appropriate where the judge clearly favours one party’s position over the other and similarly no order as to costs ignores the fact that the judge is highly critical of the claimant’s conduct and sympathetic to the defendant’s position.

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8
Q

A claimant makes a successful application to court to adduce evidence from a further witness of fact. The hearing of the application lasted for an hour and at the end of the hearing the judge ordered that costs be in the case. Which of the following statements best describes the effect of the costs order made by the judge?

A. If the defendant is awarded costs at trial, the claimant does not have to pay the defendant’s costs of bringing its application.

B. The party in whose favour this order is made will recover the costs of the interim hearing from the other party regardless of who eventually wins at trial.

C. The party who eventually gets its costs at trial (usually the successful party) will recover its costs of this interim hearing from the other party.

D. If the claimant is successful and receives an order that it should be entitled to its costs at the end of trial, it cannot include the costs of opposing the defendant’s application.

E. The decision about who pays the costs of the interim hearing of the defendant’s application is put off to a later occasion.

A

C. The party who eventually gets its costs at trial (usually the successful party) will recover its costs of this interim hearing from the other party.

The effect of an interim order of ‘costs in the case’ is that the party that gets its costs following the final hearing of the dispute will recover its costs of that interim hearing. Putting off costs until a later occasion (not necessarily final hearing) is known as ‘costs reserved’. Recovery of the costs following the hearing regardless of who wins at trial is known as ‘costs in any event’. A situation where a claimant is awarded costs at the end of trial but cannot include its costs of the interim hearing would be an order for the ‘defendant’s costs in the case’. A situation where a defendant is awarded costs at trial but the claimant does not have to pay the defendant’s costs of the interim hearing would be an order for the ‘claimant’s costs in the case’.

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9
Q

A claimant has just succeeded in its interim application to amend its budget in light of significant developments in the proceedings. The hearing of the application lasted five hours and involved complex discussions on quantum and the value of forensic evidence. At the end of the hearing the judge ordered the claimant’s costs in any event. Which of the following statements best describes the effect of this order on the assessment of costs?

A. Given the complexities of the issues involved the judge is likely to involve an authorised court officer in the quantification of costs. Such assessment will take place immediately at the end of the hearing.

B. The judge will summarily assess the amount of the claimant’s costs immediately at the end of the hearing taking into consideration each party’s statement of costs and their respective brief submissions on what the costs order should be.

C. The judge will take the claimant’s statement of costs and unless it radically departs from the figures in the claimant’s budget the court will award those costs to be paid immediately or at the latest within 7 days of the order being made.

D. The judge will summarily assess the amount of the claimant’s costs immediately at the end of the hearing and then make a record of those costs so that they can be paid to the claimant following the final hearing of the dispute.

E. Given the complexities of the issues involved the judge is likely to involve an authorised court officer in the quantification of costs. Such assessment will take place at a later date when the officer will look at the costs incurred and decide how much should be paid.

A

B. The judge will summarily assess the amount of the claimant’s costs immediately at the end of the hearing taking into consideration each party’s statement of costs and their respective brief submissions on what the costs order should be.

Following a ‘costs in any event’ order at a hearing which has lasted less than one day the court will go on to summarily assess the claimant’s costs before deciding on an amount. The defendant must then pay these costs within 14 days of the costs order being made (CPR 44.7). It is the judge that will summarily assess the costs and not an authorised court officer. When summarily assessing costs the court will be primarily concerned with each party’s statement of costs and their respective submissions. The influence of the budget at this interim hearing will be less important than when the judge is deciding costs of the whole proceedings following the final hearing of the dispute.

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10
Q

Which of the following is not an example of the court’s power to manage cases? a) Extend time to comply with the court’s order to file a witness statement by 1st June. b) Require a party to attend court. c) Require a party to change its legal representative due to high legal costs. d) Require a party to file a costs budget. e) Require a party to take a step in the proceedings to further the overriding objective.

A. Require a party to attend court.

B. Require a party to file a costs budget.

C. Require a party to change its legal representative due to high legal costs.

D. Require a party to take a step in the proceedings to further the overriding objective.

E. Extend time to comply with the court’s order to file a witness statement by 1st June.

A

C. Require a party to change its legal representative due to high legal costs.

The court will not interfere with the legal representative a party chooses. If the court considers that the legal representative is charging excessive legal costs, the court will address this when making orders as to the recovery of costs.

The other possibilities are all examples of the court’s power to manage cases: Extend time to comply with the court’s order to file a witness statement by 1st June. Require a party to attend court. Require a party to file a costs budget. Require a party to take a step in the proceedings to further the overriding objective.

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11
Q

When can a court strike out a defendant’s statement of case? Choose the best answer.

A. The defendant has not filed a counterclaim.

B. The defendant has no real prospect of successfully defending the claim or issue and there is no other compelling reason why the case or issue should be disposed of at trial.

C. The defendant has not responded to one out of five alleged breaches set out in the claimant’s particulars of claim.

D. The defendant has failed to comply with a rule, practice direction or court order.

E. The defendant has not filed a defence.

A

D. The defendant has failed to comply with a rule, practice direction or court order.

Failure to comply with a rule, practice direction or court order is one of the grounds for strike out (CPR 3.4(c)). The others are (a) that the statement of case discloses no reasonable grounds from bringing or defending the claim and (b) that the statement of case is an abuse of the court’s process or is otherwise likely to obstruct the just disposal of the proceedings.

The defendant has not filed a defence is incorrect. This is a ground for default judgment (rather than strike out) (CPR 12.3). It is easy to confuse strike out, summary judgment and default judgment. The defendant has no real prospect of successfully defending the claim or issue and there is no other compelling reason why the case or issue should be disposed of at trial is incorrect. These are the grounds for summary judgment (rather than strike out) (CPR 24.2). It is easy to confuse strike out, summary judgment and default judgment. The defendant has not responded to one out of five alleged breaches set out in the claimant’s particulars of claim is not the best answer. It is unlikely to amount to one of the grounds for strike out, for example, (a) where the statement of case discloses no reasonable ground for bringing or defending a claim. To fall within this ground it is more likely that a defendant would have only filed a bare denial with no other information. The defendant has not filed a counterclaim is incorrect; the defendant is not obliged to file a counterclaim in addition to a defence and, indeed, may not have a counterclaim against the claimant.

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12
Q

Where a CPR / PD / court order requires a party to do something and stipulates the consequences of failing to comply, by how long can the parties extend the deadline?

A. The parties cannot extend such a deadline.

B. There is no limit (provided the parties do not put a hearing date at risk).

C. 14 days (provided this does not put a hearing date at risk).

D. 28 days (provided this does not put a hearing date at risk).

A

D. 28 days (provided this does not put a hearing date at risk).

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13
Q

The claimant files its costs budget at court 60 minutes late. On the day of filing, the claimant’s solicitor had an accident on the way in to work and, although uninjured, had to attend hospital for several hours to get checked out. Once released from hospital, the solicitor filed the costs budget. The solicitor applies for relief from sanctions the following day. What factor is most likely to influence the court when considering whether to grant the relief from sanctions?

A. The breach is serious and significant.

B. The breach prevents the case being conducted efficiently and at proportionate cost.

C. The breach is not serious or significant.

D. The default occurred without good reason.

E. The breach must be punished to enforce compliance with rules, practice directions and court orders.

A

C. The breach is not serious or significant

The best answer is that the breach is not serious or significant. The case of Denton requires the court to look at three stages as part of its application of the provisions in relation to relief from sanctions (CPR 3.9). The first stage is to identify and assess the seriousness and significance of the failure to comply with the relevant rule, practice direction or court order. If the breach is neither serious nor significant, then relief should be granted. Here, the breach is not serious or significant and so relief from sanctions will usually be granted and it will not be necessary for the court to spend much time on the second and third stages.

The default occurred without good reason is not the best answer. The second stage of the Denton test is that if the breach is serious and significant, the court will consider why the default occurred. As stage one is satisfied, the court does not need to consider the second stage in any depth. In any event, here, there is good reason for the default.

The breach prevents the case being conducted efficiently and at proportionate cost is not the best answer. This is part of the third stage of the Denton test and deals with CPR 3.1(a). As stage one is satisfied, the court does not need to consider the third stage in any depth. In any event, here, CPR 3.1(a) does not point towards the refusal of relief as the breach did not prevent the litigation from being conducted efficiently and at proportionate cost, and did not imperil any further hearing date or otherwise disrupt the conduct of the litigation.

The breach must be punished to enforce compliance with rules, practice directions and court orders is not the best answer. As stage one is satisfied, the court does not need to consider the third stage in any depth. In any event, here, CPR 3.1(b) does not point towards the refusal of relief as the breach is near the bottom of the range of seriousness.

The breach is serious and significant is not the best answer. It is unlikely that the court would find this breach serious and significant.

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14
Q

Putting aside personal injury claims / tenancy claims, the financial limit on the small claims track is:

A. £15,000

B. £10,000

C. £25,000

D. £5,000

E. £50,000

A

B. £10,000

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15
Q

Once Directions Questionnaires have been filed, the Court will always order that there be an allocation hearing. True or false?

A. True

B. False

A

B. False

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16
Q

When should the parties file and serve a Directions Questionnaire?

A. At any point after service of the Defence but prior to the hearing of a Case Management Conference

B. At least 3 days prior to the Case Management Conference.

C. At the same time as service of the Defence.

D. No later than the date specified on the Notice of Proposed Allocation.

A

D. No later than the date specified on the Notice of Proposed Allocation.

After service of the Defence, the court will provisionally decide the track most suitable for the claim and issue a notice of proposed allocation. This will require the parties to file and serve Directions Questionnaires and will include the date by which this must be done (CPR 26.3(6)).

17
Q

You are a solicitor at Price Prior and you act for Exclusive Builders Ltd (‘EBL’). EBL are claiming £27,500 in damages, interest and costs for breach of contract and negligence against Stanleys Steel Plc (‘SSP’) whom they employed to undertake the specialist steel work required in the construction of a large, state-of-the-art conference centre. The total amount of damages claimed includes £2,000 in interest and £1,580 in costs. SSP’s primary case is there has been no breach of contract or negligence; it has also pleaded that EBL is contributory negligent and the claim should be reduced by £15,000 as a result. EBL has appointed two experts; a surveyor, Mr Singh and quantum expert, Mr Bell. Similarly, SSP has appointed two experts Mr Smith, a surveyor and Mr Pagne, a quantum expert. Only Mr Bell and Mr Pagne will give oral evidence at trial. Trial is expected to last one day. What is the ‘normal track’ for this claim?

A. The normal track is the multi-track because 2 experts have been appointed by each party.

B. The normal track is the multi-track because the value of the claim for allocation purposes is £42,500.

C. The normal track is the fast track.

D. The normal track is the multi-track because it is over £25,000.

A

C. The normal track is the fast track.

The claim is for under £25,000. When assessing financial value for allocation purposes, the court will disregard any claim for interest, costs and any contributory negligence (CPR 26.8(2)). The maximum value for this claim for allocation purposes is therefore £23,920. The fast track is the normal track for claims of this value only where the trial is estimated to be one day or less and where oral expert evidence is limited to one expert per party in relation to any expert field and expert evidence is limited to two different expert fields (CPR 26.6(5)) – the trial length and evidence are so limited in this case.

18
Q

In relation to a claim allocated to the small claims track, the general rule is that even if successful at trial a party…

A. …can only recover limited fixed costs from an opponent.

B. …can only recover limited fixed costs, court fees, counsel’s charges and witness expenses from an opponent.

C …can only recover limited fixed costs, court fees and witness expenses from an opponent.

D. …cannot recover costs from an opponent.

A

C …can only recover limited fixed costs, court fees and witness expenses from an opponent.

19
Q

How are documents / statements from witnesses dealt with on the small claims track?

A. There is no order for disclosure or exchange of witness statements. Parties are required file and serve on every other party copies of documents they intend to rely upon no later than 14 days before the main hearing.

B. Standard disclosure is the ordinary order, to take place 28 days before trial. Witness statements are exchanged 14 days before trial in relation to any witness which is not attending the hearing. Witnesses attending the hearing do not need to provide statements in advance.

C. Standard disclosure is the ordinary order, to take place 28 days before trial. Witness statements are not used on the small claims track.

A

A. There is no order for disclosure or exchange of witness statements. Parties are required file and serve on every other party copies of documents they intend to rely upon no later than 14 days before the main hearing.

20
Q

When does the disclosure report need to be filed (assuming one is needed)?

A. Not less than 21 days before the first CMC

B. Not less than 14 days before the first CMC

C. With the directions questionnaire

D. In accordance with the directions made at the CMC

E. Not less than 7 days before the first CMC

A

B. Not less than 14 days before the first CMC

21
Q

The parties must file agreed / proposed directions with the court….

A. At least 14 days before any CMC

B. At least 7 days before any CMC

C. At least 14 days before the first CMC

D. At least 7 days before the first CMC

A

E. At least 7 days before any CMC

22
Q

The main purpose of a CMC is to…

A. Ensure the parties and their representatives are considering settlement.

B. Determine directions for the future conduct of the case.

C. Determine any issues which the parties wish to be determined.

D. Review the statements of case and ensure they are clear and complete.

A

B. Determine directions for the future conduct of the case.

Whilst the court will encourage settlement, and may assist with other issues, the court’s primary concern is directions (CPR 29.2(1)).

23
Q

To which one of the following would the costs management regime likely apply, assuming each claim was commenced 2 months ago:

A. A debt claim in the County Court, when the debt is £24,000.

B. A breach of contract claim in the High Court, seeking £25 million.

C. A personal injury claim in the County Court valued at £45,000.

D. A negligence claim in the High Court, seeking sums to be assessed, but where the claim states that the value is £10 million or more.

A

C. A personal injury claim in the County Court valued at £45,000.

This would appear to be a multi-track claim and, on these facts, does not fall into any of the exceptions to the costs management regime.

24
Q

In a claim valued at just over £100,000, the first CCMC has been listed for Friday 30 November. When does the costs budget need to be filed?

A. Friday 23 November

B. Thursday 8 November

C. Friday 9 November

D. Thursday 22 November

A

B. Thursday 8 November

Where the stated value of the claim is £50,000 or more, the budget must be filed not less than 21 days before the first CCMC. Counting the time correctly takes you to Thursday 8 November.

25
Q

Parties should only use page 1 of the Precedent H if:

A. The monetary value of the claim is less than £25,000 and if the party’s budgeted costs do not exceed £10,000.

B. The monetary value of the claim is less than £50,000 and if the party’s budgeted costs do not exceed £25,000.

C. The monetary value of the claim is less than £50,000 or if the party’s budgeted costs do not exceed £25,000.

D. The monetary value of the claim is less than £25,000 or if the party’s budgeted costs do not exceed £10,000.

A

C. The monetary value of the claim is less than £50,000 or if the party’s budgeted costs do not exceed £25,000.

26
Q

Budgets do not include:

A. Solicitor’s charges.

B. Disbursements.

C Estimated opponent’s costs.

D. Incurred costs.

E. Estimated future costs.

A

C. Estimated opponent’s costs.

Your opponent will set out their incurred and estimated costs in their own budget.

27
Q

Where a court has decided to make a Costs Management Order (CMO), how does it deal with a part of a party’s budget in relation to estimated costs which the other party has agreed (as recorded in the relevant Budget Discussion Report)?

A. The CMO records that the relevant part of the budget has been agreed, unless the court wishes to substitute its own figure.

B. The fact that a party has agreed part of the other party’s budget is not relevant to the exercise that the court carries out when making a CMO.

C. The court will take into account that the relevant part is agreed when deciding what would be an appropriate figure for that part CMO.

D. The CMO records that the relevant part of the budget has been agreed. The court will not change the agreed figure.

A

D. The CMO records that the relevant part of the budget has been agreed. The court will not change the agreed figure.

The court cannot interfere with agreed parts of the budget: if it objects to the figure agreed, the court is likely to record a comment to that effect which a subsequent judge might take into account when it comes to assessment (CPR 3.15).

28
Q

A party fails to file a budget by the deadline. What is the default consequence?

A. They will be treated as having filed a budget comprising only the applicable court fees.

B. They will be treated as having filed a budget containing sums equal to those proposed by the other party.

C. The court will determine what figures should have been in the budget.

D. They will be treated as having filed a budget providing nothing for the costs of the litigation.

A

A. They will be treated as having filed a budget comprising only the applicable court fees.

29
Q

Assume that budgets have been filed. Which of the following most accurately states when the court will make a costs management order (CMO)?

A. The court will only make a CMO if it concludes that the litigation will not be conducted justly and at proportionate cost in accordance with the overriding objective without a CMO.

B. The court will make a CMO unless it is satisfied that the litigation can be conducted justly and at proportionate cost in accordance with the overriding objective without a CMO.

C. The court will make a CMO in all cases (to which the costs management regime applies) in order to ensure that the litigation is conducted justly and at proportionate cost.

D. The court will make a CMO unless it is satisfied that the budgeted costs are in accordance with the overriding objective.

A

B. The court will make a CMO unless it is satisfied that the litigation can be conducted justly and at proportionate cost in accordance with the overriding objective without a CMO.

30
Q

Where a court has decided to make a Costs Management Order (CMO), how does it deal with a part of a party’s budget in relation to estimated costs which the other party has agreed (as recorded in the relevant Budget Discussion Report)?

A. The fact that a party has agreed part of the other party’s budget is not relevant to the exercise that the court carries out when making a CMO.

B. The CMO records that the relevant part of the budget has been agreed, unless the court wishes to substitute its own figure.

C. The CMO records that the relevant part of the budget has been agreed. The court will not change the agreed figure.

D. The court will take into account that the relevant part is agreed when deciding what would be an appropriate figure for that part CMO.

A

C. The CMO records that the relevant part of the budget has been agreed. The court will not change the agreed figure.

The court cannot interfere with agreed parts of the budget: if it objects to the figure agreed, the court is likely to record a comment to that effect which a subsequent judge might take into account when it comes to assessment (CPR 3.15).

31
Q

In a claim valued at just over £100,000, the first CMC has been listed for Friday 30 November. By when does the budget discussion report need to be filed?

A. On Thursday 22 November at the latest.

B. On Friday 23 November at the latest.

C. On Thursday 15 November at the latest.

D. On Friday 16 November at the latest.

A

A. On Thursday 22 November at the latest.

32
Q

If a judge is assessing costs on the standard basis at the conclusion of a matter, what impact does a Costs Management Order (CMO) have on her task?

A. The judge will cap the costs at the figures in the budget, unless there is good reason not to do so.

B. The CMO is not relevant when it comes to assessing costs.

C. The judge will cap the costs at the figures in the budget.

D. The judge will assess the costs at the figures in the budget, unless the judge considers it unjust to do so.

A

A. The judge will cap the costs at the figures in the budget, unless there is good reason not to do so.

This is what the relevant rule states (CPR 3.18), when combined with the general principle that a party cannot recover a greater sum for costs from an opponent than it has in fact incurred.