w3 Flashcards

1
Q

HF is an issue with
_________ = amount of resistance/pressure LV has to overcome to pump blood out of heart
Increased afterload is harder on heart
_________ = too fast/slow for a long period of time
__________ = amount of blood comes into heart during diastole (filling)
Increases blood volume = increases preload
___________= myocardial cells ability to contract

A

HF is an issue with

  • afterload = amount of resistance/pressure LV has to overcome to pump blood out of heart
    Increased afterload is harder on heart
  • heart rate = too fast/slow for a long period of time
  • preload = amount of blood comes into heart during diastole (filling)
    Increases blood volume = increases preload
  • myocardial contractility = myocardial cells ability to contract
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2
Q
  • cause = ventricular repolarization/relaxation
  • unexpected = peaked
A
  1. T wave
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3
Q

3 main s/s of PAD
- _________
- ________
- issues r/t _______:
(- Hair loss
- Dry, scaly, dusky, pale or mottled skin
- Thick toenails
- Skin cool to the touch
- Prolonged cap refill
- Decreased/weak pedal pulse
- Dependent rubor - skin of the lower extremities turns a reddish color when the legs are in a dependent position (dangling down).
- Muscle atrophy)

A

intermittent claudication
arterial ulcers
issues r/t lack of arterial perfusion

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4
Q

saw tooth =

quiver =

A

A flutter

A fibrillation

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5
Q

Spironolactone (potassium sparing diuretic)
class: mineralocorticoid receptor antagonist
- used with chronic HF
- is it being used as a diuretic?
- is it being used for suppression of sodium/water retention to help with offloading the LV?
- watch for hyp__kalemia and worsening__________

A
  • Not being used as a diuretic
  • Being used for suppression of sodium/water retention to help with offloading the LV
  • watch for hyperkalemia and worsening renal failure
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6
Q
  • cause = SA node triggers atrial depolarization/contraction
A
  1. P wave
    - cause = SA node triggers atrial depolarization/contraction
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7
Q

drugs for rhythm control, rate control, or drugs to prevent clots?

metoprolol =

diltiazem, verapamil =

Amiodarone and dofetilide =

Warfarin =

Which is Calcium channel blockers and Beta adrenergic blockers?

A

metoprolol = Beta adrenergic blockers, rate control,

diltiazem, verapamil = Calcium channel blockers, rate control,

Amiodarone and dofetilide = for rhythm control,

Warfarin = drugs to prevent clots

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8
Q

A fib/A flutter Treatment

  • treatment goals =
  • ________ control
  • _______ control
  • Prevent _______
  • drugs for rate control – IV route initially
  • ______________
  • ______________
  • drugs for rhythm control – IV route initially
  • ______________
  • ______________
  • drugs to prevent clots
  • ______________

rate or rhythm priority?

A
  • Ventricular rate control (lower HR)
  • Rhythm control
  • Prevent embolic stroke
  • drugs for rate control – priority, IV route initially
  • Beta adrenergic blockers – metoprolol
  • Calcium channel blockers – diltiazem, verapamil
  • drugs for rhythm control – IV route initially
  • Amiodarone and dofetilide
  • drugs to prevent clots
  • Warfarin

rate

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9
Q

Tachydysrhythmias can cause –

good or bad?

  • initially, may __crease CO and BP
  • eventually, if sustained or increased, ventricular filling will __crease = __creased CO and BP
  • _________ diastole = shortens coronary perfusion time = angina
  • workload on heart ___creases = myocardial oxygen demand increases
A

good:
- initially, may increase CO and BP

bad:
- eventually, if sustained or increased, ventricular filling will decrease = decreased CO and BP

bad
- shortened diastole = shortens coronary perfusion time = angina

bad
- workload on heart increases = myocardial oxygen demand increases

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10
Q

A fib/A flutter Treatment

  • if hemodynamically unstable (VS are not ok) =
A
  • Synchronized cardioversion/cardiovert/life pack = synchronized circuit delivers a countershock on the R wave of the QRS complex which gives you back your atrial kick
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11
Q

tele vs 12 lead EKG

1- Continuous observation of HR and rhythm (nurse can be at bedside or at nurses station)
2- monitoring only
3- can be diagnostic
4- unidimensional view
5- snapshot in time
6- routine or STAT
7- multidimensional view
8- done by EKG tech at bedside
9- nurse doesn’t interpret

A

1- T
2- T
3- 12 lead EKG
4- T
5- 12 lead EKG
6- 12 lead EKG
7- 12 lead EKG
8- 12 lead EKG
9- 12 lead EKG

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12
Q

s/s
- asymptomatic
- may be found during routine physical exam
- pulsatile mass in periumbilical area
- bruit present in abdomen
- back pain

A

Abdominal aortic aneurysm

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13
Q

Raynaud’s phenomenon: Nursing care
- primary focus = patient _______
- ________ clothing
- Gloves with _____ items
- Avoid temp _________
- Immersing hands in ______ water may decrease vasospasm
- Avoid _______ – cold, emotional upset, tobacco, caffeine
- drug therapy - _______ blockers
- 1st line
- used to lower BP?
- Used to treat _______ in peripheral vessels

A

Nursing care
- primary focus = patient teaching
- Layered clothing
- Gloves with cold items
- Avoid temp extremes
- Immersing hands in warm water may decrease vasospasm
- Avoid triggers – cold, emotional upset, tobacco, caffeine
- drug therapy - SR calcium channel blockers
- 1st line
- Not used to lower BP
- Used to treat vasospasm in peripheral vessels

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14
Q

Some patients may be able to tolerate a HR outside of 60-100 if their ___ remains adequate

How do we know – they will be asymptomatic or symptomatic

Asymptomatic -
- _______ + _______ = asymptomatic = they can tolerate abnormal HR

Symptomatic -
- ________ + ________ = symptomatic = they can’t tolerate abnormal HR
- may lead to
- Myocardial ischemia/infarct
- Dysrhythmias
- Hypotension or HTN?
- HF

A

Asymptomatic -
- Bradycardia/tachycardia + BP remain adequate = asymptomatic = they can tolerate abnormal HR

Symptomatic -
- Bradycardia/tachycardia + BP doesn’t remain adequate = symptomatic = they can’t tolerate abnormal HR
- may lead to
- Myocardial ischemia/infarct
- Dysrhythmias
- Hypotension
- HF

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15
Q

cardiovert and defibrillation:

  1. _________ = synchronized circuit delivers a countershock on the R wave of the QRS complex which gives you back your atrial kick
  2. ___________ = (synchronized switch is turned on)
  3. if switch is turned on pt must have _________
  4. turning the synch switch on means it will fire when?
  5. If the lifepack is not synched and fires at wrong time = trigger
  6. For defibrillation
    - (synchronized switch is turned _______)
    - Pt does or doesn’t have QRS complex/R wave?
  7. when the switch is off = does not synch up with pts QRS and will fire ________
A
  1. Synchronized cardioversion/cardiovert/life pack
  2. synchronized cardioversion/cardiovert
  3. R wave/QRS complex
  4. This will synch up with pts QRS and fire at the appropriate time
  5. If the lifepack is not synched and fires at wrong time = trigger life threatening dysrhythmias
    • For defibrillation (synchronized switch is turned off) – Pt doesn’t have QRS complex/R wave (ex: Vfib or VTACH)
    • This does not synch up with pts QRS and will fire as soon as the button is pressed
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16
Q

which dysrhythmia

  • originates in ectopic focus anywhere above bifurcation of bundle of His, anywhere in atria
  • run of repeated premature beats, that starts and stops abruptly
  • usually initiated by a PAC
  • rate is > 100 bpm
A

PSVT
Paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardia

  • originates in ectopic focus anywhere above bifurcation of bundle of His, anywhere in atria (supraventricular)
  • run or repeated premature beats, that starts and stops abruptly (paroxysmal)
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17
Q
  • start of P wave to start of QRS complex
  • expected 0.12 – 0.20 seconds
A

PR interval

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18
Q

Afib
Explanation of different rates

  • atrial rate > 400 bpm
  • ventricular rate up to 100-175 bpm
  • ___ node is gate keeper helping to slow >400 bpm down, so only some of the atrial pulses are conducted though the ___ node
  • all the little quivers are the _______ firing that didn’t get through to the AV node (called ___ waves)
  • the ___________ is the ectopic firing that did get through the AV node
A

Explanation of different rates -
- atrial rate > 400 bpm
- ventricular rate up to 100-175 bpm
- AV node is gate keeper helping to slow >400 bpm down, so only some of the atrial pulses are conducted though the AV node
- all the little quivers are the ectopic sites firing that didn’t get through to the AV node (called f waves)
- the QRS complex is the ectopic firing that did get through the AV node

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19
Q

Causes of ______
- can occur with any underlying heart disease
- electrolyte imbalance
- hypoxia
- cardiac surgery

A

A fib

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20
Q

You can live with A fib?

You can live with Vfib?

A

yes - You can live with A fib, bc what really matters is ventricular rate
Ex: if patient is A fib with HR 90, he can live with this b/c ventricle rate is under control (not ideal, but possible)

no - can’t live with vfib

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21
Q

Venous thromboembolism VTE

Patho:
- 3 things occur
______
______
______
- as a result
________

A

Venous thromboembolism VTE

Patho
- 3 things occur
- Venous stasis
- Endothelial tissue damage
- Blood thickens (hypercoagulability)
- as a result
- Thrombus forms

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22
Q

Start of QRS complex to end of T wave

A
  1. QT interval
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23
Q

Causes of ______
- benign (common)
- electrolyte imbalance
- stress
- cardiac stimulants – caffeine
- atrial pathology (any disease or abnormality that affects the atria of the heart, includes: A fib, A flutter)

A

PAC

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24
Q
  • cause = AV node triggers ventricular depolarization/contraction
  • atrial repolarization/relaxation occurs here, can’t see it on EKG
  • expected = “skinny or narrow”
A
  1. QRS complex (R wave)
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25
Q

Digoxin –
- 2nd line drug – b/c of ________ risk

  • negative chronotrope or positive inotrope? = slows HR
    -negative chronotrope or positive inotrope? = increases contractility
  • hyp__kalemia can cause:
  • digitoxicity
  • cardiac dysfunction
  • serious dysrhythmias
  • levels should be 0.5-2
  • s/s of digitoxicity
  • bradycardia or tachycardia?
  • 3 head things
  • 1 GI thing
  • 1 eye thing
  • take ________ for full minute before giving
  • HOLD IF ________
  • monitor cardiac _______
  • antidote = _______ IV
  • pt education – take own ______ at home
A

Digoxin –
- 2nd line drug – b/c of dysrhythmia risk
- negative chronotrope = slows HR
- positive inotrope = increases contractility
- hypokalemia can cause
- digitoxicity
- cardiac dysfunction
- serious dysrhythmias
- levels should be 0.5-2
- s/s of digitoxicity
- bradycardia
- h/s
- dizzy
- confusion
- nausea
- visual disturbances
- take apical pulse for full minute before giving
- HOLD IF pulse < 60
- monitor cardiac rhythm
- antidote = digibind IV
- pt education – take own pulse at home

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26
Q

s/s _______ HF
- fatigue
- increased peripheral venous pressure
- JVD
- hepatomegaly – liver enlarged
- splenomegaly – enlarged spleen
- ascites
- vascular congestion in GI tract – anorexia, nausea
- peripheral edema
- scrotal edema

A

right

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27
Q

life pack/ cardioversion/ defibrillator
T/F
- Make sure people are “clear” before discharging device – not even touching bed
- If pt becomes pulseless (they lost their QRS complex) = Turn off synchronizer switch and perform defibrillation

A

T - Make sure people are “clear” before discharging device – not even touching bed
T - If pt becomes pulseless (they lost their QRS complex) = Turn off synchronizer switch and perform defibrillation

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28
Q

a long PR interval implies there is something wrong with

A
  • if it is longer it implies there is something wrong with the conduction between atria and ventricle

b/c its inbetween the start of P wave to start of QRS complex = atrial contraction and ventricle contraction

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29
Q

bradycardia treatment

check for symptomatic or asymptomatic

  • asymptomatic = _________
  • symptomatic =
    1. Atropine
  • 1st line
  • Route IV
  • Vagolytic – ______ vagus nerve, will ___crease HR
  • 1 mg q 3-5 mins, 3 mg max
    2. Transcutaneous pacing of heart (temp)
  • 2nd line – if atropine didn’t work and pt is still brady and symptomatic
    3. pacemaker (permanent)
  • indicated if it continues
  • pacemaker fires when SA nodes aren’t doing their job
A
  1. check for symptomatic or asymptomatic
    - asymptomatic = monitor
    - symptomatic =
    - Atropine
    - 1st line
    - Route IV
    - Vagolytic – blocks vagus nerve, will increase HR
    - 1 mg q 3-5 mins, 3 mg max
    - Transcutaneous pacing of heart (temp)
    - 2nd line – if atropine didn’t work and pt is still brady and symptomatic
    - pacemaker (permanent)
    - indicated if it continues
    - pacemaker fires when SA nodes aren’t doing their job
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30
Q

EKG strip
- shows markings for measuring amplitude and duration of waveforms
- smallest box = 0.04 seconds
- bigger box = 0.20 seconds
- strips = __ seconds

A

6

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31
Q

____________
- Normal cardiac rhythm, seen in young healthy people
- d/t changes in intrathoracic pressure w/ breathing
- everything is normal except, R to R interval is not regular

A

Sinus arrhythmia

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32
Q

Peripheral artery disease vs venous disease
9. ulcer tissue
_____– black eschar or pale pink granulation
_____ – yellow slough or dark red/ruddy granulation

  1. pain
    _____ – intermittent claudication (with walking) or rest pain (constant). Ulcer may/may not be painful
    _____– dull ache or heaviness in calf or thigh. Ulcer often painful
  2. nails
    _____ – thick or normal
    _____ – thick and brittle
  3. skin color
    _____ – bronze/brown pigmentation, varicose veins
    _____– dependent rubor (dark purple when legs hang), elevation pallor
A
  1. ulcer tissue
    PAD – black eschar or pale pink granulation
    Venous disease – yellow slough or dark red/ruddy granulation
  2. pain
    PAD – intermittent claudication (with walking) or rest pain (constant). Ulcer may/may not be painful
    Venous disease – dull ache or heaviness in calf or thigh. Ulcer often painful
  3. nails
    Venous disease – thick or normal
    PAD – thick and brittle
  4. skin color
    Venous disease – bronze/brown pigmentation, varicose veins
    PAD – dependent rubor (dark purple when legs hang), elevation pallor
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33
Q

VTACH
CO =

Vfib
CO =

A

very decreased

NONE

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34
Q

Treatment tachycardia
1. treat the cause
- If FVD = __________
- If in pain = __________
- If febrile = ________
- If panic attack/anxiety = ____________
2. give beta adrenergic blockers – _______ HR and ________ myocardial oxygen consumption

A

Treatment
- treat the cause
- If FVD = fluid volume replacement
- If in pain = give analgesic
- If febrile = give anti-pyretic
- If panic attack/anxiety = give benzo/anxiolytic
- beta adrenergic blockers – reduce HR and myocardial oxygen consumption

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35
Q

Chronic venous insufficiency (CVI)
Collaborative care
- ___________ worn daily
- avoid ___________ for long times
- leg position that promotes venous return, reduces swelling?
- daily ________ – venous circulation
- good foot and leg care
- high ______, high ________ diet – r/t skin healing

A

Collaborative care
- compression (stockings or SCUDS) worn daily
- avoid standing/sitting for long times
- elevate legs above heart – promotes venous return, reduces swelling
- daily walking – venous circulation
- good foot and leg care
- high calorie, high protein diet – r/t skin healing

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36
Q

PVC subtypes
-_______ = every other QRS complex is a PVC
- ________ = every third QRS complex is a PVC
- _________ = every forth QRS complex is a PVC
- _________= all PVCs are either above the isoelectric line or below the isoelectric line (all coming from same place)
- _________= PVCs are both above and below the isoelectric line (coming from different places)

A

PVC subtypes
- bigamy = every other QRS complex is a PVC
- trigeminy = every third QRS complex is a PVC
- quadrigeminy = every forth QRS complex is a PVC
- unifocal = all PVCs are either above the isoelectric line or below the isoelectric line (all coming from same place)
- multifocal = PVCs are both above and below the isoelectric line (coming from different places)

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37
Q

s/s
- UNILATERAL leg edema = indicates its r/t ______ not ________
- pain
- tenderness with palpation
- dilated superficial veins
- sense of fullness in thigh or calf
- parasthesia
- warm skin and erythema
- temp > 100.4 = r/t inflammation

most serious complication = ______

A

VTE s/s
- UNILATERAL leg edema = indicates its r/t blood clot not venous insufficiency
- pain
- tenderness with palpation
- dilated superficial veins
- sense of fullness in thigh or calf
- parasthesia
- warm skin and erythema
- temp > 100.4 = r/t inflammation

most serious complication = PE

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38
Q

Collaborative therapy: acute or chronic HF
- treat underlying cause
- O2 therapy NC – helps relieve dyspnea/fatigue
- rest/activity period – conserve energy/minimize O2 demands
- daily weights
- sodium restricted diet – so they don’t retain more water
- drug therapy
- ACE inhibitors and ARBs
- Beta blockers – carvedilol
- - diuretics – loop, potassium sparing, thiazide, osmotic
- Nitrates
- Cardiac glycosides – digoxin
- left ventricular assist device LVAD
- heart transplant

A

chornic

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39
Q

VTE Risk factors: r/t Venous stasis, Endothelial tissue damage, or hypercoagulability?
- caustic or hypertonic IV drugs
- fractured pelvis, hip, leg
- IV drug abuse
- trauma

A

Risk factors: endothelial damage

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40
Q

Peripheral artery disease (PAD)

Risk factors
- atherosclerosis
- tobacco
- DM
- hyperlipidemia
- uncontrolled HTN
- familial
- ___creased CRP – non specific indicator of inflammation

which one is the main one?

A
  • atherosclerosis!!

increased

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41
Q

Peripheral artery disease vs venous disease
5. hair
________ – hair could be present or absent
________ – no hair on legs, feet, toes (r/t poor perfusion)

  1. ulcer location
    ________ - medial malleolus (bony bump on the inner ankle)
    ________ – tips of toes, foot, or lateral malleolus (bony bump on the outer ankle)
  2. ulcer margin
    ________ – rounded, smooth, Punched-out appearance (edges are well-defined, sharp, resembling a hole punched in the skin)
    ________ – irregular shaped
  3. ulcer drainage
    ________ – minimal amounts
    ________ – moderate to large amounts
A
  1. hair
    Venous disease – hair could be present or absent
    PAD – no hair on legs, feet, toes (r/t poor perfusion)
  2. ulcer location
    Venous disease - medial malleolus (bony bump on the inner ankle)
    PAD – tips of toes, foot, or lateral malleolus (bony bump on the outer ankle)
  3. ulcer margin
    PAD – rounded, smooth, Punched-out appearance (edges are well-defined, sharp, resembling a hole punched in the skin)
    Venous disease – irregular shaped
  4. ulcer drainage
    PAD – minimal amounts
    Venous disease – moderate to large amounts
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42
Q

________ rhythm
- Normal cardiac rhythm
- Sinus nodes fire 60-100 bpm
- Follows normal conduction pattern
- R to R interval is regular

A

Normal sinus

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43
Q

Causes of bradycardia -
T/F
- excessive vagal stimulation by parasympathomimetic
- Carotid sinus massage
- Vomiting/gagging
- Valsalva maneuvers
- Eyeball pressure
- Administration of parasympathomimetic drugs
- digoxin toxicity
- Hypokalemia – slows depolarization
- MI

A
  • excessive vagal stimulation by parasympathomimetic
  • Carotid sinus massage
  • Vomiting/gagging
  • Valsalva maneuvers
  • Eyeball pressure
  • Administration of parasympathomimetic drugs
  • digoxin toxicity
    X - Hyperkalemia – slows depolarization
  • MI
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44
Q

Ventricular or atrial dysrhythmias are
Life threathening?

A

Ventricular dysrhythmias
PVC, VTACH, VFIB

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45
Q

Peripheral artery disease vs venous disease
1.peripheral pulses
______ – present
_____ – decreases or absent

  1. cap refill
    _____ – slow >3 secs
    _____ – brisk <3 secs
  2. ABI Ankle-Brachial Index - compares the BP in your ankle and arm.
    _____ – >0.90 (good)
    _____ – <0.90 (bad)
  3. edema
    _____ – none (unless leg is constantly in dependent position (dangling)
    _____ – lower leg edema
A

1.peripheral pulses
Venous disease – present
PAD – decreases or absent

  1. cap refill
    PAD – slow >3 secs
    Venous disease – brisk <3 secs
  2. ABI Ankle-Brachial Index - compares the BP in your ankle and arm.
    Venous disease – >0.90 (good) no arterial obstruction = ankle pressure is typically normal
    PAD – <0.90 (bad) narrowed arteries reduces blood flow to the legs = lower ankle pressures compared to the arm
  3. edema
    PAD – none (unless leg is constantly in dependent position (dangling)
    Venous disease – lower leg edema
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46
Q

________ = Amount of blood ejected from LV
___________= amount of blood in the ventricle prior to ejection

SV
———- =
end diastolic volume

A

Stroke volume
End diastolic volume/preload
Ejection fraction

47
Q

bradycardia s/s
- symptomatic, asymptomatic, or both?

tachycardia s/s
- symptomatic, asymptomatic, or both?

A
  • may be asymptomatic with HR < 60
  • may be symptomatic ***
  • may be asymptomatic with HR >100
  • may be symptomatic ***
48
Q

waves in order (3)
1st -________
2nd - PR interval
3rd - ________
4th - ST segment
5th - _________
6th - QT interval
7th - isoelectric flat line

A

P wave
QRS complex/R wave
T wave

49
Q

VTE Risk factors: r/t Venous stasis, Endothelial tissue damage, or hypercoagulability?
- older age
- bed rest or prolonged immobility
- HF
- fractured hip or leg
- long trip w/o adequate exercise
- obesity
- pregnancy
- varicose veins

A

Risk factors: venous stasis

50
Q

ABI
Ex:
left brachial systolic pressure = 130 mm
left ankle systolic pressure = 110 mm
right brachial systolic pressure = 125 mm
right ankle systolic pressure = 75 mm

right ABI = _____/______ = 0.84
left ABI = ______/______ = 0.58

0.9-1.3 = Normal ABI
< 0.9 = occlusive atrial disease (0.4 – 0.9 is often associated w/ claudication)
< 0.4 = non-healing ulcerations, ischemic rest pain

This person has ___________ in ______ extremity(s), and the _____ leg is probably worse off than the______ leg

A

left ABI = 110/130 = 0.84
right ABI = 75/130 = 0.58

This person has occlusive arterial disease in both extremities, and the left leg is probably worse off than the right leg

51
Q

Collaborative therapy for acute or chronic HF?
- treat underlying cause
- hourly vitals and UO
- continuous EKG and pulse ox
- monitor ABG results
- position in high fowlers with feet:
horizontal?
elevated?
dangling at bedside?
- O2 by ______ or ______
- daily weights
- hemodynamic monitoring

  • drug therapy goal
    -__crease intravascular volume
    -__creases afterload
    -__crease anxiety
    -__creases LV function
  • drug therapy meds
    -diuretics
    -vasodilators
    -morphine – decrease ____load and ______load
    -positive inotropes (increase _________) – digoxin
A

Collaborative therapy
- treat underlying cause
- hourly vitals and UO
- continuous EKG and pulse ox
- monitor ABG results
- position in high fowlers with feet
horizontal
or
dangling at bedside – decreases venous return/preload
- O2 by mask or bipap
- daily weights
- hemodynamic monitoring
- drug therapy goal
- decrease intravascular volume
- decreases afterload
- decrease anxiety
- increases LV function
- drug therapy meds
- diuretics
- vasodilators
- morphine – decrease preload and afterload
- positive inotropes (increase contractility) – digoxin

52
Q

PAC treatment
- benign =
- if atrial pathology (any disease or abnormality that affects the atria of the heart, includes: A fib, A flutter) is the cause =

A

treatment
- benign = no treatment
- if atrial pathology is the cause = same treatment as A fib

53
Q

acute or chronic HF?
1.______
- dx in outpatient setting
- marked by periods of acute and/or slowly worsening cardiac function
- may be caused by damage from other cardiac events/disease
2. _______
- dx in inpatient setting
- worsening chronic health failure s/s requiring urgent therapy
- life threatening condition
- s/s – SOA d/t excess fluid caused by cardiac overload

A

chronic
acute

54
Q

Treatment if a-fib >48 hours

(not an emergency) = planned ___________
- ___________ therapy before cardioversion for 3-4 weeks AND after cardioversion for 3-4 weeks = want to make sure you don’t have _____
- ______ may be performed before cardioversion = way to check and make sure _________

if cardioversion if emergent = low molecular weight heparin or heparin _______

A

Treatment if a-fib >48 hours

  • anticoagulation therapy (warfarin/coumadin) before cardioversion for 3-4 weeks AND after cardioversion for 3-4 weeks = want to make sure you don’t have any clots leading to a stroke
  • TEE may be performed before cardioversion = make sure no clots in atrium
  • if cardioversion if emergent = low molecular weight heparin or heparin drip
55
Q
  • End of QRS complex/R wave to start of T wave
  • expected = equal to isoelectric line
A
  1. ST segment
56
Q

HF diagnosis
- hx
- physical exam
- EKG =
- BNP and ProBNP =
- CXR =
- echocardiogram =

A
  • hx
  • physical exam
  • EKG
  • reduced EF will have significant EKG abnormalities
  • BNP and ProBNP
  • helps distinguish HF from other sources of dyspnea
  • pts with dysnea and HF have BNP >400
  • CXR
  • cardiomegaly
  • pleural effusions
  • echocardiogram
  • EF
57
Q
  • episodic
  • vasospastic
  • autoimmune
  • disorder of small cutaneous arteries (often fingers and toes)
  • may occur in isolation or with other autoimmune diseases – SLE, RA
A

Raynaud’s phenomenon

58
Q

_______ nerve = part of parasympathetic nervous system (PNS), causes rest and digest

______________ = substances/conditions that stimulate the vagus nerve, thus the PNS, thus rest and digest

A

vagal

parasympathomimetic

59
Q

AAA post op care
- ICU after surgery
- monitor for:
- _______ patency
- maintain adequate _____ (too low = poor perfusion, too high = can blow graft)
- CV status – r/t ____ risk
- infection
- GI status – ________ risk
- peripheral perfusion – especially _____ to entrance site
- renal perfusion – hourly ______
- provide discharge teaching

A

AAA post op care
- ICU after surgery
- monitor for:
- graft patency
- maintain adequate BP (too low = poor perfusion, too high = can blow graft)
- CV status – MI risk
- infection
- GI status – paralytic ileus risk
- peripheral perfusion – especially distal to entrance site
- renal perfusion – hourly u.o.
- provide discharge teaching

60
Q

***Key features of sustained tachy/brady dysrhythmias
HR outside of 60-100 range

  • ______ = r/t poor coronary perfusion
  • _____, ______, ______ = r/t poor brain perfusion
  • ______ and _______ = r/t poor brain perfusion and low BP
  • pulse _____ = r/t poor peripheral perfusion
  • SOA
  • tachypnea or bradypnea?
  • ________ = r/t left HF
  • _________ (can’t breathe when lying down)
  • ________ heart sounds (gallop)
  • ____ = r/t right HF
  • weakness, fatigue
  • pale, cool skin, diaphoresis
  • n/v
  • ____creases urine output = r/t poor kidney perfusion
  • _______ cap refill = r/t poor peripheral perfusion
  • hyp__tension = r/t low CO

Only tachydysrhythmias
- palpitations

A

***Key features of sustained tachy/brady dysrhythmias
HR outside of 60-100 range

  • angina = r/t poor coronary perfusion
  • restlessness (think hypoxia), anxiety, confusion = r/t poor brain perfusion
  • dizziness and syncope = r/t poor brain perfusion and low BP
  • pulse deficit (when we check radial and apical pulse at same time, apical is higher than radial) = r/t poor peripheral perfusion
  • SOA, tachypnea
  • pulmonary crackles = r/t left HF
  • orthopnea (can’t breathe when lying down)
  • S3 or S4 heart sounds (gallop)
  • JVD = r/t right HF
  • weakness, fatigue
  • pale, cool skin, diaphoresis
  • n/v
  • decreases urine output = r/t poor kidney perfusion
  • delayed cap refill = r/t poor peripheral perfusion
  • hypotension = r/t low CO

Only tachy
- palpitations

61
Q

PAD s/s
intermittent claudication
- Location of pain correlates with site of ________
- Pain with ________ r/t peripheral artery occlusion when ________, no pain when _________

arterial ulcers (most ulcers are venous)
- Distal digits (toes)
- Bony prominences
- Deep lesions
- _________ (edges are well-defined, sharp, resembling a hole punched in the skin)
- Little to no ________

  • lack of arterial perfusion leads to
  • Hair _______
  • Dry, scaly, dusky, pale or mottled ______
  • Thick _______
  • Skin_____ to the touch
  • ________ cap refill
  • _________ pedal pulse
  • ____________- skin of the lower extremities turns a reddish color when the legs are in a dependent position (dangling down).
  • Muscle _________
A

intermittent claudication
- Location of pain correlates with site of occlusion
- Pain with walking r/t peripheral artery occlusion when walking, no pain at rest

arterial ulcers (most ulcers are venous)
- Distal digits (toes)
- Bony prominences
- Deep lesions
- Punched out (edges are well-defined, sharp, resembling a hole punched in the skin)
- Little to no exudate

  • lack of arterial perfusion leads to
  • Hair loss
  • Dry, scaly, dusky, pale or mottled skin
  • Thick toenails
  • Skin cool to the touch
  • Prolonged cap refill
  • Decreased/weak pedal pulse
  • Dependent rubor - skin of the lower extremities turns a reddish color when the legs are in a dependent position (dangling down).
  • Muscle atrophy
62
Q

normal electrical pattern in order
1st - P wave =
2nd - PR interval =
3rd - QRS complex / R wave =
4th - ST segment =
5th - T wave =
6th - QT interval =
7th - isoelectric flat line =

A

atrial contraction

measure of P wave start to QRS complex start

ventricular contraction (atrial relaxation)

measure of End of QRS complex/R wave to start of T wave

ventricular relaxation

measure of Start of QRS complex to end of T wave

Absence of electrical activity in cardiac cells

63
Q
  • ectopic pacemaker (group of cells in the heart, other than the SA node, that spontaneously generates electrical impulses) in atrium fires before SA node fires
  • isolated premature atrial beat
  • one time early discharge of an ectopic beat outside of the SA node
  • we know this by looking at R to R interval, and can see one early beat that is out of the pattern, that is a ____
A

PAC
Premature atrial contraction

64
Q

Nursing care: Synchronized cardioversion/cardiovert/lifepack
T/F
- airway
- oxygen
- vitals and LOC
- Monitor dysrhythmias
- emotional support
- document results of cardioversion

A
  • airway
  • oxygen
  • vitals and LOC
  • Monitor dysrhythmias
  • emotional support
  • document results of cardioversion
65
Q

Treatment PSVT
Paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardia

  1. _____ maneuvers – trigger _______ response/_NS, brings pt out of PSVT
    Ex: ________ maneuver – most effective, hold breath 10-15 secs, should see JVD, then resume breathing
    Ex: Coughing
    Ex: Carotid sinus massage – HCP only
  2. diving reflex/_____ water submersion
  3. If that doesn’t work
    med = atropine or adenosine?
    - IV push followed with rapid ________ (may use stop cock)
    - Warn pt may see _______ on rhythm strip
    - Onset is 10-40 _____
    - Duration – 1-2 _____
    - very _____ half life
  4. if that doesn’t work and pt becomes hemodynamically unstable
    - cardioversion or defibrillation?
    - synchronized switch on or off?
A
  • vagal maneuvers – trigger vagal response/PNS, brings pt out of PSVT
  • Valsalva maneuver – most effective, hold breath 10-15 secs, should see JVD, then resume breathing
  • Coughing
  • Carotid sinus massage – HCP only
  • diving reflex/cold water submersion

If that doesn’t work
- adenosine
- IV push followed with rapid NS flush (may use stop cock)
- Warn pt may see pause on rhythm strip – flat line
- Onset is 10-40 secs
- Duration – 1-2 mins
- very short half life

if that doesn’t work and pt becomes hemodynamically unstable
- cardioversion, synchronized switch on

66
Q

EF = ____-____% normal
<___% = HF

A

EF = 55-70% normal
<40% = HF

67
Q

2 leads/electrodes are next to each other anatomically =

ST elevation in 2 contiguous leads =

A

Contiguous leads

pt is having/had a STEMI

68
Q

Treatment for VTACH
1. depends on if the pt has ________ or _______
- ACLS
- anti-___________ drug – beta blocker, calcium channel blockers, amiodarone
- electrolyte replacement

s/s
- will be __________ very quickly unless converts back to other rhythm

A
  • depends on pulse (perfusion) or pulseless (no perfusion)
  • ACLS
  • anti-dysrhytmic drug – beta blocker, calcium channel blockers, amiodarone
  • electrolyte replacement

s/s
- will be symptomatic very quickly unless converts back to other rhythm

69
Q

s/s PSVT Paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardia
- depends on
- __________
- How _______ the ventricular rate is
(if it’s too high ____ is reduced)

A
  • depends on
  • How long it lasts
  • How fast the ventricular rate is (tachycardia), if it’s too high CO is reduced
70
Q

VTACH
Ventricular tachycardia
- 3 or more______ together
- ectopic focus within the ventricles takes controls and fires ________
- no _______ contractions occurring
- ______ ______ cardiac output
- rate _____-____ bpm,
- regular or irregular?
- p wave?
- PR interval?

A

VTACH
Ventricular tachycardia
- 3 or more PVCs together
- ectopic focus within the ventricles takes controls and fires repeatedly
- no atrial contractions occurring
- very decreased cardiac output
- rate 150-200 bpm,
regular
- no p wave,
PR interval not measurable

71
Q

s/s _______ HF
- pulmonary congestion/edema
- cough
- crackles, rhonchi, wheeze
- blood tinged sputum
- tachypnea
- restlessness, confusion
- Orthopnea – SOA when lying flat
- tripod position
- tachycardia
- exertional dyspnea
- fatigue
- cyanosis
- late sign = paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea - sudden SOA that awakens a person from sleep

A

left

72
Q
  • SA node fires < 60 bpm
  • may be a normal rhythm in athletes and during sleep
  • SA node fires >100 bpm
A

Sinus bradycardia

Sinus tachycardia

73
Q

PAD treatment
Post op nursing care
- frequent _________ assessment
- when to notify HCP
- Dramatic increase in ______
- Loss of pulses_______ to site (doppler)
- Extremity _______ or _______ (color)
- Change in any other _______ status
- avoid ___________ position – impedes arterial flow
- early __________
- foot care

A

Post op nursing care
- frequent peripheral vascular system assessment (PVS)
- when to notify HCP
- Dramatic increase in pain
- Loss of pulses distal to site (doppler)
- Extremity pallor or cyanosis
- Change in any other PVS status
- avoid knee flexed position – impedes arterial flow
- early ambulation
- foot care

74
Q

Causes of _____
- if it’s isolated – may be benign
- stimulants
- electrolyte imbalance
- Hypoxia
- fever
- exercise
- emotional stress
- CVD

A

PVC

75
Q

HR < 60

HR > 100

A

Bradydysrhythmias

Tachydysrhythmias

76
Q

Atrial flutter
- Atrial ______dysrhythmia
- identified by
recurring or single?
irregular or regular?
“________” shaped flutter waves
- originates from a _______ ectopic focus, reentry impulse is repetitive and cyclic
- R to R interval can be regular or irregular
- atrial rate may be >_____ bpm
- ventricular rate slower
- atria is not _______, atria is ________

A

Atrial flutter
- Atrial tachydysrhythmia identified by
recurring,
regular,
saw tooth shaped flutter waves
- originates from a single ectopic focus, reentry impulse is repetitive and cyclic
- R to R interval can be regular or irregular
- atrial rate may be >250 bpm
- ventricular rate slower
- atria is not contracting/kicks (p wave), atria is fluttering (f wave)

77
Q

Bradydysrhythmias could cause -

which is good/bad?

  • ________ myocardial oxygenation demand
  • ________ diastole (extended period of relaxation and filling of the heart’s chambers, particularly the ventricles)
  • if HR is too slow = ___crease in coronary perfusion
A

good
- reduced myocardial oxygenation demand

good
- prolonged diastole (extended period of relaxation and filling of the heart’s chambers, particularly the ventricles) = improve myocardial perfusion

The bad:
- if HR is too slow = decrease in coronary perfusion = angina

78
Q

Causes of ________
- can occur with any underlying heart condition
- electrolyte imbalance

A

A flutter

79
Q

A fib/A flutter Treatment: if hemodynamically stable (VS are ok), but symptomatic***
- ___________ and ______ with either IV calcium channel blockers, beta blockers, digitalis, amiodarone
- “Bolus and start a drip” may be ordered = bolus med to get to therapeutic level and then put the med on a drip to keep it at that level

A
  • Slow ventricular rate and control rhythm
80
Q

Cardioversion vs defibrillation

1- elective procedure
2- emergency
3- call a code
-4 pt awake and often sedated
5- synchronized with QRS (switch turned on)
-6 pulselessness – vfib, VTACH
7- no cardiac output
8- 200-360 joules
9- 50-200 joules
10- consent form
11- pt unconscious
12- EKG monitor
13- not synchronized with QRS (switch turned off)

A

1 c
2 d
3 d
4 c
5 c
6 d
7 d
8 d
9 c
10 c
11d
12 both
13 d

81
Q

with PACs
When to contact HCP
___
___

why?

A

When to contact HCP
- new PACs
- increasing PACs

why? could indicate pt is about to convert to A fib

82
Q

Chronic venous insufficiency (CVI)

s/s
- _______ skin
- ________color
- edema
- eczema with itching
- ulcer location medial malleolus – ______ ankle
- _________ positon makes pain worse
- w/out treatment ulcer gets deeper and wider and increases risk of _______

A

s/s
- leathery skin
- brownish/brawny color
- edema
- eczema with itching
- ulcer location medial malleolus – inside ankle
- dependent positon (leg dangle) makes pain worse
- w/out treatment ulcer gets deeper and wider and increases risk of infection

83
Q

Peripheral artery disease vs venous disease
13. Skin texture
____– thick, hard/indurated
____ – thin, shiny, taut

  1. skin temp
    ____ – cool temperature gradient down the leg (toes are cool)
    ____ – warm, no temperature gradient
  2. dermatitis
    ____ – rare
    ____ – frequent
  3. pruritus
    ____ – frequent
    ____ – rare
A
  1. Skin texture
    Venous disease – thick, hard/indurated
    PAD – thin, shiny, taut
  2. skin temp
    PAD – cool temperature gradient down the leg (toes are cool)
    Venous disease – warm, no temperature gradient
  3. dermatitis
    PAD – rare
    Venous disease – frequent
  4. pruritus
    Venous disease – frequent
    PAD – rare
84
Q

left ventricular assist device LVAD
T/F
- treatment for acute or chronic HF?
- used as a bridge to transplant or if no surgery is planned (destination therapy)
- must take BP manually with doppler
- LVAD machines are in continuous flow so BP can’t be read
- heart tones S1/S2 can still be heard
- if pt is unresponsive – make sure pump is turned on or off? then start CPR
- education

A
  • chronic
    T - used as a bridge to transplant or if no surgery is planned (destination therapy)
    T- must take BP manually with doppler
    T - LVAD machines are in continuous flow so BP can’t be read
    F - heart tones S1/S2 cant be heard – just a humming sound of LVAD
  • if pt is unresponsive – make sure pump is turned off, then start CPR
  • education
85
Q

PVC Treatment
1. treat the cause
2. drugs
- beta blockers
- lidocaine
- amiodarone or atropine?

A

PVC Treatment
1. treat the cause
2. drugs
- beta blockers
- lidocaine
- amiodarone

86
Q
  • irregular waveforms of varying shapes and sizes
  • ventricles are quivering
  • no effective contractions = NO cardiac output
A

Ventricular fibrillation

87
Q

If A fib/A flutter treatment doesn’t work

  • long term ________ required
  • drug of choice - ________
  • Have to monitor ____ regularly
  • Antidote – ________
  • alternatives – dabigatran, apixaban, rivaroxaban, eboxaban
  • Don’t require ________
  • More _________
  • dosing?
  • Contraindicated with __________
  • antidote -
A

If A fib/A flutter treatment doesn’t work

  • long term anti coagulation required
  • drug of choice - warfarin/coumadin
  • Have to monitor INR regularly
  • Antidote – vitamin K
  • alternatives – dabigatran, apixaban, rivaroxaban, eboxaban
  • Don’t require routine lab testing
  • More expensive
  • May have to takes >once per day
  • Contraindicated with renal dysfunction
  • No antidote
88
Q
  • Elevated ST seg. + elevated troponin =
  • Not elevated ST seg. + elevated troponin =
  • Not elevated ST seg. + not elevated troponin + chest pain =
A

STEMI
NSTEMI
stable or unstable angina

89
Q

does this cause bradycardia or tachycardia?

  1. excessive vagal stimulation by parasympathomimetic
  2. vagal inhibition (restraining)
  3. physical activity
  4. low BP
  5. anxiety
  6. Hyperkalemia – slows depolarization
  7. pain
  8. digoxin toxicity
  9. stress
  10. Carotid sinus massage
  11. Vomiting/gagging
  12. anemia
  13. hypoxia
  14. Valsalva maneuvers
  15. Eyeball pressure
  16. Administration of parasympathomimetic drugs
  17. dehydrated/ hypovolemia/ low SV
  18. MI
  19. HF
  20. fever
A
  1. excessive vagal stimulation by parasympathomimetic = B
  2. vagal inhibition (restraining) = T
  3. physical activity =T
  4. low BP = T
  5. anxiety =T
  6. Hyperkalemia – slows depolarization = B
  7. pain =T
  8. digoxin toxicity =B
  9. stress=T
  10. Carotid sinus massage =B (vagal stimulation)
  11. Vomiting/gagging = B (vagal stimulation)
  12. anemia = T r/t lack of RBC to oxygenate
  13. hypoxia =T
  14. Valsalva maneuvers =B (vagal stimulation)
  15. Eyeball pressure =B (vagal stimulation)
  16. Administration of parasympathomimetic drugs =B (vagal stimulation)
  17. dehydrate/hypovolemia/low SV = low BP = T
  18. MI = low BP = T or B
  19. HF = low BP = T
  20. fever=T
90
Q

Causes of _______
- overexertion
- emotional stress
- stimulants
- digitalis toxicity
- various forms of heart disease

A

PSVT Paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardia

91
Q

non waves (segments, intervals, measures) in order
1st - P wave
2nd ________
3rd - QRS complex / R wave
4th - ________
5th - T wave
6th - _______
7th - isoelectric flat line

A
  • PR interval
    ST segment
    QT interval
92
Q

Raynaud’s phenomenon
s/s
- _______ changes in fingers and toes d/t ____________
- lasts _____-______
- cold or hot?
- numbness
- when perfusion returns – (4)
- event is triggered by - (4)

Diagnosis
- based on symptoms for __ years

A

s/s
- color changes (red, white, blue) in fingers and toes d/t vasospasms
- lasts mins – hours
- cold
- numbness
- when perfusion returns – throbbing, aching, tingling, swelling
- event is triggered by cold, emotional upset, tobacco, caffeine

Diagnosis
- based on symptoms for 2 years

93
Q

Stroke/emboli risk and A fib
A flutter

fibrillating/quivering atria (not a properly ______ atria) =
________ of blood =
_____ formation =
risk for _______ =
risk for _______

A

fibrillating/quivering atria (not a properly contracting atria) = pooling of blood = clot formation = risk for embolus = risk for stroke

94
Q
  • graphic tracing of electrical impulses produced by heart
  • waveforms represent activity of charged ions across membranes of myocardial cell
A

EKG

95
Q

Ankle brachial index ABI

  • Right ABI formula = ________ pressure in ________ /
    _________ pressure in ________
  • Left ABI formula = ________ pressure in ________ /
    _________ pressure in ________
  • 0.9-1.3 = _______
  • < 0.9 = _________
  • < 0.4 = _________

non-healing ulcerations
ischemic rest pain
occlusive atrial disease
Normal ABI
often associated w/ claudication

A
  • Right ABI formula = highest pressure in right foot /
    Highest pressure out of BOTH arms
  • Left ABI formula = highest pressure in left foot /
    Highest pressure out of both arms
  • 0.9-1.3 = Normal ABI
  • < 0.9 = occlusive atrial disease (0.4 – 0.9 is often associated w/ claudication)
  • < 0.4 = non-healing ulcerations, ischemic rest pain
96
Q

PAD diagnostic tests
- ______________
- can determine degree of blood flow
- ______________
- screening tool
- uses hand held doppler on all 4 extremities, gel, BP cuff

A

PAD diagnostic tests
- doppler ultrasound
- can determine degree of blood flow
- Ankle brachial index ABI
- screening tool
- uses hand held doppler on all 4 extremities, gel, BP cuff

97
Q
  • 3 or more PVCs together
  • ectopic focus within the ventricles takes controls and fires repeatedly
  • no atrial contractions occurring
  • very decreased cardiac output
  • rate 150-200 bpm, regular
  • no p wave, PR interval not measurable
A

VTACH
Ventricular tachycardia

98
Q

When to contact HCP
- isolated?
- if new PVC?
- increasing frequency PVCs?

why?

A
  • if new PVC or
    increasing frequency PVCs

could be turning into VTACH

99
Q

drugs for rhythm control (anti-dysrhythmic), Slows ventricular rate

(Vagolytic) blocks vagus nerve, will increase HR

antiarrhythmic drug used to convert paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardia (PSVT) to normal sinus rhythm.

all the a drugs - atropine, Amiodarone, adenosine

A

drugs for rhythm control (anti-dysrhythmic), - Slow ventricular rate - Amiodarone and dofetilide

atropine - - Vagolytic – blocks vagus nerve, will increase HR

adenosine - antiarrhythmic drug used to convert paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardia (PSVT) to normal sinus rhythm.

100
Q

_______ sided HF
- blood backs up in _____ atrium and pulmonary veins

______ sided HF
- blood backs up into the ____ atrium and venous circulation

A

left sided HF
- blood backs up in left atrium and pulmonary veins
- think LHF think lungs

right sided HF
- blood backs up into the right atrium and venous circulation
- think RHF think body

101
Q

VTE nursing care
- early/aggressive _______ or _____ q 2 hours
- _______ and _______ of feet, hips, knees q 2-4 hours while awake = mimics __________
- anti__________ therapy
- pt teaching to minimize risk factors
- inferior vena cava interruption _______ – “greenfield _______”
- Uses stainless steel filter to prevent ______
- as blood travels up the vena cava, clots are trapped in the filter, preventing them from reaching lungs

A

nursing care
- early/aggressive mobilization or turn q 2 hours
- flexion and extension of feet, hips, knees q 2-4 hours while awake – mimics skeletal muscle pump
- anticoagulation therapy
- pt teaching to minimize risks
- inferior vena cava interruption filters – “greenfield filter”
- Usus stainless steel filter to prevent PE
- as blood travels up the vena cava, clots are trapped in the filter, preventing them from reaching lungs

102
Q

CVI
Compression therapy – Promotes venous return back to heart
- recommended if pt currently has VTE?

static vs dynamic
_________ = compression hosiery
- Graded compression from distal to proximal
- Prescriptions by HCP specializing in vascular disease
- Measure in morning
- TED hose – can impede flow if put on incorrectly
________ = intermittent pneumatic compression pumps/sleeves
- SCUDs

A

Compression therapy – Promotes venous return back to heart
- not recommended to pt currently has VTE

static vs dynamic
- static = compression hosiery
- Graded compression from distal to proximal
- Prescriptions by HCP specializing in vascular disease
- Measure in morning
- TED hose – can impede flow if put on incorrectly
- dynamic = intermittent pneumatic compression pumps/sleeves
- SCUDs

103
Q

Permanent localized out-pouching of vessel wall in abdominal aorta
- aorta undergoes very high pressure so it is a susceptible place to get ________

A

Abdominal aortic aneurysm

104
Q

A fib/A flutter Treatment: non-pharm therapy/surgical

  1. Catheter _________ – radiofrequency or cryothermal therapy
    - Invasive or noninvasive?
    - Destroys irritable _____ causing the dysrhythmias
    - Must undergo ____ studies and mapping procedure to locate the focus
  2. ______ procedure
    - Surgical or catheter procedure?
    - Creates numerous atrial incisions to disrupt dysrhythmias, only one path from SA node to AV node
A
  • Catheter abliation – radiofrequency or cryothermal therapy
  • Invasive
  • Destroys irritable focus causing the dysrhythmias
  • Must undergo EP studies and mapping procedure to locate the focus
  • Maze procedure
  • Surgical procedure
  • Creates numerous atrial incisions to disrupt dysrhythmias, only one path from SA node to AV node
105
Q

Abdominal aortic aneurysm

Complications
- _______

Collaborative care
- early _________ – know familial tendency
- goal = prevent _________

  1. if AAA is small (<4 cm)
    - surgery or Watchful waiting?
    - Reduce ________
    - Reduce ______
    - Monitor ______ annually
  2. surgical therapy – elective vs emergency
    - Prefer ________
    - If ________ – mortality very high
  • Open aneurysm repair (OAR)
  • Open surgical repair = pt comes back w/ large abdominal incision or dressing over artery entrance site?
  • Surgery procedure involves – artery clamped and sew synthetic graft
  • endovascular aneurysm repair (EVAR)
  • open surgery or performed inside the vessel?
  • pt comes back with abdominal incision or dressing over artery entrance site?
  • Less or more invasive?
  • Similar post op care to cardiac cath – lay flat, don’t bend effected extremity, etc.

which procedure has better morbidity/mortality rates?

A

Complications
- rupture

Collaborative care
- early detection – know familial tendency
- goal = prevent rupture
- if AAA is small (<4 cm)
- Watchful waiting
- Reduce risk factors (CV risk factors)
- Reduce BP
- Monitor size annually
- surgical therapy – elective vs emergency
- Prefer elective
- If rupture – mortality very high
- Open aneurysm repair (OAR)
- Open surgical repair = pt comes back w/ large abdominal incision
- Surgery procedure involves – artery clamped and sew synthetic graft
- endovascular aneurysm repair (EVAR)
- Not open surgery, performed inside the vessel =
- pt doesn’t come back with abdominal incision, pt comes back with dressing over artery entrance site
- Less invasive
- Similar post op care to cardiac cath – lay flat, don’t bend effected extremity, etc.

  • Both procedures have similar morbidity/mortality rates
106
Q

PAD:Collaborative care
1.modify _______
2.drug therapy
- Statins
- Anti____________
- Anti__________
- Cilostazol – inhibits _________ and increases vaso__________ (1st line drug for __________ if modifying risk factors alone isn’t effective)
- 3.________ exercises
- Walk until pain starts, stop/rest until pain goes away, repeat
- Purpose – increase ________ circulation
- 4.proper foot care
- 5.angioplasty/stenting – minimally invasive
- 6.intervention radiology ________-based procedures
- Alternative to _________
- In cath lab
- Similar to angiography/specialized catheter inserted via femoral artery:
- PTA - Percutaneous transluminal angioplasty (balloon)
- Stents (balloon)
- Atherectomy – plaque removal
- Cryoplasty – PTA + cold therapy
- 7.________ surgery
- 8.amputation

A

1.modify risk factors
- atherosclerosis
- tobacco
- DM ?
- hyperlipidemia
- uncontrolled HTN
X- familial
- ___creased CRP – non specific indicator of inflammation
- 2.drug therapy
- Statins
- Antihypertensives
- Antiplatelets – ASA
- Cilostazol – inhibits platelet aggregation and increases vasodilation (1st line drug for intermittent claudication if modifying risk factors alone isn’t effective)
- 3.walking exercises
- Walk until pain starts, stop/rest until pain goes away, repeat
- Purpose – increase collateral circulation
- 4.proper foot care
- 5.angioplasty/stenting – minimally invasive
- 6.intervention radiology catheter-based procedures
- Alternative to open surgery
- In cath lab
- Similar to angiography/specialized catheter inserted via femoral artery:
- PTA - Percutaneous transluminal angioplasty (balloon)
- Stents (balloon)
- Atherectomy – plaque removal
- Cryoplasty – PTA + cold therapy
- 7.bypass surgery
- 8.amputation

107
Q

A fib and A flutter s/s
- depends on
- _________ rate
- how long _______ has been present
- _____ status
- typically, s/s of tachydysrhythmia ***

A

s/s
- depends on
- ventricular rate
- how long rhythm has been present
- CV status
- typically, s/s of tachydysrhythmia ***

108
Q

PAD treatment
Types of bypass surgery
- name is based on _______ and _________
- Ex: femoral popliteal bypass “fem-pop bypass”
- Femoral occlusion
- Graft in femoral artery and popliteal artery, bypassing the occlusion

A

Types of bypass surgery
- name is based on where blockage is and what they are bypassing
- Ex: femoral popliteal bypass “fem-pop bypass”
- Femoral occlusion
- Graft in femoral artery and popliteal artery, bypassing the occlusion

109
Q

Cor pulmonale
- type of _____HF
- caused by _________
- enlargement of ______ side of heart

A

Cor pulmonale
- type of RHF
- caused by pulmonary HTN
- enlargement of right side of heart

110
Q

VTE Risk factors: r/t Venous stasis, Endothelial tissue damage, or hypercoagulability?
- dehydration
- malnutrition
- high altitudes
- oral contraceptives
- pregnancy
- cancer
- tobacco

A

Risk factors: hypercoagulability of blood

111
Q

Vfib
Treatment
- CPR
- ACLS
- defibrillation
synch switch turned on or off?

A

Treatment
- CPR
- ACLS
- defibrillation (synch switch turned off, no QRS)

112
Q

Atrial fibrillation
- described as “________”
- most common dysrhythmia
- total disorganization of atrial electrical activity d/t ________ ectopic foci firing all at the same time
- this causes loss of effective __________
- atrial isn’t _______, atrial is ___________
- SA is being taken over and is no longer the ________of the heart
- atrial rate > ____ bpm
- ventricular rate up to ____-____ bpm
- R to R intervals are “________ _________”
- prevalence ___creases with age

A

Atrial fibrillation
“quiver”
- most common dysrhythmia
- total disorganization of atrial electrical activity d/t multiple ectopic foci firing all at the same time = loss of effective atrial contraction/kick (p wave)
- atrial isn’t contracting, atrial is quivering
- SA is being taken over and is no longer the pacemaker of the heart
- atrial rate > 400 bpm
- ventricular rate up to 100-175 bpm
- R to R intervals are irregularly irregular (irregular and erratic)
- prevalence increases with age

113
Q

Causes of _______
- MI
- CAD
- electrolyte imbalance
- HF
- drug toxicities

A

VTACH