W2P1 Flashcards

Histo of skin Wound healing Hypersensitivity Laboratory Immunology Adaptive Immune deficiences Autoimmunity and tolerance Asthma and Rhinits

1
Q

What are hypersensitivities

- what do they result in

A

Exaggerated immune mechanisms directed against innocuous antigens

  • Resulting in tissue injury
  • Causing many known human diseases
  • Can be fatal
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2
Q

What classification system is used for hypersensitivities?

A

Coombs and Gell classification:

Type I: Immediate hypersensitivity (IgE)

Type II: Antibody-dependent cell mediated cytotoxicity (ADCC) (IgG, IgM)

Type III: Immune complex mediated (IgM, IgG)

Type IV: Delayed type (T cell mediated)

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3
Q

Type 1 Hypersensitivity:

A

Immediate type

most common type. seen in 20% of population

This is an allergic reaction induced by specific antigen/allergen
provoked by RE-EXPOSURE to the same antigen

mediated by IgE antibodies, which activates tissue mast cells to release HISTAMINE [pro-inflammatory] and…. circulating basophiles
to release local or systemic pro-inflammatory mediators

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4
Q

Type 2 Hypersensitivity

  • which ABs are involved
  • how does it get triggered
A

Antibody Dependent Cell Mediated Cytotoxicity
- antibodies coating pathogens (usually viruses) are taken up via FcγR111 on NK cells, leading to the killing of the cells the viruses had infected. The viruses must be presented by MHCI.

this involves IgG and IgM produced AGAINST

a. intrinsic Ag (self antigens)
- failure in immune tolerance
- cross reactivity
b. extrinsic Ag absorbed on host cells surface
- i.e. penicillin at the surface of RBC

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5
Q

Once type 2 hypersensitivity antibodies bind to the surface of host cells, what happens?

A

4 pathways can be initiated by IgG or IgM binding in type 2 hypersensitivity:

Opsonization ( phagocytosis)

Complement activation (MAC, lysis)

NK cell activation (via perforins and Granzymes, by binding to Fc of AB)

Activation or blockage of important cell receptors

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6
Q

One method employed in Type 2 hypersensitivity is the activation or blockage of important cells receptors.
what is an examples of a disease resulting from this specific pathway?

A

Myastenia gravis

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7
Q

What are examples of type 2 hypersensitivities

A

ADCC mediated pathologies

AB and Rh blood group incompatibilities (Transfusion reactions)

Autoimmune diseases :

  • Idiopathic Thrombocytopenic Purpura
  • Myasthenia gravis
  • Goodpasture’s
  • Graves’

Some drug reactions

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8
Q

Type 3 hypersensitivity

A

Immune Complex Mediated Hypersensitivity

Caused when Antigen-Antibody complexes form, which happens when there is an antigen excess compared to the amount of antibodies

Immune complexes form in large amounts in the circulation

Deposition in various tissues
Skin
Joints
Kidneys…

caused when soluble antigen-antibody (IgG or IgM) complexes, which are normally removed by macrophages in the spleen and liver, form in large amounts and overwhelm the body These small complexes lodge in the capillaries, pass between the endothelial cells of blood vessels - especially those in the skin, joints, and kidneys - and become trapped on the surrounding basement membrane beneath these cells The antigen/antibody complexes then activate the classical complement pathway

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9
Q

In type 3, activation of the complement pathway may cause:

A

Lodge in capillaries

Immune complexes activate classical complement pathway

which may cause:

a. massive inflammation, due to complement protein C5a;
b. influx of neutrophils, due to complement protein C5a , resulting in neutrophils discharging their lysosomes and causing tissue destruction and furthers inflammation
c. MAC lysis of surrounding tissue cells, due to the membrane attack complex, C5b6789n; and
d. aggregation of platelets, resulting in more inflammation and the formation of microthrombi that block capillaries

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10
Q

Type 3 examples

A
Serum sickness
Immune Complex Glomerulonephritis
Hypersensitivity pneumonitis
Extrinsic Allergic Alveolitis (Farmer’s lung)
SLE
Arthritis?
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11
Q

What is Serum Sickness

A

(systemic reaction):

In the pre-antibiotic era, antiserum made by immunizing horses used to treat pneumococcal pneumonia

If a course needed, in some individuals, would lead to a systemic type III hypersensitivity reaction on first exposure

7–10 days after the injection of the horse serum

chills, fever, rash, arthritis, sometimes glomerulonephritis

  • self limiting disease
    after a second dose of antigen, it would follow the kinetics of secondary antibody response and the onset of disease occurs typically within a day or two
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12
Q

What are some manifestations that are present when the ration of antigens is greater than the ratio of antibodies

A

antigen:antibody COMPLEXES
lead to:

Fever
Vasculitis
Arthritis
Nephritis

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13
Q

Example of a type 4 hypersensitivity test

A

Delayed type Hypersensitivity

T- cell mediated
- i.e. Tuberculin test (PPD), used to determine previous exposure by exposing pt to PPD, eliciting a T4 reaction if patient is positive (2nd exposure)

Purified Proteine Derivative

Small amounts of tuberculin—a complex mixture of peptides and carbohydrates derived from M. tuberculosis—are injected intradermally. In individuals who have previously been exposed to the bacterium, either by infection with the pathogen or by immunization with BCG, an attenuated form of M. tuberculosis, a local T cell-mediated inflammatory reaction evolves over 24–72 hours

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14
Q

Type 4

A

Response mediated by TH1 cells

  • Recognize complexes of peptide: MHC class II on APCs
  • Releasing IFN-γ and TNF-β…
  • Stimulating the expression of adhesion molecules on endothelium and increase local blood vessel permeability

Attracting, retaining and activating macrophages

  • Allowing plasma and inflammatory cells to enter the site
  • Causing swelling (Induration)
  • Each phase takes several hours
  • Response appears only 24–48H later
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15
Q

What are some examples of type 4 hypersensitivities

A

Type IV hypersensitivity reaction to poison ivy
Contact dermatitis with poison ivy

  • Response to a chemical in the poison ivy leaf
  • Caused by direct exposure- first time exposure
  • Mediated by T lymphocytes (CD4, CD8)

Can also occur upon exposure to

Other plants 
Nickel or other metals 
Medications 
Rubber 
Cosmetics 
Fabrics and clothing 
Detergents 
Solvents 
Adhesives 
…
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16
Q

IgE

  • what are they produced by
  • where are they predominantely located?
  • What receptor are they tightly bound to
A
  • IgE produced by plasma cells

IgE located predominantly in tissues

IgE tightly bound to FcE expressed at the surface of

  • Tissue mast-cells
  • Circulating basophils and activated eosinophils
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17
Q

What is the typical sequence of events for Allergic reaction?

A

Typical sequence of events:

  1. Re-Exposure to Antigen (Allergen)
  2. Presentation through APC
  3. Activation of TH2
  4. Production of IgE
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18
Q

Role of Histamine

A
  • causes bronchoconstriction = difficulty breathing

- vasodilation and permeability = edema, uriticaria/hives

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19
Q

What are some treatments to type 1 sensitivities

A
  1. anti-histamines: to broncho dilate and decrease vascular permeability
  2. corticosteroids: decrease inflammatory response
  3. Epi: Intramuscularily in emerg situations during severe attacks. to constrict blood vessels and prevent anaphylactic shock.
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20
Q

Is immediate hypersensitivity symptoms localized or systemic?

A

IT DEPENDS on:

nature of allergen
route of introduction of allergen
several host factors

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21
Q

What does it mean to be atopic?

A

denoting a form of allergy in which a hypersensitivity rxn such as dermatitis or asthma may occur in a part of the body not in contact with the allergen

  • it is an increased tendency to mount an IgE response to innocuous antigen
  • has a strong familial bias
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22
Q

What cytokines are released by TH2 cells?

A

TH2 are derived from CD4 naive T cells

they release: IL-4, IL-5, IL-13, IL-31

their function: to recruit more immune cells: mast cells, T cells, eosinophils

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23
Q

Initial environmental/hygiene hypothesis vs modified hypothesis

A

less hygenic environments predisposing you to infections PROTECTS us against ATOPIC diseases

but how? following hypothesis

initial: Infections that evoke TH1 response early in life might REDUCE the likelihood of TH2 response later in life
modified: there has been an increase in incidence of TH2? mediated autoimmune disease

so really what we need is the development of TREG cytokines that result from infections that MIGHT be able to protect use from atopy.

because too high T1/T2 = atopic/autoimmune diseases

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24
Q

What are the three effector mechanisms for an allergic reaction?

A

Mast cells: histamine, heparin, proteases. They release IL3 and IL4 to continue the stimulation of TH2 cells.
Basophiles
Eosinophils

all of these have the FC receptor for IgE

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25
Q

Epinephrine

A

Stimulation of:

A1 adrenergic receptor

  • increase peripheral vascular resistance by promoting vasoconstriction
  • Reduces angioedema
  • Improves coronary perfusion 


B1 adrenergic receptor
- Increased inotropic and chronotropic effect


B2 adrenergic receptor

  • Bronchodilation
  • Decrease release of inflammatory mediators from mast cells and basophils
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26
Q

Which method of EPI administration is more affective?

A

intramuscularly> subcutaneously

recommended location of injection during anaphylaxis: anterolateral aspect of the thigh

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27
Q

Mast Cell

A

Fundamental role in innate immunity

Express multiple “pattern recognition receptors” involved in recognizing broad classes of pathogens

Major growth factor for mast cells
Stem-Cell Factor (SCF), acting on its receptor c-Kit

against they have receptor for IgE
they release histamines

they are tissue based

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28
Q

Basophils

A

Many similar characteristics than mast cells
Express also IgE receptors

As opposed to mast cells that are more tissue based
Basophils are more circulating in the peripheral blood

Involved in allergic diseases

Play a significant role in the anti-parasitic response

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29
Q

Eosinophils

A

Eosinophils fight off infectious agents / damage tissues through release of toxic granule proteins such as

  • Major Basic Protein
  • Eosinophil-Derived Neurotoxin
  • Eosinophil Cationic Protein

important against PARASITES

Fighting viral infections through their RNAses contained within their granules.

Ejects DNA of mitochondrial origin producing a sticky network that can capture bacteria and promote their extra-cellular killing

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30
Q

Invaginations of the skin

A

refer to sweat glands, hair follicles, salivary glands, toot

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31
Q

What are the two forms of epithelial tissue?

A

Sheet of cell and glands

tissue between a space (fluid/lumen) and the Basement membrane/ basal lamina

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32
Q

What are the derivations of Epithelia

A

ectoderm - lining of oral and nasal cavities, cornea, skin epidermis & glands of skin
endoderm - lining of GI tract, lining of respiratory tract, liver, pancreas
mesoderm - renal tubules, lining of reproductive tract, lining of blood vessels

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33
Q

What are the functions of epithelia

A

Function

  • protection, thermoregulation
  • transport
  • secretion
  • absorption
  • sensations
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34
Q

What are the different nomenclatures for the epithelial layers

A
Simple Squamous 
Simple Cuboidal 
Simple Columnar
Stratified squamous (non-keratinized) 
Stratified squamous (keratinized) 
Pseudostratified
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35
Q

What percentage of us is made up of skin?

A

16%

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36
Q

What are the layers of the skin from superficial to deep?

A
  1. stratum corneum (cornified or keratinized layer)
  2. stratum lucidum (clear layer)
  3. stratum granulosum (granular layer)
  4. stratum spinosum (spiny layer)
  5. stratum basale or germinativum (basal layer)
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37
Q

About the Epithelium of Skin

A
  • integument (skin and its appendages)
  • skin = epithelium (epidermis) plus dermis (CT) - 16% of body wt
  • sits on fatty hypodermis
  • dry skin continuous with wet mucous membrane
  • skin appendages from epithelium
    nails, hair, glands (sweat and sebaceous glands)
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38
Q

What are the layers/parts of the Epidermis-Dermis INTERFACE?

A

Top/superficial to deeper:

  1. Tonofilament insertion
  2. Hemidemosome
  3. Integrins
  4. Basement membrane (collagen IV)
    - papillary layer
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39
Q

Structures between Stratum Spinosum cells?

A

These cells are Keratinocytes
- tonofilament bundles converge into the “desmosome” a general term for the structures involved in the attachment

Desmosome includes:
Cadherines: between the cells, attaching them
Tonofilaments and Kerating Filaments

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40
Q

Stratum Spinosum

A

polyhedral, spiny cells - deeper cells can also be mitotic

  • secrete distinct lamellated granules (membrane-coating granules)(mostly glycolipids, not phospholipids)
  • intermediate filaments are called tonofilaments

14 keratin (K1 - K14) genes (cytokeratins) in epidermis

70 diseases have been identified with mutated keratin genes

  • keratins in spiny processes, insert into desmosomes
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41
Q

Stratum granulosum summary

A

Stratum granulosum summary

  • 3-5 layers of cells
  • large keratohyalin granules (no mb, filaggrin protein) assoc. w. tonofibrils (not always present in kerat. epith.)
  • lamellated bodies/granules increase in number
  • ↑ transglutaminase crosslinking
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42
Q

Stratum Lucidum Summary

A

Stratum lucidum summary

  • thin and variable (in thick skin only), and unstained
  • no organelles left, including nucleus
  • full of keratin tonofibrils
  • cells are dead
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43
Q

Stratum Corneum Summary

A

Stratum corneum summary

  • dead cells, full of crosslinked keratin fibrils, amorphous substance
  • protein deposits under membrane as cell envelope (involucrin and loricrin)
  • intercellular space packed with lipids
  • release of desmosomal attachments
  • desquamation, sloughing of squames (cornified cells)

the more mature they are, the more stuffed with keratin they get

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44
Q

Epidermolysis Bullosa

A

Defective epidermal cell adhesion

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45
Q

Ichthyosis

A

Abnormal Keratinization of glycolipid processing/release

e. g. filaggrins and transglutaminase mutations
- I think the desquamousing process is messed up so there’s patches of skin, darker or more read that remains

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46
Q

What are other cells, non keratinocytes in the epidermis

A

Melanocytes
Langerhans cells
Merkel cells

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47
Q

Melanocytes

  • function
  • derived from?
  • location?
  • connections to keratinocytes?
  • pre-melanosomes contain?
  • how is melanin made
A

mature to melanin granules

  • melanin, protects DNA
  • cells derive from neural crest
  • cell body in stratum basale
  • hundreds to thousands per mm2
  • no desmosomal connections to keratinocytes
  • pre-melanosomes contain tyrosine (amino acid)
  • melanosome, tyrosine plus tyrosinase (activated by UV, tyrosine → melanin)
  • eu (dark brown) or pheo (red, yellow) melanin
  • melanin granules in dendritic-like cell processes
  • cytocrine release to keratinocytes
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48
Q

What causes Albinism

A
  • albinism, gene mutations in tyrosinase gene (complete or partial), ↑ skin cancer

tryrosinase is what gets activated by UV light to produce protective melanin

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49
Q

Langerhans cell

A
  • also called dendritic cells (long cell processes)
  • bind foreign substances - antigens
  • migrating immune response cells that are antigen-presenting cells
  • migrate to lymph nodes and present to T lymphocytes
  • derive from bone marrow, migratory cells, no desmosomal connections
  • 800 cells mm2
  • Birbeck (vermiform) granules (function unknown)
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50
Q

Merkel cells

A
  • mechanosensing cells, single isolated cells in basal layer, with desmosomal connections to keratinocytes
  • unmyelinated sensory nerve endings contact Merkel cells (complex may act as mechanoreceptor, abundant in finger tips).
  • dense-cored granules (function unknown)
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51
Q

Functions of Extracellular Matrix (ECM)

A

Connecting and supporting (typically collagen fibrils)
collagen = 90% by weight of ECM

  • Signals for cell proliferation and differentiation
  • Cell communication (outside-in / matrix-cell signaling)
  • Cell protection
  • Transmits, and attenuates, mechanical signals
  • Compartment for blood vessels, lymphatics, nerves, etc.
  • Transport system (Ca and other ions, nutrients, metabolites)
  • Controls diffusion of soluble growth factors
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52
Q

Connective Tissue

Constituents:
Types:

A

Constituents: Cells and Extracellular (Intercellular) Matrix

Types: CT proper and CT specialized

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53
Q

CT Proper vs CT specialized

A

CT Proper

Loose CT (very cellular)
Loose CT (cellular)
[Intermediate CT]
Irregular Dense CT (relatively acellular)
Regular / Oriented Dense CT (relatively acellular)

Nutritive and excretory role
“The battlefield for defence reactions”
Lymph, edema, cancer and metastasis

with addition of mineral = CT Specialized:

Bone, Cartilage and Teeth (dentin, cementum)

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54
Q

What are the major cell types of connective tissue

A

Mesenchymal cell
Fibroblast (also called Fibrocyte)
Adipocyte

Macrophage / Histiocyte
Mast cell
Plasma cell

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55
Q

Which is the most abundant protein in your body?

A

Collagen

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56
Q

Collagen is synthesized and secreted by?

A

Fibroblasts

takes an hour

golgi apparatus is organelle of production?

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57
Q

Dense CT is made up of mostly?

A

Collagen

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58
Q

Scurvy:

A

Vit C def

Vit C required for hydroxylation

If absent, no stable triple helices of alpha chains - no ordered fibrils- no collagen- can lead to teeth falling out

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59
Q

Ehlers-Danlos Syndrome

A

Collagen I, III and V mutations

Gives hyperextensive skin, hyper joint mobility and dislocation

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60
Q

Types of Fibers in our skin

A
Collagen - fibrillar collagens (types I, II, III, V, VII, XI)
Reticular fibres (collagen type III)
Elastic fibres (lots of recoil)
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61
Q

Protein cross-linking by which enzyme?

A

Lysyl Oxidase

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62
Q

Amorphous Ground Substance

A

(between fibres; resists compressive forces)

Small proteoglycans, e.g. decorin, biglycan
Large proteoglycan aggregates
(glycosaminoglycans, hyaluronic acid and link protein)
Glycoproteins (and other post-translational modifications)
Water, metabolites, mineral ions, etc.
Plasma proteins

63
Q

Elastin Related Disorders

A
1. Marfan’s syndrome
Fibrillin-1 gene mutations
Aortic aneurysm / rupture
Lax joints - dislocations
Len’s dislocation (ectopia lentis)
  1. Cutis laxa
    Elastin and fibulin-5 mutations, and other elastic fibre degeneration events
64
Q

Secretory Granules in Skin

A

Secretory granules, After initial sensitization by antigens, degranulation after IgE binding to Fc receptors

Histamine: vasodilation, edema, hayfever, immediate hypersensitivity Rx, anaphylaxis / effects on SMCs, asthma and bronchiospasms

Heparin: anti-coagulant

Leukocyte chemotactic factors

65
Q

How deep should a tattoo needle plunge?

A

only up into the DERMIS

66
Q

How does hair impact wound healing?

A

Seems like it gets in the way a bit and delays healing, makes the site less clean

Macrophages can fuse and become foreign-body giant cells around hair/particles in a wound

67
Q

Granuloma

A

Nodular encapsulation of macrophages and other cells, followed often by CT (collagen) encapsulation

seen in inactive infections: i.e. TB, or silicon leakage from break implant

68
Q

What are stretch marks?

A

In massive enlargement like prganancy, obesity, weight lifters can break collagen fibres/elastic fibers and you’re looking through broken collagen into rich vascular network.

Seeing the blood = early stages, our body starts healing, stem cells to fill in the ruptured collagen and elastin = a scar

69
Q

What are the three phases of wound healing?

A
  1. Hemostasis
  2. Inflammation
  3. Proliferation /Maturation
  4. Remodeling
70
Q

What type of cells peak INSIDE WOUNDED CELLS during Inflammation vs proliferation phases of wound healing

A

Inflammation: Neutrophils, than Macrophages, then Fibroblasts start to peak
Proliferation: Fibroblasts continue to peak, then Lymphocytes
Maturation: they all go down* back to normal slowly

71
Q

What type of cells peak in the MATRIX during Inflammation vs Proliferation vs Maturation phases of wound healing

A

Inflammation: Fibronectin, the most, then Collagen III
Proliferation: steady increase in collagen I parallel to steady increase in Wound Breaking Strength

72
Q

Hemostasis of wound healing involves:

A

Vascular constriction
Clot formation via platelet aggregation/degranulation and fibrin formation
Fibrin clot formation (fibrinogen cleaved by thrombin)

Platelets and surrounding cells release pro-inflammatory cytokines and growth factors

Key growth factors: TGF-β, PDGF, EGF and FGF

Scab (fibrin eschar) or damp clot

Oxygen tension changes

73
Q

Inflammation phase of wound healing involves:

A

Neutrophil infiltration, followed by
Monocyte infiltration and differentiation to macrophages.
Lymphocyte infiltration.

Neutrophils clear microbes and cellular debris by phagocytosis, and produce proteases and reactive oxygen species (oxidizes/damages microbial DNA, lipids and proteins).

Macrophages have many roles. Early, release cytokines that recruit and activate more leucocytes, then phagocytosis (everything, including cellular debris and even neutrophil debris [efferocytosis – latin, “burying of the dead cells”]), then secrete factors that stimulate keratinocytes, fibroblasts and angiogenesis.

74
Q

Cell Proliferation/ Maturation phase of wound healing involves:

A

Re-epithelialization by keratinocytes.
Angiogenesis.
Fibroblast proliferation and extracellular matrix production (collagen) in the dermis.

Details:

Keratinocyte proliferation and migration
(re-epithelialization) from stratum basale
and hair follicle.
TGF-β1, EGF, KGF, TGF-α, VEGF

Contraction by myofibroblasts (actin-mediated)
In dermis, fibroblast and endothelial cell proliferation
and extracellular matrix production (TGF-β1 effects particularly) (collagen secretion and angiogenesis [need good vascular bed, e.g. so open sores in diabetes], granulation tissue) .

Mesenchymal stem cells (MSCs) for fibroblasts, and hematopoetic stem cells (HSCs) for endothelial cells, arrive from bone marrow via extravasation.

75
Q

Remodeling phase of wound healing involves:

A

Regression of capillaries, then normal vascular bed.

Extracellular matrix remodeling via MMPs (matrix metalloproteinases)

Contraction by myofibroblasts (actin-mediated) continues (gradually present in earlier stages)

76
Q
In cell proliferation stage, which cells produce/responsible for: 
which cells do: 
re-epithelialization
contraction 
fibroblasts
endothelial cells
A

Keratinocyte proliferation and migration
(re-epithelialization) from stratum basale
and hair follicle.
TGF-β1, EGF, KGF, TGF-α, VEGF

Contraction by myofibroblasts (actin-mediated)

In dermis, fibroblast and endothelial cell proliferation
and extracellular matrix production (TGF-β1 effects particularly) (collagen secretion and angiogenesis [need good vascular bed, e.g. so open sores in diabetes], granulation tissue) .

Mesenchymal stem cells (MSCs) for fibroblasts, and hematopoetic stem cells (HSCs) for endothelial cells, arrive from bone marrow via extravasation.

77
Q

What are Dermal Fibroses

A

They are Hypertrophic scars and Keloids

Overabundance of collagen* in the dermis

Prolonged inflammatory response that leads to increased and sustained ECM* production

Fibroblasts* have increased growth factor receptors and respond more readily to TGF-β*

*key words: collagen, fibroblasts, ECM, TGF-B

78
Q

Scleroderma

A

autoimmune disease, localized and systemic

thickening and swelling of the skin
increased collagen- too much*

increased TGF-β and receptors

79
Q

What are the shared common features of inborn errors of immunity?

A
Susceptibility to Infection
Auto-immunity
Auto-inflammation
Lymphoprol
Neoplasia
80
Q

Immunodeficiency diseases

- There are two types…

A
Primary immunodeficiency (PI) diseases are a group of primarily single-gene disorders 
- early diagnosis/treatment can prevent fatal outcomes**

Secondary (acquired) immunodeficiencies caused by non genetic or external agents

81
Q

What are Inborn Errors of Immunity

- The three types?

A

Disorders that may compromise an arm of the immune system 


B lymphocytes (Humoral) 
T lymphocytes (Cellular immunity) 
Combined (Both T+B cells)
Phagocytic arm
Complement system

3 types:
Immunodeficiency diseases
Immune Dys-regulation Syndromes
Auto-inflammatory Syndromes

82
Q

What are some examples of Secondary Immunodeficiencies

A

This is referring to Acquired immunodeficiency

HIV / AIDS 
Neoplasia 
Transplantation (solid organ, stem cells) 
Functional asplenia / splenectomy 
Immunosuppressor 
Anti-metabolic / chemo 
Radiotherapy 
Severe malnutrition 
Uremia, Diabetes ...
83
Q

What age do genetic disease start at?

A

ANY AGE

84
Q

SCID

A

Severe Combined Immunodeficiency

85
Q

Diagnosis of IEIs is often….?

A

IEI= inborn errors of immunity

diagnosis is ofter DELAYED by 4-5 years
half of pts present with permanent functional impairments before diagnosis

86
Q

Who should be investigated

- there are 10 signs

A
  1. Eight or more new ear infections within 1 year
  2. Two or more serious sinus infections within 1 year
  3. Two or more pneumonias within 1 year
  4. Two or more deep-seated infections
  5. Two or more months on antibiotics with little effect
  6. Need for intravenous antibiotics to clear infections
  7. Persistent thrush (white plaques) in mouth or elsewhere on skin, after age 1
  8. Recurrent, deep skin or organ abscesses
  9. Failure of an infant to gain weight or grow normally
  10. A family history of Primary Immunodeficiency
87
Q

Who should be investigated?

- there are 5 key presentations that should be regarded with high index of suspicion

A

Infections with

  1. VERY MILD inflammatory signs
    i. e. staph liver abscess with few symptoms: shows deficiency in immune response, red flag
  2. Recurrent autoimmune phenomena
  3. DYSMORPHIC FEATURES associated with recurrent infection *
  4. Presence of vaccine pathogen even AFTER vaccination (memory is not working)
  5. CHRONIC DIARRHEA
88
Q

What are the top three types in the relative distribution of IEI

A
  1. Predominantly antibody deficiencies (humoral)
  2. Combined immunodeficiencies with associated or syndromic features (humoral and cell mediated arms)
  3. Congenital defects of phagocyte* number of function
89
Q

When to suspect a B cell defect

- at what age do they usually present?

A

Multiple / Severe Bacterial Infections

Respiratory Tract bacterial Infections
Streptococcus, Haemophilis, …

Usually seen after 6 months when maternal antibodies lost

90
Q

When to suspect a T cell defect

- these are big ones

A

Opportunistic infections
Candida sp, Pneumocystis jiroveci

Fungal, viral, intra-cellular infections

Diarrhea/Malabsorption

Poor Growth/Failure to Thrive

91
Q

When to suspect Phagocytic defect?

A

Characteristically have
Infections of the skin, Liver, GI Tract
Abcesses
Delayed separation of the umbilical cord and wound healing

LAD –>No Pus

Gingivitis/Periodontitis

92
Q

When to suspect Complement Defect

A

C1-C4 deficiency
Associated with Rheumatic Disorders
Pyogenic Infections

C5-C9 Complement deficiency
Susceptibility to Encapsulated organisms
Pneumococcus
Meningococcus
H. flu
93
Q

Rheumatism

A

any disease marked by inflammation and pain in the joints, muscles, or fibrous tissue, especially rheumatoid arthritis.

94
Q

What should be ordered when suspecting B, T, phagocytic, complement deficiences?

A

Tests that give you their NUMBER and their FUNCTION

95
Q

How to determined lymphocyte numbers

A

CBC : Absolute Lymphocyte Count (ALC)

Flow Cytometry (Fluorescence activated cell sorter: FACS)

Based on the expression of specific molecules at the cell surface called:

CD: Cluster of differentiation
Cell numbers
Cell %age

CD19; for B cells
CD4/CD8/CD3: for T cells

96
Q

How to determine B cell FUNCTION?

A

Quantitative

IgG
IgM
IgA
IgE

Qualitative
Serology

I think for serology you’re looking for the presence of bacterial elements that you should have memory ab for there fore they should not be circulating in your blood?

Tetanus
Diphtheria
H. flu
MMR
Hepatitis
Pneumococcus
…

AND DNA sequencing

97
Q

How to test for T cell function ?

4 main types

A

CD4: Helper
- B cells Antibody levels

Assessing their proliferation abilities in response to

a. Mitogens
Causing widespread lymphocyte activation (proliferation)
- Isolated from plants and bacteria
The most used are:

Phytohemagglutinin (PHA):  stimulate T lymphocytes
Concanavalin A (Con A):      stimulate T lymphocytes
Pokeweed mitogen (PWM):  stimulate both T and B lymphocytes

Specific antigens (Tetanus, CMV…)

ALSO T4 hypersensitivity test: Anergy skin test, PPD for TB

and DNA sequencing

98
Q

How to detect defects in phagocytic arm? (number)

A

Nb.
CBC: ANC…

  • Neutropenia
  • Neutrophelia

Leukocyte Adhesion Deficiency (LAD):
Lack of adhesion molecules: CD18

99
Q

How to detect defects in the FUNCTION of phagocytic arm?

A

Function

Chronic Granulomatous Disease (CGD): DHR

Phagocytic cells reduce DHR to the strongly fluorescent compound Rhodamine

Flow cytometry
Individual fluorescent cells counted
Amount of fluorescence per cell is quantified

and ofc DNA sequencing

100
Q

What are the three compliment pathways

A
  1. Classical pathway: ab binding to invaders
  2. Lectin pathway: mannose binding lectin binding to invaders
  3. Alternative pathway: C3b binding to microbial invaders

these all lead to opsonization, inflammatory upregulation, and MAC lysis of cells

101
Q

How to quantify Nb for complement system?

A

Dosage of each individual component of the system

eg. C3, C4,…

102
Q

How to measure complement system FUNCTION?

A

ELISA
An enzyme immunoassay

Stimulation with specific activators of the
Classical pathway
Alternative
MBL

Amount of MAC (C5b-9) generated measured
- For each pathway

103
Q

Examples of monogenic/primary IEI

A

XLA: X Linked Agammaglobulinemia
CD18: Leukocyte Adhesion Deficiency

104
Q

Some clinical features of autoimmunity

A

arthritis, thyroid, cytopenias

105
Q

Infectious Agents Associated with B cell Immune Defects

A
Encapsulated bacteria:
Pneumococcus
Haemophilus
Meningococcus
Pseudomonas
Sinusitis, otitis, pneumonia
Bacteremia, meningitis, arthritis, osteomyelitis
Enteroviruses (RNA viruses, start in GI, spread to CNS)
Giardia (gut)
106
Q

Infectious Agents Associated with T cell immune defects

A

T cell:

Viruses
HSV, CMV, VZV, EBV
Severe protracted LRTI (RSV, paraflu, flu, adeno)
Fungi
Mucocutaneous or disseminated candidiasis
PCP
Mycobacteria
Protozoa
Toxoplasma
Intestinal protozoans
Strongyloides
107
Q

What are some Red Flags for Primary Immunodeficiency

A

Repeated invasive infection
Infections with opportunistic pathogens
Poor response to prolonged antibiotic therapies
chronic diarrhea
Chronic failure to gain weight and grwo
Persistent/ Recurrent oral lesions, skin rashes
Family history

108
Q

What is XLA

A

X-Linked Agammaglobulinemia

Arrest of B cell development at pre-B cell stage (meaning still in the bone marrow… none will make it to circulation)
Mutation in btk gene (Bruton tyrosine kinase)

Autosomal recessive* for other enzymes involved in the pathway: i.e. BLNK

109
Q

What are the presentations and findings in people with XLA?

  • age of infections
  • serology/CBC findings
  • susceptible to…?
A

Infections begin at 4-6 months when maternal immunity wanes
Absent circulating mature B cells
All major classes of immunoglobulin affected (IgG, IgM, IgA)
No antibody responses to antigen
Sino-oto-pulmonary infections with encapsulated bacteria
Bacteremia, meningitis, septic arthritis, etc
Chronic infections with enteroviruses

110
Q

IgG levels in infants

A

Immunoglobulin levels in the fetus and in the infant. As maternal IgG declines, total IgG reaches a lowest point between 3 and 6 months of age, after which it rises as the endogenous IgG increases with age. Premature infants are born with lower IgG and have a deeper and longer lowest points. THI is a delay in recovery from the nadir.

IgG level goes up in the last trimester before birth
After birth it goes down once umbilical cord is cut

111
Q

Liquid Protection

  • some examples
  • what is it used for?
A

IVIG: Intravenous immune globulin
SQIG: Subcutaneous Immunoglobulin (SCIg)

Perscribed for Ab deficiencies

112
Q

SCID

  • cause
  • clues in CBC
  • presentation
A

SCID = Severe Combined Immunodeficiency

Cause:
Severe defect in T cell development
No T cells, +/- B cells or NK cells

CBC findings:
Lymphopenia is an early clue
Also severe antibody deficiency

Presentation:
Extreme susceptibility to infection since birth to high-grade or low-grade pathogens
Protracted diarrhea, failure to thrive
Death from infection before 1 year unless transplanted

113
Q

What are some enzymes that are impaired that can leads to SCID/T cell defects

A
JAK-3
IL7Ra
RAG 1/2
ADA
MHC II 
MHC 1, ZAP 70

memorize this order for the phenotypes chart
JAK has 7 RAGs

114
Q

Lymphocyte phenotypes in SCID for JAK defect

How it impacts: CD4, CD8, B, NK cells

A

only B cells are present

no T cell of NK cell development

115
Q

Lymphocyte phenotypes in SCID for IL7Ra defect

How it impacts: CD4, CD8, B, NK cells

A

both B and NK cells are present

NO T cells

116
Q

Lymphocyte phenotypes in SCID for RAG1/2 defect

How it impacts: CD4, CD8, B, NK cells

A

Only NK cells are present

no T or B cells

117
Q

Lymphocyte phenotypes in SCID for ADA defect

How it impacts: CD4, CD8, B, NK cells

A

NONE are present

118
Q

Lymphocyte phenotypes in SCID for MHC 1 defect

How it impacts: CD4, CD8, B, NK cells

A

only CD8 is absent,

all the others, CD4, B. NK are present

119
Q

Lymphocyte phenotypes in SCID for MHC II defect

How it impacts: CD4, CD8, B, NK cells

A

only CD4 is absent

all the other, NK, B, CD8 are present

120
Q

Ommen Syndrome

A

Hypomorphic Rag1/Rag2 mutation: Leaky phenotype (null mutation=SCID)
Limited amount of T cell clones produce in thymus: oligoclonal expansion/activation of T cells that are autorreactive (anti-self)=T+B-NK+
ATTENTION: No Lymphopenia!
Cause desquamating erythroderma, fever, hepatosplenomegaly, lymphadenopathy, eosinophilia, high IgE, diarrhea, FTT
Profound immunodeficiency, need HSCT
May occur with other SCID, DiGeorge

121
Q

What are some examples of Primary T cell Deficiences

A

SCID
DiGeorge Syndrome
Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome
Ataxia- Telangiectasia

122
Q

What mutations puts Boys in trouble for PID?

A

X-linked ones:

No BTK = no B cells/abs, XLA
No y common chain = no T cells (XL-SCID)

123
Q

What is Central Tolerance?

A

When an immature lymphocyte recognises/reacts to a self antigen in a primary lymphoid organ (thymus/ bone marrow), it receives a negative signal causing its death or inactivation

  • purpose is to ELIMINATE strongly autoreactive lymphocytes

this is a form of POSITIVE selection? you keep the ones that DON’T react?

124
Q

What is Peripheral Tolerance?

A

Encounter of a naïve lymphocyte with antigen in the absence of co-stimulation leads to

a. anergy: survives but is mute, doesn’t get activated
b. deletion: apoptosis or
c. induction of a T regulatory* response

Now these are with MATURE lymphocytes
Elimination of Mature lymphocytes that recognize/react to self antigens

how it works:
Strong, constant signal of self antigens that constantly surround them through naïve lymphocyte receptors induces tolerance

Sudden increase in foreign antigen-receptor signal in naïve lymphocytes activates them

125
Q

What are the 4 functions of T reg cells?

- stimulated by which cytokines

A

a. Inhibitory cytokines
TGFb, IL10, IL35 inhibit Effector T cells

b. cytolysis: granzymes and perforin pores: apoptotic effects
c. Metabolic disruption
d. Targeting dendritic cells

this is a type of PERIPHERAL tolerance

126
Q

Role of AIRE in defective central tolerance

A

Normal condition: Under the control of the AIRE protein, thymic medullary cells express tissue-specific proteins, deleting tissue-reactive T cells

in DEFECTIVE central tolerance
the ABSENCE of AIRE T cells reactive to tissue specfic antigens MATURE and leave the thymus. oop

127
Q

APECED

A

AIRE mutation

  • defective central tolerance in Thymus
  • presents in childhood

polyendocrinopathy
Candidiasis
Ectodermal dysplasia

128
Q

What are the types of defective PERIPHERAL tolerances?

A

a. Molecular mimicry: self cells resemble foreign antigens that our body is making ab for
b. Epitope spreading: during cell death, release of intracellular antigens for which we are NOT tolerant too can trigger ab production
c. Bystander Activation: activation of anergic (defective cells) incases of severe infection/high immune activation
d. cryptic antigens: invade BBB which should otherwise be segregated, and created ab to self.

129
Q

What are the THREE mechanisms of defective tolerance?

A

a. defective central tolerance
b. defective peripheral tolerance
c. defective T regulatory response

130
Q

IPEX

A

Immunodysregulation
Polyendocrinopathy (hypothyroidism)
Enteropathy
X- linked

this is a defective T regulatory* response
involves mutation in FOXP3

associated with T1 diabeted, enteropathy (98%) eczema, and hypotheyroidism

131
Q

Role of Genetics in Autoimmune conditions

A

Strong evidence for genetic involvement HOWEVER

** INTERPLAY between genetic background and environment: patients with similar backgrounds will develop disease at different moment of their lives **

132
Q

Which genotypes has the STRONGEST association with Auto-Immunity?

A

MHC*

they are better at presenting self antigens that others.

133
Q

What happens if you have a mutant NOD2

A

This is an examples of how genetic defects that impair INNATE immunity can lead to AUTOIMMUNITY

lack of NOD2 function = loss of ability to sense peptidoglucan = loss of protective inflammatory barrier = infiltration of bacteria = chronic inflammation

134
Q

Causes of Chronic/systemic autoimmunity

A

Chronic autoimmunity develops via

a. persistence of self antigens,
b. uncontrolled inflammation and
c. epitope spreading

135
Q

What are examples of organ specific autoimmune disease

A
Type 1 diabetes
good pastures syndrome 
MS
Gravies
Myasthenia gravis (type 2)
136
Q

What are some examples of systemic autoimmune diseases?

A
RA (type 3)
scleroderma 
SLE (type 3)
137
Q

Myasthenia GRavis

A

type 2: ADCC, blocking and activation pathways

ab bind to ach receptors, which inhibits neuronal signalling

Proptosis/diplopia

Oropharyngeal muscle weakness

Trouble chewing/swallowing/talking

Worse with repetitive movement

Worse end of the day

Myasthenia crisis: respiratory muscle insufficiency

138
Q

Major affected organ for Type 3 hypersensitivity?

A

KIDNEYS: glomerulonephritis

also affects skin (vasculitis) and joints (RA)

139
Q

What type of hypersensitvity is Diabetes

A

TYPE 4

T cell, cytotoxicity against insulin cells in pancreas (destruction of insulin)

140
Q

What is Asthma

A

Reversible, obstructive airway disease

  • 12-15% change in pulmonary function (FEV1= Forced Expiratory Volume in one Second) after an inhaled bronchodilator (eg. salbutamol)
  • Decrease in FEV1 by 20% of baseline following the inhalation of methacholine or histamine (up to a maximum of 16mg/ml)
  • Decrease in FEV1 by 15-20% following standardized exercise challenge
141
Q

Spectrum of Asthma

A

Mild, episodic
Mild chronic
Moderate
Severe

142
Q

What is the relationship between Allergy and Asthma

A
  • 70% of childhood asthmatics have allergies
  • 50% of adult asthmatics have allergies
  • Many asthmatics have increased “bronchial reactivity” because of pets or dust mites
  • Only a small number of asthmatics complain that they wheeze from their own pets, but that does not mean their lungs aren’t affected.
143
Q

What are symptoms of asthma

A
Daily symptoms
Nocturnal symptoms
Exercise induced symptoms
Symptoms with normal daily activities
Viral respiratory tract infection induced symptoms
Allergy-induced symptoms

symptoms:
Cough
Shortness of breath
Chest tightness

Signs: 
Coughing
Rapid breathing
Accessory muscle use
Hypoxia
Poor air entry
Wheeze
144
Q

Which cytokines are released by Th1

A

Intracellular organisms
IFN-γ, IL-12, IL-18

pretty sure this one is macrophage specific

145
Q

Which cytokines are released by Th2

A

Antibody production, parasite defense, allergy

IL-4, IL-5, IL-13

146
Q

Th17

A

Antibacterial, antifungal

IL-17, IL-22

147
Q

Treg

A

Immune Response Regulation

IL-10, TGF-B

148
Q

What are some treatments for asthma?

A

Anti-inflammatory (steroids, glucocorticoids)
Anti mediators (anti histamines)
Anti-IgE: Omalizumab

149
Q

Omalizumab

A

anti-IgE antibodies

used to treat asthma

  • affects both early and late phase asthma response
150
Q

What is the ab structure?

A

arms: antigen binding site, light chains (lambda, kappa)
legs: heavy chain, Fc receptor

151
Q

How do you make monoclonal antibodies

A
  1. a mouse injected with antigen
  2. produces B cells-> antibodies
  3. plasma cells are collected, and mixed with tumor cells
  4. hybrid cells grow, to produce ab at high rate
  5. pure tumor cells are harvested
152
Q

IL4 and IL13 signal through which two receptors

A

Type 1: B cells, T cells, monocytes, eosinophils, fibroblasts
Type 2: epithelial cells, smooth cells, fibroblasts, monocytes, activated b cells.

153
Q

Dupilumab

A

Is a Human Monoclonal Antibody That Binds Specifically to IL-4Rα and Inhibits Signaling by Both IL-4 and IL-13


these cytokines are involved in Th2 -> IgE -> mast cells, eosinophil degranulation

effective in clinical trial

154
Q

What are the targets of IgE therapy?

A

Omalizumab:

2 pathways

a. Binds to circulatin IgE, decreasing cell bound IgE
- decreases tissue infiltration

b. Decreases expression of high affinity receptors
- decreases mediator release

BOTH ultimately decrease asthma symptoms and exacerbations