[W2] WBCs- granulocytes Flashcards

1
Q

what are polymorphonuclear WBCs called?

A

granulocytes

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2
Q

what are the 3 types of granulocytes?

A
  • neutrophils
  • eosinophils
  • basophils
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3
Q

what are the 2 types of mononuclear WBCs?

A
  • lymphocytes
  • monocytes
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4
Q

what 2 WBCs are phagocytes?

A
  • neutrophils
  • monocytes
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5
Q

what do myeloid WBCs mature?

A

in the bone marrow

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6
Q

name 3 cytokines that are involved in the production of neutrophils

A

IL3
GM-CSF
G-CSF

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7
Q

what are IL3 cytokines produced by?

A

T cells

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8
Q

what are GM-CSF cytokines produced by?

A

T cells, endothelial cells,
monocytes, fibroblasts

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9
Q

what are G-CSF cytokines produced by?

A

Endothelial cells, placenta,
monocytes

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10
Q

name 3 cytokines that are involved in the production of eosinophils

A

IL3
IL5
GM-CSF

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11
Q

what are IL5 cytokines produced by?

A

T cells, basophils

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12
Q

name 3 cytokines that are involved in the production of basophils

A

IL3
IL4
GM-CSF

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13
Q

what are IL4 cytokines produced by?

A

B & T cells, eosinophils

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14
Q

what are the normal counts of neutrophils in the blood?
when are they elevated?

A
  • 1.8-7.5 x10^9/L
  • Bacterial infection, stress,
    exercise, myeloproliferative
    diseases e.g. leukaemia
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15
Q

what are the normal counts of lymphocytes in the blood?
when are they elevated?

A
  • 1.5-4.0 x10^9/L
  • Viral infection, lymphoproliferative diseases
    (e.g. lymphocytic leukaemia)
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16
Q

what are the normal counts of monocytes in the blood?
when are they elevated?

A
  • 0.2-0.8 x10^9/L
  • Infection, inflammation, tissue damage, monocytic leukaemia
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17
Q

what are the normal counts of eosinophils in the blood?
when are they elevated?

A
  • 0-0.4 x10^9/L
  • Allergy, intestinal parasites,
    hypereosinophilic syndrome,
    eosinophilic leukaemia
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18
Q

what are the normal counts of basophils in the blood?
when are they elevated?

A
  • 0.01-0.1 x10^9/L
  • Some myeloproliferative
    diseases (esp. Chronic
    granulocytic leukaemia)
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19
Q

what is the main role of neutrophils?

A

the elimination of invading bacteria and some fungi

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20
Q

what is the main role of eosinophils?

A

elimination of parasitic worms
(=helminths), regulation of local immune and inflammatory responses

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21
Q

what is the main role of basophils?

A

Immune system regulation, secretion of heparin and histamine, allergy, inflammation, parasite defence, ? tumour surveillance

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22
Q

what is granulocyte nimenclature based on?

A

Nomenclature based on
staining with Romanowsky
stains (methanol fixation then
methylene blue + eosin)

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23
Q

what stains neutrophil granules?

A

granules are neutral-staining

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24
Q

what stains eosinophil granules?

A

granules stain with eosin (orange)

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25
Q

what stains basophil granules?

A

granules stain intensely with
methylene blue

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26
Q

what are the 6 stages to neutrophil maturation?

A
  1. blasts
  2. promyelocytes
  3. myelocytes
  4. metamyelocytes
  5. “band form” neutrophils
  6. neutrophils
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27
Q

what is the granulocyte turnover per day?

A

50 - 320 x10^9

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28
Q

How long do neutrophils typically spend in peripheral blood?

A

About 7 hours (circulating & marginal pools).

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29
Q

Where do neutrophils migrate after circulating in the blood?

A

Into tissues, likely in a random manner.

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30
Q

How long do neutrophils survive in tissues?

A

Around 20 hours before losing motility and undergoing apoptosis.

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31
Q

How are neutrophils removed after apoptosis?

A

They are cleared by monocytes/macrophages.

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32
Q

Where are many neutrophils lost in the body?

A

In the gastrointestinal (GI) tract.

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33
Q

How long do eosinophils circulate in the blood?

A

8–12 hours.

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34
Q

How long do eosinophils survive in tissues?

A

8–12 days.

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35
Q

Where are eosinophils commonly found in tissues?

A

Thymus, lower GI tract, ovary, uterus, spleen, and lymph nodes.

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36
Q

How long do basophils circulate in the blood?

A

2–3 days.

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37
Q

What happens to basophils after circulation?

A

They die

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38
Q

Why do neutrophils have a lobulated nucleus?

A

To aid deformability and motility.

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39
Q

How many lobes does a mature neutrophil nucleus typically have?

A

3–5 lobes.

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40
Q

What are the three types of neutrophil granules?

A

Primary, secondary, and tertiary granules.

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41
Q

What is the function of primary granules?

A

Discharge into phagosomes; contain microbicidal proteins (e.g., myeloperoxidase, hydrolases, lysozyme) for oxidative and non-oxidative killing of microorganisms.

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42
Q

What is the function of secondary granules?

A

Discharge into phagosomes and extracellularly; contain hydrolases, alkaline phosphatase, lysozyme, and collagenase.

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43
Q

What is the function of tertiary granules?

A

Contain alkaline phosphatase, gelatinase (collagen destruction), and cathepsin (a protease).

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44
Q

What is the primary function of neutrophils?

A

Destruction of invading bacteria and some fungi.

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45
Q

What are the two main processes involved in neutrophil function?

A

Chemotaxis and phagocytosis.

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46
Q

What is chemotaxis in neutrophils?

A

Movement up a concentration gradient to locate pathogens.

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47
Q

What are the two key steps in phagocytosis?

A

Engulfing and killing of microorganisms.

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48
Q

What is required for neutrophil chemotaxis?

A

Vessel wall adhesion and movement up a concentration gradient.

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49
Q

How do neutrophils adhere to the vessel wall?

A

Tissue damage triggers neutrophil adhesion to endothelial cells using adhesive membrane receptors.

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50
Q

Do neutrophils swim or crawl?

A

Neutrophils crawl, not swim.

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51
Q

How do neutrophils detect and move toward an infection site?

A

By following a concentration gradient of chemoattractants.

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52
Q

Name some chemoattractants that guide neutrophils.

A

Complement component C5a, bacterial metabolic by-products, leukotriene B4.

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53
Q

How sensitive are neutrophils to concentration changes?

A

They can detect changes as small as 2%.

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54
Q

What proteins are involved in neutrophil movement?

A

Myosin and actin, which enable contraction and movement.

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55
Q

What type of movement do neutrophils use?

A

Amoeboid movement via pseudopodia.

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56
Q

How do nanomolar levels of chemotactic attractants affect neutrophils?

A

They enable chemotaxis.

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57
Q

What happens at higher concentrations of chemotactic attractants?

A

They cause neutrophil degranulation.

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58
Q

Is the exact mechanism of neutrophil movement fully understood?

A

No, it remains unclear.

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59
Q

What is phagocytosis?

A

The process by which a phagocyte surrounds and destroys a foreign particle.

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60
Q

What is required for successful neutrophil phagocytosis?

A

Opsonization (coating) of the particle with IgG, IgM, or complement.

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61
Q

How does a neutrophil recognize and attach to a foreign particle?

A

Via receptors for opsonins.

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62
Q

What happens after the particle is ingested?

A

It is enclosed in a phagosome, which fuses with neutrophil granules to release antimicrobial contents.

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63
Q

What is the “respiratory burst” during phagocytosis?

A

A metabolic surge involving:

  • Increased O₂ consumption
  • Increased glycolysis
  • Enhanced bactericidal processes (e.g., MPO activity)
  • Increased expression of enzymes like alkaline phosphatase
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64
Q

How long does microbial killing in the phagosome usually take?

A

Around 20 minutes.

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65
Q

What are the two modes of microbial killing in the phagosome?

A

O₂-dependent killing:
- Myeloperoxidase (MPO) converts Cl⁻ + H₂O₂ into hypochlorous acid (HOCl), which is effective against bacteria, fungi, viruses, and tumor cells.
- H₂O₂ is generated by NADPH oxidase from O₂ via oxygen free radicals (O₂⁻).

O₂-independent killing:
- Uses enzymes like lysozyme.

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66
Q

What is an additional microbial killing mechanism used by neutrophils?

A

Neutrophil extracellular traps (NETs).

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67
Q

Do NETs require phagocytosis?

A

No, they are independent of phagocytosis.

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68
Q

What are NETs composed of?

A

Webs of DNA and proteases.

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69
Q

What is the function of NETs?

A

To trap and kill bacteria extracellularly.

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70
Q

How do NETs help in infection control?

A

They prevent the spread of infection.

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71
Q

What is myeloperoxidase (MPO) deficiency?

A

A common partial or total deficiency of MPO, with only 20% of patients being immunocompromised.

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72
Q

What compensates for MPO deficiency?

A

Oxygen free radicals (O₂⁻) and lysozyme.

73
Q

What type of infection is most problematic in MPO deficiency?

A

Fungal infections.

74
Q

What is respiratory burst failure, and which enzyme is affected?

A

A metabolic failure of microbial killing due to NADPH oxidase deficiency.

75
Q

What inherited disease results from NADPH oxidase deficiency?

A

Chronic Granulomatous Disease (CGD).

76
Q

Why does CGD cause persistent infections?

A

Some organisms survive inside the phagosome, leading to chronic infections and granuloma formation.

77
Q

How does the body partially compensate for CGD?

A

Through non-oxidative killing mechanisms.

78
Q

Are defects in neutrophil adhesion and migration common?

A

No, inherited defects are rare.

79
Q

What are some acquired causes of neutrophil adhesion/migration defects?

A

Leukemia, diabetes, and renal failure, leading to varying susceptibility to sepsis.

80
Q

How does neutrophil chemotactic activity in neonates compare to adults?

A

Neonate neutrophils have only 20–27% of the chemotactic activity of adults.

81
Q

How does neutrophil function change in premature neonates?

A

It is even lower than in full-term neonates.

82
Q

What happens to neutrophil function with age?

A

Chemotaxis and phagocytosis decline significantly in the elderly.

83
Q

What are abnormal neutrophils in myelodysplasia called?

A

Hypogranular or agranular neutrophils.

84
Q

In which conditions are abnormal neutrophils commonly found?

A

Myelodysplasia (“pre-leukemia”) and leukemia, especially in the elderly.

85
Q

What is Chronic Granulocytic Leukaemia (CGL)?

A

Also known as Chronic Myelogenous Leukaemia, it is characterized by increased and unregulated growth of myeloid cells in the bone marrow.

86
Q

What is the effect of CGL on myeloid cells in the blood?

A

There is an increase in myeloid cell numbers, with many early (but mostly differentiated) forms evident in the blood.

87
Q

How are many cases of CGL now treated?

A

Many cases are “cured” with tyrosine kinase inhibitors like Imatinib.

88
Q

What genetic mutation is commonly involved in CGL?

A

The 9:22 translocation, which deregulates tyrosine kinase activity.

89
Q

What must be excluded before testing for primary neutrophil dysfunction?

A

Granulocytopenia (especially cyclic neutropenia) and defects in B cells or complement.

90
Q

What percentage of primary immune deficiencies are caused by significant neutrophil dysfunction?

A

Less than 6%.

91
Q

In which cases might neutrophil function testing be indicated?

A
  • Chronic bacterial infections
  • Increased susceptibility to bacterial infections
  • Therapy-resistant infections
  • Recurrent infections with nonpathogenic microorganisms
  • Abscesses of the liver or lung
92
Q

How is neutrophil function typically assessed in the lab?

A

Neutrophil function testing is rarely performed.

93
Q

What is the Nitroblue tetrazolium (NBT) dye reduction test used for?

A

It is used for diagnosing Chronic Granulomatous Disease (CGD), assessing the neutrophil respiratory burst (production of active oxygen species like O₂⁻).

94
Q

How does the NBT test work?

A

Active neutrophils reduce NBT to an insoluble blue compound, which is visualized under a microscope.

95
Q

What has largely replaced the NBT dye reduction test?

A

Direct measurement of respiratory burst products using flow cytometry.

96
Q

How is neutrophil motility tested?

A

By assessing the ability to penetrate a filter membrane or observing movement across a glass slide.

97
Q

How is neutrophil phagocytosis tested?

A
  • Ingestion: Observing the reduction in the number of free bacteria in a bacteria + neutrophil suspension.
  • Killing: Observing the intra-cytoplasmic fall in the number of phagocytosed bacteria.
98
Q

What method is increasingly replacing functional assays like motility and phagocytosis testing?

A

Flow cytometry.

99
Q

Where are eosinophils normally found in the body?

A

In the thymus, lower GI tract, ovary, uterus, spleen, and lymph nodes.
They are not usually found in the lungs except in airborne allergies.

100
Q

How do tissue eosinophil numbers compare to blood eosinophil numbers?

A

Tissue eosinophils are several hundred times more numerous than blood eosinophils.

101
Q

What are the main functions of eosinophils?

A
  • Key mediators of allergic inflammation
  • Eliminate parasitic worm infections through antibody-dependent cell-mediated toxicity (IgE)
102
Q

When are eosinophil numbers elevated?

A

In cases of allergy and helminth infections.

103
Q

What is antibody-dependent cell-mediated toxicity (ADCC)?

A

ADCC is when an effector cell of the immune system lyses a target cell, whose membrane-surface antigens have been bound by specific antibodies (e.g., IgE for eosinophils).

104
Q

Which antibody is involved in ADCC for eosinophils?

A

IgE (immunoglobulin E).

105
Q

What is the function of eosinophil cationic protein?

A

It creates pores in the membranes of target cells, allowing the potential entry of other cytotoxic molecules and has anti-viral activity.

106
Q

What is the function of Major Basic Protein?

A

It is toxic to parasites and epithelial cells, and causes the release of histamine and heparin from basophils and mast cells.

107
Q

What are the properties of eosinophil-derived neurotoxin?

A

It has antiviral properties.

108
Q

What is the role of eosinophil peroxidase?

A

It is active against microorganisms.

109
Q

What is the result of eosinophil degranulation?

A

It causes significant local tissue damage.

110
Q

What does IL-4 stand for, and what is its role in the immune system?

A

IL-4 stands for Interleukin-4, an important immunoregulatory cytokine. It affects inflammation, B-cell activation, and antibody production.

111
Q

Do eosinophils produce IL-4?

A

Yes, eosinophils produce Interleukin-4 (IL-4).

112
Q

How is Hypereosinophilic Syndrome defined?

A

It is defined as sustained unexplained eosinophilia greater than 1.5 x 10⁹/L for more than 6 months (normal range 0–0.4).

113
Q

What type of population may be found in Hypereosinophilic Syndrome?

A

A monoclonal population of activated T lymphocytes, which produce excess IL-5.

114
Q

What is the primary origin of the problem in Hypereosinophilic Syndrome?

A

The primary problem is lymphoid in origin, due to the excess production of IL-5 by activated T lymphocytes.

115
Q

What causes organ dysfunction in Hypereosinophilic Syndrome?

A

Organ dysfunction is caused by eosinophilic infiltration of organs such as the heart, lungs, GI tract, spleen, skin, and CNS.

116
Q

Are there cases of clonal Hypereosinophilic Syndrome?

A

Yes, some cases are clonal, also known as Eosinophilic leukaemia.

117
Q

What is the nature of eosinophil growth in most cases of Hypereosinophilic Syndrome?

A

In most cases, eosinophils are independent of growth factor control, making it a myeloproliferative syndrome.

118
Q

What treatments are used for Hypereosinophilic Syndrome?

A

Treatment aims to limit organ damage by controlling eosinophils using steroids, hydroxyurea, and chemotherapy (such as Imatinib).

119
Q

What is the prognosis for Hypereosinophilic Syndrome?

A

Most cases are eventually fatal, but 80% of patients survive to five years. Early diagnosis and treatment are crucial.

120
Q

What are the characteristics of basophils?

A

Rare, highly motile cells that die easily. Difficult to study.

121
Q

How long do basophils mature and circulate?

A

Mature in the marrow for 2-7 days, circulate for 2-3 days, then die.

122
Q

What was the original belief about basophils and mast cells?

A

They were thought to be identical, but now known to arise from different progenitor cells.

123
Q

Where do basophils and mast cells mature?

A

Basophils mature in the marrow and circulate in the blood; mast cells mature in tissues.

124
Q

What is the major growth factor for basophils and mast cells?

A

Basophils use IL-3; mast cells use Stem Cell Factor (SCF).

125
Q

What substances do both basophils and mast cells contain?

A

Both contain heparin and histamine.

126
Q

How do basophils and mast cells degranulate?

A

Basophils degranulate into internal phagosomes; mast cells discharge granules.

127
Q

What is the role of basophils in the immune response?

A

They are key organizers of the local immune response.

128
Q

Where do basophils accumulate during allergic reactions?

A

They accumulate at the site of allergic reactions, especially tick bites.

129
Q

What activates basophils to release granule contents?

A

Basophils are activated by IgE, IL-3, C5a, GM-CSF, and insect venoms.

130
Q

What do basophils release in response to activation?

A

They release granule contents, especially histamine.

131
Q

What types of hypersensitivity reactions are basophils key mediators of?

A

Basophils are key mediators of immediate hypersensitivity reactions like asthma, urticaria, and anaphylaxis.

132
Q

Can basophils suppress tumor cell growth?

A

Yes, basophils might suppress tumor cell growth.

133
Q

What is the role of basophils in immunologic and inflammatory reactions?

A

Basophils orchestrate local immunologic and inflammatory reactions, especially those involving parasitic infections.

134
Q

What are some substances secreted by basophils and their functions?

A
  • Histamine: Chemotactic agent for eosinophils, vasodilator.
  • Heparin: Anticoagulant.
  • IL-3: Basophil growth factor, regulates macrophage and granulocyte populations in inflammation.
  • IL-4: Attracts eosinophils, supports B-cell activation.
  • IL-5: Promotes basophil and eosinophil production and activation, supports B-cell growth and activation.
135
Q

What is the role of IL-13 secreted by basophils?

A

IL-13 promotes B-cell proliferation and differentiation.

136
Q

What is the function of TNF-α secreted by basophils?

A

TNF-α is a pro-inflammatory cytokine.

137
Q

What is the function of GM-CSF secreted by basophils?

A

GM-CSF is an inflammation-associated cytokine that activates neutrophils, moderates monocyte activation, and acts as a growth and differentiation factor for granulocytes and macrophages.

138
Q

In which condition is significant basophilia common?

A

Significant basophilia is common in Chronic Myeloid Leukaemia.

139
Q

Are basophilia and plasma triglyceride levels correlated?

A

No, any correlation is likely due to counting artefacts that give a falsely elevated basophil count.

140
Q

In which other myeloproliferative disorders is basophilia found?

A

Basophilia is found to a lesser extent in myelofibrosis and Primary Proliferative Polycythaemia.

141
Q

How common is basophil leukaemia?

A

Basophil leukaemia is very rare.

142
Q

Why is treating basophil leukaemia difficult?

A

Treatment is difficult due to the release of histamine and other granule contents from basophils.

143
Q

What is the Basophil Activation Test (BAT)?

A

BAT assesses the expression of activation markers (CD63 or CD203c) on the surface of live basophils or measures the degree of basophil degranulation.

144
Q

How is the Basophil Activation Test performed?

A

It is performed on whole fresh blood by flow cytometry following stimulation with an allergen.

145
Q

In which context is the Basophil Activation Test commonly used?

A

It is commonly used in the investigation of peanut allergy, using peanut allergen.

146
Q

What does the Basophil Activation Test distinguish between?

A

It distinguishes between allergic and tolerant individuals.

147
Q

How often is the Basophil Activation Test performed?

A

It is performed exceptionally rarely, with antigen challenges used instead.

148
Q

What are mononuclear phagocytes called in peripheral blood?

A

In peripheral blood, mononuclear phagocytes are called monocytes.

149
Q

What are mononuclear phagocytes called in tissues?

A

In tissues, mononuclear phagocytes are called macrophages.

150
Q

Are monocytes and macrophages the same?

A

No, they are not quite the same, despite being part of the same phagocytic system.

151
Q

What is the shape of the nucleus in monocytes?

A

Monocytes have a kidney-shaped nucleus.

152
Q

What does the cytoplasm of monocytes look like?

A

The cytoplasm is abundant, grey-blue (“ground glass”) with fine reddish granules.

153
Q

What enzymes are abundant in the cytoplasm of monocytes?

A

Monocytes contain many cytoplasmic enzymes, especially lysozyme, peroxidase, and esterases.

154
Q

What do cytoplasmic vacuoles in monocytes indicate?

A

Cytoplasmic vacuoles are evidence of phagocytosis.

155
Q

What kind of motility do monocytes exhibit?

A

Monocytes exhibit amoeboid motility and chemotaxis.

156
Q

Where do monocytes accumulate in the body?

A

Monocytes accumulate at the site of inflammation.

157
Q

Is it possible to visually differentiate some lymphocytes and monocytes?

A

No, it is impossible to visually differentiate some lymphocytes and monocytes.

158
Q

What are the stages of maturation for monocytes and lymphocytes?

A

Both monocytes and lymphocytes mature as a blast → Pro (monocyte or lymphocyte) → mature form.

159
Q

What is the precursor to monocytes in their maturation process?

A

Promonocytes are the precursor to monocytes.

160
Q

What is the precursor to lymphocytes in their maturation process?

A

Prolymphocytes are the precursor to lymphocytes.

161
Q

What is the common origin of monocytes and neutrophils?

A

Monocytes and neutrophils both originate from CFU-GM.

162
Q

How long do blood monocytes survive, and where do they migrate?

A

Most blood monocytes die after about 24 hours, but some migrate into tissues like the spleen, lung, liver, and bone marrow after 1-3 days and develop into macrophages.

163
Q

What is the ratio of monocytes to macrophages in the body?

A

The monocyte:macrophage ratio is about 1:400.

164
Q

What is the role of macrophages in tissues?

A

Macrophages are self-replicating and play a role in phagocytosis and antigen presentation in tissues.

165
Q

Who first used the term “macrophage” and why?

A

The term “macrophage” originated from Metchnikov’s work in 1882 to differentiate them from neutrophils (“microphages”) based on size.

166
Q

When were monocytes named?

A

Monocytes were named later after staining techniques evolved to demonstrate nuclear detail.

167
Q

What are the main functions of monocytes?

A

The main functions of monocytes include phagocytosis, antigen presentation to T cells, cytokine production, and differentiation into macrophages and monocyte-derived dendritic cells.

168
Q

What role do monocytes play in immunity?

A

Monocytes have a critical role in both innate and adaptive immunity.

169
Q

What adhesive glycoproteins do monocytes produce?

A

Monocytes produce various adhesive glycoproteins that facilitate their adhesion and chemotaxis to surfaces like endothelial cells.

170
Q

What cytokines do monocytes release?

A

Monocytes release pro-inflammatory cytokines such as IL-1, IL-6, IL-8, G-CSF, and TNF-α.

171
Q

What is the role of TNF-α in monocytes?

A

TNF-α is involved in cell signaling, apoptosis, and tumor cell suppression.

172
Q

How do monocytes act as antigen-presenting cells?

A

Monocytes process phagocytosed pathogens and present their antigens to helper T cells via MHC Class II on the monocyte surface.

173
Q

What types of particles can monocytes phagocytose?

A

Monocytes can phagocytose both opsonized and non-opsonized particles.

174
Q

How long do most monocytes in circulation live?

A

Most monocytes in circulation are short-lived, surviving for about 24 hours.

175
Q

How long do macrophages and dendritic cells live?

A

Macrophages and dendritic cells can live for months or years.

176
Q

What is monocytosis, and when does it occur?

A

Monocytosis is an increased number of monocytes, which occurs in chronic infections and inflammatory conditions like tuberculosis and Crohn’s disease.

177
Q

What is monocytic leukaemia?

A

Monocytic leukaemia can be either acute or chronic.

178
Q

What are lipid storage diseases, and how do they affect monocytes?

A

Lipid storage diseases, such as Gaucher’s disease and Niemann-Pick disease, involve inherited impairment of phagocytosed material degradation, leading to the accumulation of debris within macrophages.

179
Q

What are the effects of lipid storage diseases on the body?

A

Lipid storage diseases cause permanent cellular and tissue damage, particularly in the brain, peripheral nervous system, liver, spleen, and bone marrow.