VTNE Study Guide Flashcards

1
Q

What organ is the primary site of drug metabolism?

A

Liver

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2
Q

What disease is characterized by impaired carbohydrates, protein, and fat metabolism with insulin deficiency?

A

Diabetes mellitus

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3
Q

What scissors are used for most soft tissue dissection?

A

Metzenbaum scissors

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4
Q

Which retractor is made of thin metal that is easily bent and used for retracting abdominal and thoracic organs?

A

Malleable retractor

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5
Q

When doing an enclosed extraction, a flap with two releasing incisions is called?

A

Pedicle flap

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6
Q

What parasite has egg packets that contain 20 to 30 individual hexacanth embryos and has the flea as the intermediate host?

A

Dipylidium caninum or tapeworm

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7
Q

What is the definition of cylindruria?

A

Increased number of casts in the urine

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8
Q

What is the inability to breathe without the patient being in an upright position?

A

Orthopnea

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9
Q

What is the humidity range that most captive reptile species respond to?

A

50-70% with jungle species being higher and desert species being lower

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10
Q

How thick should the lead apron, gloves, and thyroid shield be to ensure good protection from secondary and scatter radiation?

A

0.5 mm

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11
Q

What is helical scan mode on a CT scanner?

A

When the xray tube turns 360 degrees around the patient while the patient bed moves through the gantry

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12
Q

When horses are administered a benzodiazepine tranquilizer, they will experience?

A
  1. Muscle fasciculations
  2. Weakness
  3. Mild ataxia
  4. Skeletal muscle relaxation
  5. Anticonvulsant activty
    (appetite stimulation is only in cats)
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13
Q

When the patient is in stage IV of anesthesia it will exhibit what symptoms?

A
  1. Pupils widely dilated
  2. Breathing stops
  3. All reflexes are absent
  4. The heart stops
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14
Q

When an animal is giving birth vaginally what is the position that the fetus is in when the fetus is breech?

A

The fetus is in the posterior presentation and the hind legs are retained so that the rump of the fetus is presented first

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15
Q

Which route of administration are you able to administer large volumes of fluids for slow absorption?

A

SQ

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16
Q

What percent of the body is made up of water?

A

60%

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17
Q

What are the indications for a blood transfusion?

A
  1. Acute hemorrhage
  2. Chronic anemia
  3. Hemolytic anemia
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18
Q

Opioids fall into what schedule of controlled drugs?

A

Schedule III

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19
Q

According to Colorado State University pain scale a pain score of 4 has what signs?

A
  1. Constantly groaning or screaming when unattended
  2. Difficult to distract from pain
  3. May react aggressively to palpation
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20
Q

What is the purpose of Omeprazole?

A

antacid

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21
Q

What barbiturate is more lipid soluble?

A

Thiopental which is a thiobarbiturate

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22
Q

In what phase of wound healing does endothelin protein initially cause vasodilation?

A

Inflammation

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23
Q

What is the purpose of a Robert Jones bandage?

A

To stabilize the joint below and above a fracture site while providing some bending and rotational stability

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24
Q

What setting needs to be changed on a dental xray machine?

A

The time. Most dental xrays have fixed kvp and mA.

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25
Q

What type of malocclusion does mandibular prognathism fall under

A

Class III Occlusion

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26
Q

What two enzyme tests are performed in the clinic to assess liver function?

A

AST and ALT

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27
Q

Which variation in rbc cell shape is seen as more darkly stained with reduce or no central pallor?

A

Spherocyte

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28
Q

After urinary catheterization in a dog or cat, the patient is monitored for adequate urine output. How much urine should a normotensive, normovolemic patient with intact renal function produce in an hour?

A

1-2 ml/kg/hr

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29
Q

What is the most important aspect of good venipuncture?

A

Proper restraint and proper distension and immobilization of the vessel

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30
Q

How would you position the unaffected limb for a mediolateral view of the femur?

A

Flex the unaffected limb, adduct and pull laterally

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31
Q

What contrast media is used exclusively for radiographic examination of the gi tract and can be administered either orally or rectally?

A

Barium sulfate

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32
Q

What structures are bypassed when using a non-rebreathing circuit as compared to a rebreathing circuit?

A

Carbon dioxide canister, pressure manometer, and unidirectional valves

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33
Q

What vital center in the body does anesthesia affect?

A

Central nervous system

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34
Q

What are common causes of distributive shock?

A

sepsis, anaphylaxis, and neurogenic states

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35
Q

What is the normal blood volume in dogs and cats?

A

Dogs 8-9% and Cats 6-7%

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36
Q

What type of heart failure is diuretic therapy, particularly Furosemide, used to treat?

A

Congestive Heart Failure

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37
Q

What is the common absorbent used in toxicity cases?

A

activated charcoal

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38
Q

Butorphanol is used as an analgesic post-operatively to treat what type of pain?

A

Visceral pain

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39
Q

What part of the pain pathway involves the sensory impulses being conducted to the spinal cord?

A

Transmission

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40
Q

When should you never induce vomiting?

A

Unconscious animals, when easily evaporated liquids like gasoline have been ingested, or in an animal who may have ingested a linear foreign object

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41
Q

What drug is commonly used in emergencies to treat status epilepticus?

A

Diazepam

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42
Q

Which drains are gravity dependent

A

passive

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43
Q

What is interdigital hyperplasia in cattle?

A

A thickening of the interdigital skin that causes a mass to protrude between the claws. AKA an interdigital fibroma or corn

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44
Q

If left undisturbed plaque can form on teeth as quickly as?

A

24 hours

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45
Q

A caudal crossbite is an example of this type of malocclusion?

A

Class 1

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46
Q

What type of crystals appear in the urine of an animal that has been poisoned with ethylene glycol?

A

Calcium oxalate

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47
Q

When performing a manual CBC, marked rouleaux formation is normal in the sample of what animal?

A

Horses

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48
Q

What is the difference between vomiting and regurgitation?

A

Vomiting is the forceful expulsion of contents from the stomach and upper intestine, while regurgitation is the passive expulsion of material from the mouth, pharynx, or esophagus

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49
Q

4 Facts about chemotherapeutic drugs

A
  1. Have potential to cause defects in developing fetuses 2. Can be given IM, IV, and oral 3. No safe level of occupational exposure has been identified 4. Some IV chemotherapy agents can cause tissue necrosis if given outside the vein
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50
Q

How should you position an animal for a mediolateral view of the femur

A

In lateral recumbency with the affected leg down

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51
Q

If a film is too light but the anatomical features aren’t visible what should you do?

A

Increase kVp by 10-15%

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52
Q

How often should artificial tears or other corneal lubricant be instilled in the eyes of an anesthetized patient undergoing a lengthy procedure?

A

every hour

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53
Q

What is the most common reason for anesthetic emergencies?

A

Human error

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54
Q

What is the very first thing a CVT should do if they suspect their patient has a chest injury?

A

Provide the patient with oxygen

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55
Q

A concerned owner calls and says she suspects her cat is constipated. He has been lethargic, vocal, and straining in the litter box. Why should this cat be brought in immediately?

A

The cat most likely has a urethral obstruction

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56
Q

What can grapes and raisins cause in dogs if ingested in high amounts/

A

Acute kidney failure

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57
Q

What are common clinical signs of diabetes mellitus and ketoacidosis?

A

PU/PD; depression or lethargy; and acetone smell to breath

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58
Q

What is the order of the steps of nociception?

A

Transduction, transmission, modulation, perception

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59
Q

What are side effects of anti-inflammatory drugs?

A

Liver and renal toxicity, increased bleeding times, and GI ulceration

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60
Q

Which class of abx is known for causing severe diarrhea which can result in death for guinea pigs, ferrets, hamsters, and rabbits if given orally?

A

Penicillins

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61
Q

Which cyclooxygenase is very important for causing the secretion of stomach-protective mucus, maintaining blood supply to the stomach, and decreasing acid production that is not inhibited by selective NSAIDs like firocoxib

A

COX-1

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62
Q

Which stage of anesthesia is your surgical patient in if he/she is struggling, vocalizing, and paddling right after receiving its premedication?

A

Stage 2

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63
Q

What instrument measures pressure within a cuff and that is commonly used with a Doppler monitor?

A

Sphygomomanometer

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64
Q

What is the correct dental formula for a rabbit?

A

2 (I 2/1 C 0/0 P 3/2 M 2-3/3)

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65
Q

Tooth resporption, neck lesions, and cervical line lesions are very common in which species?

A

Feline

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66
Q

What common feline parasite can infect an unborn fetus inside a woman and cause serious birth defects?

A

Toxoplasma gondii

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67
Q

The next test you would perform to help identify the species of a bacteria which stained as a gram positive cocci would be?

A

Catalase

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68
Q

You receive a call from a client of yours who is a dairy farmer that reports he has a cow that just went through partruition one hour ago and is now in sternal recumbency and is also having muscle tremors. Is this an emergency and what is the most likely cause?

A

Yes; Periparturient Hypocalcemia

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69
Q

What vitamin do guinea pigs have to have supplemented in their diet because they do not synthesize it themselves normally?

A

Vitamin c

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70
Q

Abdominal radiographs should be taken when the patient is at maximum?

A

Expiration

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71
Q

What is used to provide dynamic real-time imaging of anatomical structures with a continuous beam of xrays?

A

Fluoroscopy

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72
Q

Which inhalant anesthetic is considered to have the fewest adverse cardiovascular effects and is therefore considered to be the inhalant agent of choice for patients with cardiac disease?

A

Isoflurane

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73
Q

What is an ultra short acting nonbarbiturate injectable anesthetic which is given IV for induction and short term maintenance of general anesthesia?

A

Propofol

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74
Q

What type of shock is characterized by a decreased intravascular volume, usually caused by blood loss, third space loss, and/or excessive fluid loss through vomiting/diarrhea/dieresis?

A

Hypovolemic shock

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75
Q

While checking your anesthetized patient you discover they have been given 3x the amount of fluids they should have what do you do?

A

Turn off fluid and consult with veterinarian while monitoring the patients respirations constantly

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76
Q

What is the most common reproductive emergency for male dogs and cats and is characterized by an inability to retract their penis?

A

Paraphimosis

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77
Q

A male cat comes into the clinic with stranguria, pollakiuria, and hematuria while also being restless, very vocal, and constantly grooming his urogenital area. What is the most common disorder?

A

Urinary obstruction

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78
Q

Detecting by the nervous system of the potential for or the actual occurrence of tissue injury is called

A

nociception

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79
Q

What class of analgesic medication decreases inflammation by inhibiting prostaglandin synthesis and are commonly used to provide analgesia postoperatively and in patients with less severe or inflammatory pain?

A

NSAIDS

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80
Q

To reduce intracranial pressure resulting in trauma, what can be administered every 4-8 hours?

A

Mannitol

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81
Q

GDV is a life threatening emergency. Its main damaging effect is the obstruction of what?

A

portal vein

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82
Q

What do you measure to place a nasal oxygenation catheter?

A

Measure from the nose to the medial canthus of the eye

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83
Q

What is an example of a colloid solution?

A

Hetastarch

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84
Q

Using the triadan system, the proper way of describing the cat’s first lower molar is?

A

First molar is always 09

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85
Q

Normal scissor occlusion is when the maxillary fourth premolars occlude?

A

level with the mandibular first molar

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86
Q

What vitamins are water soluble?

A

B and C

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87
Q

What are cecotrophs?

A

Nighttime rabbit feces that are covered in mucus to protect them from the acid pH of the stomach and are high in water, nitrogen, electrolytes, and vitamin B. Rabbits will often ingest these.

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88
Q

Dalmations are the only species to excrete what in their urine?

A

uric acid

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89
Q

Arterial blood is most commonly used for

A

Blood gas samples

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90
Q

Overinflation of the lungs during artificial ventilation can cause what?

A

Ruptured alveoli or emphysema

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91
Q

Your anesthetized patient is dyspneic. What do you do?

A
  1. Turn down the vaporizer 2. Check the ET tube 3. Check the oxygen flow
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92
Q

What does it mean when a drug has a narrow therapeutic range?

A

the effective and toxic doses are quite close to each other

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93
Q

A cow is accidentally dosed with an equine dose of xylazine. What should be administered immediately?

A

Yohimbine

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94
Q

What is the main purpose of the xray developer?

A

Reduce the silver halide in the film emulsion to metallic silver

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95
Q

If using rare earth screens, what spectrum of light must the film be sensitive to?

A

Green

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96
Q

What suture material persists in the body the longest?

A

Polypropylene

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97
Q

What is the difference between an elective and non-elective procedure?

A

Elective are performed at the veterinarian and owners convenience. Non-elective must be done urgently and are usually on compromised animals

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98
Q

Where in the pain pathway does secondary sensitization or “windup” occur?

A

Spinal cord

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99
Q

Administering analgesics before tissue injury is known as

A

preemptive analgesia

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100
Q

In what position should the elevator be used when extracting a tooth using vertical rotation?

A

Parallel to the root

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101
Q

Healthy gingival flora is made up of what type of bacteria?

A

Gram positive aerobic bacteria

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102
Q

What can cause leukopenia in critical small animal patients?

A
  1. Patients undergoing chemotherapy
  2. Patients with increased neutrophils and macrophages as well as decreased lymphocytes and eosinophils
  3. Patients with bone marrow neoplasia, immune-mediated diseases, aplasia, and other degenerative disorders
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103
Q

What part of the patient should be warmed first in trauma cases?

A

Body core

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104
Q

What type of examination is echocardiography?

A

Non-invasive

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105
Q

Caval syndrome can cause?

A

Hemoglobinuria

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106
Q

WHat is the most profound adverse effect of opioids?

A

Respiratory depression

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107
Q

What effect do mineralocorticoids have on the body?

A

Water and electrolyte balance in the body and no anti-inflammatory effect

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108
Q

WHere in the body of the primary host is Dirofilaria immitis found?

A
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109
Q

What is the prepatent period for Taenia pisiformis?

A

56 days

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110
Q

Which type of orthopedic implant is the most resistant to corrosion?

A

Titanium

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111
Q

Inadequate surgical preparation can do what?

A

inhibit surgical technique, increase risk for infection, and prolonged anesthesia

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112
Q

What percentage of cats are diagnosed with myocardial disease?

A

80%

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113
Q

Coughing is a common size of CHG in what species?

A

Dogs

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114
Q

What must xrays be labeled with?

A

Clinic name and location; date; owners name; and patients name

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115
Q

Xray film is sensitive to what?

A

Heat, light, and pressure

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116
Q

An agent with a higher MAC is more or less potent than an agent with a low MAC?

A

High MAC is less potent

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117
Q

Even though sevoflurane is perceived to be safer than isoflurane, it causes more of what?

A

Hypotension

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118
Q

What species are more at risk for adverse effects after administration of NSAIDs?

A

Cats

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119
Q

Which channel do the -caine local anesthetics use to block nerve transmission?

A

Sodium channel

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120
Q

What is the inotrope and chronotrope of Cardiac Glycosides?

A

Positive inotrope and negative chronotrope

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121
Q

Which 3 drugs are included in triple antibiotic topical ointment?

A

neomycin, polymyxin b, and bacitracin a

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122
Q

Describe catgut suture

A

Natural, absorbable, and multifilament

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123
Q

What is the recommended treatment for a feline with a closed pyometra?

A

OHE

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124
Q

Describe a normal occlusion in a canine

A
  1. Described as a scissor bite
  2. Mandibular incisors rest on the palatal side of the maxillary incisors
  3. First mandibular premolar fits midway between the maxillary canine and 1st premolar
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125
Q

What is the most common treatment for feline tooth resorption?

A

tooth extraction

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126
Q

Regenerative anemia is differentiated from non-regenerative anemia by the abundance of which cell type on the blood smear?

A

Reticulocytes

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127
Q

Which parasite requires a fecal sedimentation to optimize recovery and examination of their ova?

A

Trematodes

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128
Q

What is the most common use for distal limb bandages on a horse?

A

inflammation

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129
Q

What is the usual method for diagnosing displaced abomasum in cattle?

A

percussion

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130
Q

While ultrasounding a fluid filled bladder, the tissue on the far side of the bladder is hyperechoic. WHat is this an example of?

A

acoustic enhancement

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131
Q

Which settings are recommended for thoracic radiographics?

A

High kVp, Low mAs

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132
Q

What is the benefit of balance anesthesia?

A
  1. Maximizes the benefits of each drug
  2. Minimizes the adverse effects of each drug
  3. Minimizes the volume of drugs used
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133
Q

A common anesthetic problem encountered by brachycephalic dogs?

A

High tendency toward airway obstruction

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134
Q

Describe hypovolemic shock?

A

a decrease in intravascular volume resulting in decreased venous return and ventricular filling

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135
Q

Describe the trauma triad of death

A

acidosis, hypothermia, and coagulopathy

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136
Q

Neuroleptanalgesia is a state of potent sedation achieved by combining which two drug categories?

A

opioids and tranquilizers

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137
Q

When are analgesics contraindicated for pain?

A

always

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138
Q

What arrythmia is described as a rapid disorganized contractions of the ventricles resulting in the inability of the heart to pump blood?

A

ventricle fibrillation

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139
Q

What is a radiographic contrast study evaluating the urinary bladder?

A

cystography

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140
Q

What drug is a centrally acting antitussive that is available by injection and oral forms?

A

butorphanol

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141
Q

Although commonly used for pruritis this drug category can also be used as an antiemetic because they work by blocking input from the vestibular system to the chemoreceptor trigger zone?

A

antihistamines

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142
Q

A patient begins to regurgitate while waking up from a surgery. WHat do you do?

A

Tell the vet, ensure the cuff of the ET tube is properly inflated, and tip the head down

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143
Q

If buccal mm cannot be evaluated, what other areas of the body can be used to examine CRT?

A

genitals and conjunctiva of the eye

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144
Q

AN animal is HBC. WHile another cvt is gathering history what is the first thing you assess?

A

Determine if an airway is present

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145
Q

What protozoan is the reason pregnant women need to use caution while cleaning the litter box?

A

toxoplasmosis

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146
Q

Are fleas species specific?

A

Yes but can carry other species

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147
Q

A pt with CHF is presented for dehydration. What fluids do you get?

A

NaCl

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148
Q

During induction of a 15 kg canine using a mask, what should the oxygen flow rate be set at?

A

3-5 L/min

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149
Q

What stage/plane is your patient in if the HR and RR are elevated, the pupils are dilated, and the patient seems to be fighting the anesthesia?

A

Stage 2

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150
Q

A non-rebreathing system uses (high or low) oxygen flow rate? This (increases or decreases) cost because of the amount of oxygen and anesthetic used?

A

High and increases

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151
Q

Although IM injections are most commonly used, Ketamine can also be given in what route to fractious cats?

A

orally

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152
Q

Providing analgesia before tissue injury is called?

A

preemptive analgesia

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153
Q

Pain that is unidentifiable or of an unknown cause is

A

idiopathic

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154
Q

What is the gestation period of a bovine?

A

283 days

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155
Q

When are kittens typically weaned?

A

7-9 weeks

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156
Q

When measuring central venous pressure, the tip of the central venous catheter must rest where?

A

vena cava

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157
Q

How are rapid acting anesthetics better controlled?

A

continuous administration

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158
Q

What is it called when you surgically make a cut into the chest wall?

A

Thoracotomy

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159
Q

Which drug commonly causes post-operative hyperthermia?

A

Ketamine

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160
Q

What instrument is used for supragingival scaling only?

A

Scaler

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161
Q

Brachygnathism results in what?

A

Severe overbite

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162
Q

A rise in BUN and CREAT indicates?

A

Renal disease

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163
Q

What are irrelevant lab findings that are usually a result of the procedure itself?

A

artifact

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164
Q

What is muscle atrophy

A

decreased muscle mass

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165
Q

What is an isotonic solution?

A

a fluid with the same osmotic pressure as blood

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166
Q

What is an artifact?

A

an insignificant mark on a radiograph

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167
Q

WHat is the purpose of a dosimeter badge?

A

To monitor exposure to radiation

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168
Q

What is the most common route of administration for insulin in diabetic patients?

A

SQ

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169
Q

What is the purpose of atipamezole?

A

anesthetic reversal

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170
Q

How is parvovirus spread?

A

Through infected feces

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171
Q

If a patient is experiencing acute sinus bradycardia what should be considered first?

A

Drug intoxication

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172
Q

Opisthotonus is most commonly seen in what kind of trauma?

A

Bunt trauma to head

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173
Q

What is the cause of cardogenic pulmonary edema?

A

Heart dysfunction

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174
Q

What is hyperalgesia?

A

Increased sensitivity to pain

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175
Q

What is the first phase of nociception?

A

Transduction

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176
Q

What is a narrow spectrum penicillin?

A

Penicillin G

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177
Q

What is the function of an antiemetic?

A

To stop vomiting

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178
Q

In what order do you drape a patient?

A

Quarter drapes, towel clamps, surgical drape

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179
Q

What type of suture is not absorbable?

A

silk

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180
Q

How many layers are there to the dental film packet?

A

4

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181
Q

What is the duration of a dental block if lidocaine is used?

A

1.5- 2 hours

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182
Q

What anticoagulant is in a blue top tube?

A

Citrate

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183
Q

What is an oxidase test?

A

A test to identify bacteria containing the respiratory enzyme cytochrome oxidase

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184
Q

The ribs should be what in an appropriate weight animal?

A

Felt but not seen

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185
Q

What are examples of a fearful animal?

A

Head low, painting, lips pulled back, urination, defecation, release of anal glands

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186
Q

What is focal film distance?

A

The distance between the target in the xray tube and the surface of the xray detector

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187
Q

What does radiographic density refer to?

A

The degree of blackness in the film

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188
Q

Is nystagmus relevant as a monitoring tool?

A

no

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189
Q

The term atelectasis refers to what?

A

Collapsed alveoli

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190
Q

A slow capillary refill time is suggestive of what?

A

Poor perfusion

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191
Q

Which drug is used to increase contractility of the heart?

A

Dopamine

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192
Q

What type of insulin would you use as an emergency dose?

A

Regular

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193
Q

Lateral strabismus may be observed after what ocular emergency?

A

Proptosis

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194
Q

Pain control in the surgical patient should be available during which stages of the hospitalization of a patient

A

All stages

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195
Q

What class of drug is morphine?

A

opioid

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196
Q

What are some examples of NSAIDs?

A

Meloxicam, caprofen, deracoxib

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197
Q

Which drug can be used to induce vomiting?

A

Histamine

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198
Q

What are examples of elective surgery?

A

spay, castration, declaw

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199
Q

What is the medical term for abdominal incision?

A

celiotomy

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200
Q

Which animal’s teeth are considered to be hyspodont?

A

Horses

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201
Q

What are examples of malocclusion?

A

brachygnathism, prognathism, mesioclusion

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202
Q

Which tapeworm lays egg packets that look like grains of rice in fecal material?

A

Dipylidium caninum

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203
Q

What is a soft tick?

A

Otobius megnini or spinose ear tick

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204
Q

What are the five freedoms of animal welfare?

A

FREEDOM FROM HUNGER AND THIRST.
FREEDOM FROM DISCOMFORT.
FREEDOM FROM PAIN, INJURY OR DISEASE.
FREEDOM TO EXPRESS NORMAL BEHAVIOR.
FREEDOM FROM FEAR AND DISTRESS.

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205
Q

What are common signs of small bowel diarrhea?

A

melena, weight loss, increased volume of feces

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206
Q

What does DICOM stand for?

A

Digital imaging and communications in medicine

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207
Q

What does mAs stand for?

A

Milliamperage per second

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208
Q

What is the main reason for Guaifenesin in an induction protocol in horses?

A

muscle relaxation

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209
Q

What protocol would result in the fastest induction time and the best control over anesthetic depth?

A

IV induction with an ultra-short acting agent and maintenance with an inhalant

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210
Q

While monitoring a patient on an anesthetic machine, you realize that the oxygen tank has become empty. The best thing would be to:

A

Disconnect the patient from the circuit, put on a new oxygen tank, and then reconnect the patient to the circuit

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211
Q

Brain damage may occur when there is inadequate oxygenation of the tissues for the longer than?

A

4 minutes

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212
Q

A dog that has liver dysfunction may be hypoproteinemic and therefore requires ____________ for induction compared with that needed for a normal dog?

A

less barbiturate

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213
Q

Tachyarrythmias in the cat are best treated with

A

propanolol

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214
Q

What NSAID is known to increase bleeding times?

A

Ketoprofen

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215
Q

What is an anesthetic plan that includes multimodal analgesic therapy?

A

dexmedetomidine, morphine, ketamine

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216
Q

The __________ starts at the SA node and ends at the AV node

A

P wave

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217
Q

The _________ represents atrial depolarization

A

P wave

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218
Q

In monitoring anesthesia, Doppler blood pressure monitors are relatively inexpensive and provide what readings?

A

Systolic blood pressure

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219
Q

Pulse oximetry measures

A

hemoglobin saturation and heart rate

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220
Q

What is a small protein produced by the liver and acts as a sponge to hold water in the blood vessels?

A

Albumin

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221
Q

A low ________ can be seen with liver disease and an increase _________ is seen with kidney disease.

A

BUN/BUN

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222
Q

All drugs absorbed by the intestines pass through the ________ before entering the systemic circulation

A

liver

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223
Q

An injectable drug in lipophilic form that is slowly absorbed giving sustained effective drug concentrations is called

A

repository

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224
Q

A rule of thumb for treat or snack allowance is what percent of the daily energy intake?

A

10%

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225
Q

What is the primary energy source in livestock rations?

A

Carbohydrates

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226
Q

What is an agent of preventing infection by inhibiting the growth of infectious agents when applied to living tissues?

A

antiseptic

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227
Q

Celiotomy is a surgical incision into the

A

abdominal cavity

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228
Q

What scalers are used for supragingival removal of calculus? THey should not be inserted below the gumline.

A

Hand

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229
Q

To perform the _________ block, retract the lip dorsally and palpate just dorsal to the distal root of the maxillary third premolar

A

rostral maxillary

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230
Q

What is dystocia?

A

when a bitch experiences prolonged gestation and can be characterized as active straining for more than 60 minutes without delivery of the fetus

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231
Q

What is paraphomosis?

A

the inability to retract the penis within the prepuce

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232
Q

What type of history do you get if dystocia is suspected?

A

normal history and obstetric

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233
Q

What breeds of dogs are dystocias often seen in?

A

Large heads and wide shoulders

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234
Q

What does it mean when a drug reduces the seizure threshold?

A

The drug will increase the frequency of the seizure that an animal will have

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235
Q

What do NSAIDS stand for?

A

Non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs

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236
Q

What does the vaporizer on an anesthetic machine do?

A

Convert a liquid anesthetic such as isoflurane or sevoflurane to a gaseous state and to add controlled amounts of this vaporized anesthetic to the carrier gases

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237
Q

What are the three drugs in a triple dip?

A

ketamine, xylazine, guaifenesin

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238
Q

What are the four regional dental blocks for dental procedures?

A

Rostral maxillary
caudal maxillary
rostral mandibular
caudal mandibular

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239
Q

What view is the parallel technique used for in dental radiology?

A

Caudal mandibular

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240
Q

What do increased numbers in neutrophils indicate?

A

INfection or inflammation

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241
Q

A coon hound that hunts rabbits and ducks has strange white pieces in his feces and is losing weight. What is the most likely parasite?

A

Taenia pisiformis

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242
Q

A dachshund leaps off the couch and now is acting paralyzed but still has deep pain response in her hind end. What is the most likely cause?

A

Intervertebral disc disease

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243
Q

What is the most common stifle injury in a dog?

A

Cruciate ligament rupture

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244
Q

What are the borders for a lateral thoracic view of a dog?

A

The thoracic inlet to the first lumbar vertebrae

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245
Q

What are the borders of the ventrodorsal abdominal view in a cat?

A

T9 vertebrae cranially to the greater trochanter caudally to include the coxofemoral joints

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246
Q

What is the normal respiratory rate of a dog and cat under anesthesia?

A

8-20 bpm

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247
Q

What is the ideal reflex to test for anesthetic depth if the face is unavailable to use?

A

pedal reflex

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248
Q

What are the 3 forms of heart failure?

A
  1. Forward or low output fialure
  2. Congestive failure
  3. Combo of lower output and congestive
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249
Q

What are the four different forms of shock?

A
  1. hypovolemic
  2. cardiogenic
  3. obstructive
  4. distributive
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250
Q

What is the definition of thrombopathia and what patients is it seen in?

A

A function defect noted in patients with a history of bleeding

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251
Q

What does the cardiovascular emergency FATE stand for?

A

Feline Aortic Thromboembolism

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252
Q

What is nociception?

A

The perception of pain

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253
Q

What are the phases of nociception?

A

Transmission, transduction, modulation

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254
Q

What class of drug is xylazine?

A

Alpha 2

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255
Q

4.5% solution is how many mgs/ml?

A

45

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256
Q

What is the dental formula of an adult dog?

A

2 (3/3I, 1/1C, 4/4PM, 2/3M)

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257
Q

What is the triden number for the right mandibular canine tooth on an adult cat?

A

404

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258
Q

What piece of equipment is appropriate to examine eyes with?

A

Opthalmascope

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259
Q

The abbreviation ID indicates which route of administration?

A

Intra-dermal

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260
Q

What radiographic quality does KvP control?

A

Contrast

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261
Q

If the bones on your film appear as grey, what corrective steps should be taken?

A

Increase KVP

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262
Q

What is included in the triad of anesthesia?

A

Analgeisa, unconsciousness, muscle relaxation

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263
Q

What monitoring device measures end title CO2

A

Capnometer

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264
Q

What are steps of a triage process?

A

Recognize
Assess
Act
Reasess

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265
Q

What is the common treatment for an elevated temperature?

A

Administer fluids

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266
Q

What is the main goal of shock therapy?

A

Improve oxygen delivery

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267
Q

When triaging patients which is the most immediate surgery?

A

Seizures

268
Q

What drug is the most potent analgesic?

A

Fentanyl

269
Q

Which drug class is not reversible?

A

NSAID

270
Q

What does CRTZ stand for?

A

Chemoreceptor Trigger Zone

271
Q

Which drug would best treat lyme disease?

A

Tetracycline

272
Q

What are the types of penetrating towel clamps?

A

Roeder, Jones, and Backhaus

273
Q

Items that are electric, fiberoptic, plastic, rubber, or other similar materials cannot be _____________ sterilized.

A

Steam

274
Q

The dental formula in a lagomorph is

A

2 x (I2/1, C0/0, P 3/2, M2-3/3)

275
Q

Mandibular prognathism is a ________ occlusion

A

Class III

276
Q

A left shift is?

A

Increased number of immature neutrophils in the blood

277
Q

Lead poisoning can cause

A

basophilic stippling

278
Q

If using milk replacers for foals, make sure they are prepared correctly because of high_________ content which can be difficult for the foal to digest

A

salt

279
Q

Double contrast procedures are utilized to view which body part?

A

Organs

280
Q

When taking a right lateral abdominal view, the cranial and caudal borders are?

A

T7 and the greater trochanter

281
Q

Pulse oximeter measures?

A

Saturation of hemoglobin

282
Q

Nystagmus is commonly seen in which animal during anesthesia?

A

Horse

283
Q

Pulmonary contusions are caused by

A

blunt force trauma

284
Q

Uveitis can cause

A

Blepharospasm, hypopyon and miosis

285
Q

The toxin found in chocolate that effects dogs and cats is

A

theobromine

286
Q

Onions are toxic in this form?

A

Raw, cooked, or dehydrated

287
Q

Morphie is classes as an?

A

Opioid

288
Q

Pain originating from the organs is called:

A

visceral

289
Q

What is the only approved aulticide available in treatment of heartworm disease?

A

melarsomine dihydrochloride

290
Q

Aminoglycosides significant adverse effects to be aware of include:

A

Ototoxicosis and nephrotoxicosis

291
Q

The suture needle point used for suturing an organ like liver and kidney

A

Blunt

292
Q

Which tissue heals more slowly and requires the use of nonabsorbable suture?

A

Tendon

293
Q

The bisecting angle technique is used in which of the areas of the mouth?

A

rostral maxilla, rostral mandible, caudal maxilla

(parallel is used for posterior mandible)

294
Q

The dental formula for the adult cat is

A

2 (3/3I, 1/1C 3/2P, 1/1M)

295
Q

Normal horses have which urinary crystal in their urine?

A

Calcium carbonate

296
Q

Exposure of urine to UV light, may cause deterioration of

A

Bilirubin

297
Q

Common signs of catheter related phlebitis include

A

pitting edema

298
Q

SQ fluids are contraindicated in which of the following?

A

severe dehydration or shock

299
Q

The machine setting that has the greatest influence on radiographic contrast is

A

Kilovoltage

300
Q

Barium sulfate is contraindicated

A

if bowel perforation is suspected

301
Q

What is the most common acid-base abnormality in anesthetized patients?

A

Respiratory alkalosis

302
Q

An animal under stage III, plane 2 of anesthesia would exhibit which of the following signs

A

regular respiration and relaxed skeletal muscle tone

303
Q

Closed chest compressions are often effective in

A

animals with pneumothorax

304
Q

Hyperkalemia is often a feature of which emergency disease?

A

urethral obstruction

305
Q

What is most common complication with rodenticide ingestion?

A

Hemorrhage

306
Q

The drug most commonly used to treat asystole during CPCR

A

Epinephrine

307
Q

The most commonly used NSAID in large animals is

A

Phenylbutazone and flunixin meglumine

308
Q

The stinging sensation caused by injection of local anesthetics, can be reduced by adding a small amount of _________ to the local agent.

A

Sodium bicarbonate

309
Q

What class of antibiotics can cause yellow discoloration of teeth due to calcium binding?

A

Tetracyclines

310
Q

Who controls the veterinary vaccines?

A

Animal and Plant Health Inspection Service

311
Q

This local anesthetic has a 4-8 minute onset of action and 6-10 hour duration of action

A

bupivacaine

312
Q

Tooth resorptions are first discovered on what part of the tooth?

A

Neck

313
Q

What is preemptive analgesia?

A

Administering analgesics before surgery decreases analgesic requirements and minimizes CNS sensitization

314
Q

What two drugs can be used for an epidural for surgical analgesia and immobilization?

A

lidocaine and bupivacaine

315
Q

How often should you apply eye lube into the eyes of an anesthetized patient?

A

every hour

316
Q

How often should you turn a recovering patient to prevent pooling of blood in the lung and tissue?

A

Every 10-15 minutes

317
Q

What equine vaccine is given before castration?

A

tetanus

318
Q

What is the method of forcing an animal to the ground usually with ropes?

A

Casting

319
Q

In what layer of skin and other area of the body do Cheyletiella species reside in?

A

keratin layer of the skin and hair coat

320
Q

What high count may indicate parasitism?

A

Eosinophil

321
Q

When taking a lateral thorax view, when should the radiograph be taken?

A

Maximum inspiration

322
Q

Is there a difference between punishment and negative reinforcement?

A

Yes

323
Q

What is the gestation period for a dog?

A

58-70 days

324
Q

The most commonly used bleeding time test in vet med is

A

buccal mucosal bleeding time

325
Q

Hypoxemia is defined as a partial pressure of oxygen in the arterial blood of less than?

A

80 mmHg

326
Q

What species are insulinomas common in?

A

Ferrets over 3-4 years old

327
Q

This common otc is toxic to cats because they cannot biotransform it

A

Acetaminophen

328
Q

During general anesthesia, is the patient conscious or in pain?

A

no

329
Q

Dissociatives are injectable anesthetic agents used for brief or minor procedures. What do dissociative agents cause?

A

intact reflexes due to muscle rigidity

330
Q

Hedstrom files or H files are hand files commonly used for dentin removal. How are H files used?

A

In a fast push-pull motion

331
Q

In veterinary dentistry, vet techs are generally permitted to perform what?

A

subgingival tooth scaling

332
Q

If ceftiofur sodium is administered to sheep or goats, what disease is most likely treating?

A

acute interdigital necrobacillosis

333
Q

How many milliliters of 50% dextrose solution will you need to add to 1.0 LRS in order to make a 5% Dex solution?

A

100 ml

334
Q

What term best describes a scraping technique?

A

Curettage

335
Q

What feature makes a carmalt forceps the ligating instrument of choice in OHEs?

A

Longitudal serrations

336
Q

Blood cortisol levels that are either too high or too low indicate malfunction of which organ?

A

adrenal glands

337
Q

An activated clotting time is used to evaluate coagulation cascade pathways, and it uses a tube that contains what?

A

Diatamaceous earth

338
Q

What is the medical term for chewing?

A

mastication

339
Q

What is the term used to describe an antiseptic agents that works by inhibiting the growth cycle of bacteria?

A

Bacteriostatic agents

340
Q

/*An intravenous pyelogram is used to diagnose abnormalities of kidneys and ureters. True or false?

A

true

341
Q

What appears gray on a radiograph?

A

Fluid

342
Q

What is dyspnea?

A

Difficult breathing

343
Q

A doppler is a device used to indirectly measure what key indicator?

A

BLood pressure

344
Q

What is opisthtonus?

A

Patients body stiffens and bends backwards

345
Q

What pain med is often administered transdermally?

A

Fentanyl

346
Q

What is ileus?

A

Disruption of normal bowel movement

347
Q

Wind up is the process of?

A

increased sensitivity of the spinal cord

348
Q

Sucralfate forms a sticky paste in the stomach that?

A

binds with proteins found in ulcers

349
Q

Systolic blood pressure is produced by

A

The contraction of the left ventricle

350
Q

Anesthetic agents found in milk appear to have what affect on newborns?

A

little effect

351
Q

Peg teeth are abnormally-formed supernumerary teeth that generally occur where?

A

Canine and incisor regions

352
Q

How many hours does it take for plaque to form?

A

6-8

353
Q

The presence of waxy casts in urine indicate?

A

Chronic and severe degeneration of renal tubes

354
Q

Nematodes have no

A

Respiratory system

355
Q

For cystocentesis in dogs where is the lcorrect place to place the needle

A

Caudal to the umbilicus and to the side of the sheath

356
Q

At what point in gestation might a bitch be palpated for pregnancy

A

21-30 days

357
Q

The receptor components in a film based imaging system are

A

cassette, intensifying screen, and film

358
Q

WHat three views are incorporated in the Penn HIP evaluation?

A

ventro-dorsal hip extended
distraction view
compression view

359
Q

Neuorleptanalgesia is achieved by giving what two drugs at the same time

A

opiod and a tranquilizer

360
Q

Aside from sedation, acepromazaine can be used as an

A

antiemetic and anitarrhthmyci

361
Q

When do signs of aspiration pneumonia typically occur after the patient has inspired

A

24-36 hours

362
Q

What pressure should suction equipment be able to reach?

A

760 mm Hg

363
Q

When using percussion on a body surface, a very low pitched resonant sound indicates

A

air filled structure under body wall

364
Q

normal bleeding time in cats and dogs

A

4 indogs and 3 in cats

365
Q

Blocking both the corneal branch of the zygomatic temporal nerve and the corneal branch of the infratrochlear nerv is important in what animal?

A

caprine

366
Q

Tramadol is given orally, acts on the mu receptor, and is what type of drug?

A

nonopiate

367
Q

opioid analgesic often used in transdermal patches to control postsurgical pain is?

A

fentanyl

368
Q

Butorphanol is a drug that functions on more than one bodysystem. it is:

A

antitussive and narcotic analgesic

369
Q

Eclampsia produces elevated body temperatures resulting from

A

heat produced from muscle movement

370
Q

Dystocia in the dog or cat may be defined as active straining without delivery of a fetus for

A

more than 60 minutes

371
Q

Triage in correct order? unconsciousness, dyspnea, abscess

A

true

372
Q

Vomiting should not be induced in patients that have ingested?

A

Kerosene

373
Q

Which drug should be avoided in the stallion because it may cause permanent prolapse of the penis

A

acepromazine

374
Q

When should barium sulfate not be used

A

urinary bladder examination

375
Q

Which animal normally has cloudy urine and why

A

Horses and calcium carbonate crystals

376
Q

What category of antibacterials can cause ototoxicity and nephrotoxicity

A

tetracyclines/doxycycline

377
Q

What is the dosage for a 72# dog if you are giving the 2.6 ml of ketamine if the concentration is 100 mg/ml

A

7.9 mg/kg

378
Q

What is the reason that a drug is considered a controlled sustance?

A

side effects are too severe

379
Q

What is the prferred rinse for povidone-iodine in prep?

A

isopropyl alcohol

380
Q

Which synthetic suture dissolves the fastest?

A

vicryl

381
Q

What is the 13/14 curette used for?

A

both subgingival and supra gingival sclaing of the molars

382
Q

What kind of artifact is presnt if the teeth appear to be too short?

A

foreshortening

383
Q

What is the most common place to obtain bone marrow aspirate from?

A

ilium, humerus, and femur

384
Q

Which color tube is used for CBC

A

purple top

385
Q

In maintaining a long term IV catheter what are some signs to watch for?

A

Redness or swelling
ability to flush every 4-6 hours
swelling of the paw below the catheter

386
Q

In an abdominal pressure bandage what is the order tha thte bandage pressure is released?

A

caudal middle rostral

387
Q

What is the most common radiograph view that you will perform in emergency practice?

A

abdominal

388
Q

What are criteria of a VD hip extended view for OFA radiographs

A

Femurs are parallel toe ach other
Entire pelvis, femurs, and stifles are included
patellae are positioned over the centers of the femoral condyles

389
Q

What happens if you place the universal f tubeing on the andesthesia machine backwards?

A

oxygen takes the path of least resistance and avoids going into the lungs

390
Q

WHich of the following are components of balanced anesthesia?

A

specific drugs for analgesia
sedation
muscle relaxation
amnesia

391
Q

What is the most common emergency in male cats?

A

urinary obstruction

392
Q

Is gastric dilation and volvulus considered a true emergency?

A

true

393
Q

Is it more common for an animal to go into cardiac or respiratory arrest?

A

respiratory

394
Q

What is the most common treatment in cases where there is suspected corosive toxin ingestion in the last few hours?

A

activated charcoal

395
Q

What is the term used to describe the movement of drug molecules across a cellular memberane by using a carrier molecule and not requireing the cell to used any energy

A

facilitated diffusion

396
Q

What group of antimicrobials work by inactivating key enzymres involved in the bacterias synthesis of folic acid and what bacteria need to function

A

sulfonamides

397
Q

Permanent brain damage may occur when there is inadequate oxygen of the tissue for longer than?

A

4 minutes

398
Q

During anesthesia, a pulse oximeter reading of _____indicates the hemoglobin is adquately saturated with oxygen

A

98%

399
Q

By aiming the radiograph machine at the sensor the film________ of the image may occur?

A

foreshortening

400
Q

A mandibular prognathism is considered to be in which occlusion class

A

CLass III

401
Q

What type of anticoagulant is primarily used for tests that require plasma samples?

A

Heparin

402
Q

Fluorescence with the WOods lamp is only evident in approximately _______ of the cases that involve Microsporum canis

A

50%

403
Q

What is the mosts common intramuscular injection site in the bovine that avoids valuable cuts of meat?

A

Lateral cervical muscle

404
Q

During intraoperative surgery, an Esmarch bandage and a tourniquet are used for what?

A

A bloodless field for the surgeon to operate in

405
Q

When taking a radiogrpahic image, if the object is closer to the xray tube than it is to the image receptor, the object will be?

A

Magnified

406
Q

With the heel effect, the xray beam intensity is greater toward the

A

cathode

407
Q

At what pressure should an oxygen cylinder be when it is full?

A

2200 psi

408
Q

In what stage of anesthesia does excitement occur?

A

Stage 2

409
Q

When looking at an ECG what type of arrhythmia is characterized by wide and bizarre QRS complex?

A

Ventricular premature complex

410
Q

What nutrient is helpful in correcting clotting times for an animal that has ingested rodenticide?

A

Vitamin K

411
Q

Orthopnea may be a symptom of which of the following?

A

A patient in need of oxygen

412
Q

Opisthotonus, a severe spasm causing the patients body to bend backward and stiffen, is most commonly seen in which type of trauma?

A

BLunt trauma to the head

413
Q

NSAID medication are effective in the management of moderate to high levels of pain/ True or false?

A

False

414
Q

What is allodynia?

A

A pain response to a stimulus that is not normally painful

415
Q

What is the sample spun in a red top tube?

A

serum

416
Q

Where are casts formed?

A

Tubules of the kidney

417
Q

How do you raise the drug concentration from minimum effective to to therapeutic range?

A

Loading dose

418
Q

An opioid that directly stimulates dopamine receptors int he CRTZ to produce emesis?

A

Apomorphine

419
Q

WHat is the approximate time sutures are removed?

A

10-14 days

420
Q

The most common fracture found on the fourth premolars is a

A

Slab fracture

421
Q

Describe a caudal crossbite

A

One or more of the mandibular cheek teeth are buccal to the opposing maxillary cheek teeth when the mouth is closed

422
Q

During nociception the transmission phase includes

A

The generation and transmission of a nerve impulse along the peripheral nerves to the spinal cord

423
Q

Performing an OHE around 6 months does what?

A

decreases anesthetic risk in younger patients and prevents mammary neoplasia

424
Q

The best way to treat pain is to prevent it. This is known as:

A

preemptive analgesia

425
Q

IV catheter care should be performed every 48 hours or on an as needed, and should include

A

inspection for phlebitis and inspection for infection and thrombosis

426
Q

THe ________ can be used to temporarily immobilize limbs distal to the elbow or stifle joints

A

Robert Jones bandage

427
Q

Anesthetic agents and adjuncts differ according to the degree to which they stimulate target tissue receptors. Agonist-antagonists do what?

A

Bind to more than one receptor type and simultaneously stimlate at least one and block at least one

428
Q

Induction of a canine or feline patient with propofol, methohexital, thiopental sodium, or etomidate is an example of

A

anesthetic induction with an iv inection of an ultra-short-acting agent to effect

429
Q

In measuring the animal for Ventraldorsal thorax, the animal is in dorsal recumbency and the caliper is placed over the

A

caudal border of the scapula

430
Q

A very deep chested Lab is coming in for VD and DV abdominal radiographs. To take advantage of the heel effect and help reduce density differences

A

THe thickest part of the animal should face the cathode

431
Q

The earliest clinical sign of dehydration includes

A

Tacky or dry mm

432
Q

Early stages of shock result from a progressive imbalance between the tissue oxygen supply and demand. Recognition of shock includes

A

Depression, tachycardia, increase or decrease of pulse quality, altered mental status, hypotension, pale mm

433
Q

How many chest compressions per minute in CPR?

A

120-130 in cats and small dogs and 100 in large dogs

434
Q

A secondary hemostatic coagulation screening test that may assess the extrinsic and common pathways in hematologic emergencies is

A

Prothrombin time

435
Q

Furosemide is what type of diuretic?

A

Loop diuretic

436
Q

What is a possible adverse effect of Aminoglycoside abx?

A

nephrotoxicity

437
Q

What are advantages of multi-filament suture?

A

good knot security, stronger than monofilament, has little memory and is easy to work with

438
Q

What instrument would be most commonly used to occlude small vessels during surgery?

A

Halsted mosquito hemostatic forceps

439
Q

The parallel technique can be used for which of the following dental radiograph views?

A

caudal mandibular teeth

440
Q

What is the purpose of polishing during a dental prophylaxis

A

Smooth the tooth surface to help prevent bacterial growth

441
Q

What is the normal urine specific gravity range in cat?

A

1.001-1.080

442
Q

What parasites are nematode?

A

Parsacaris equorum
Toxocara canis
Ancylostoma caninum

443
Q

What are examples of material used for the secondary layer of a bandage

A

kling, cast padding, bandaging cotton

444
Q

What type of restraint device is the ideal piece of equipment for equine procedures

A

Stocks

445
Q

Which contrast agent is radiopaque and absorbs a large amount of radiation?

A

Barium sulfate

446
Q

What information is required on a radiograph?

A

Name of patient
Date of exam
Name of practice

447
Q

What is not included in a non-rebreathing system?

A

pressure manometer

448
Q

What is included in the primary survey of a trauma patient?

A

Check for an airway
Assess circulation
Evaluate breathing

449
Q

At what amount of blood loss do signs of shock generally develop?

A

60-70%

450
Q

What fluid is a colloid that is commonly used in emergencies?

A

Whole blood

451
Q

What are common clinical signs seen with esophageal foreign body emergencies?

A

Regurgitation
Excessive swallowing motions
Salivation

452
Q

WHat type of drug would not inhibit transduction of pain?

A

Alpha 2 agonists

453
Q

What are the principles of administering analgesia?

A

Preventing pain is the best way to treat it
Maintain an analgesic plane once established
Match analgesics to the degree of pain expected

454
Q

What is ethylene oxide?

A

a colorless gas used for sterilization

455
Q

What is the most commonly used scalpel blade in small animal surgery?

A

10

456
Q

What is a vet most likely checking for on a dental exam of a 2 year old horse?

A

bit injuries

457
Q

What type of teeth are usually absent in female horses but present in male horses?

A

Canine

458
Q

When must fresh frozen plasma be used with to ensure optimal clotting factors?

A

within 12 months

459
Q

If an oxidase test is negative what color does it turn?

A

No color change

460
Q

What stands for as needed

A

PRN

461
Q

Which amino acid is qualified as nonessential?

A

glycine

462
Q

What is the purpose of a dosimeter badge?

A

to monitor exposure to radiation

463
Q

Which radionuclides is used for thyroid scintigraphy?

A

Iodine

464
Q

Can anesthesia be safely administered to patients with elevated liver enzymes?

A

Yes

465
Q

What measure is always taken with a patients eyes during anesthesia?

A

apply eye lubricant

466
Q

How is parvovirus spread from one puppy to another?

A

Exposure to infected feces

467
Q

What is a diaphragmatic hernia?

A

A tear in the diaphragm

468
Q

What is the active ingredient in sugar free gum? An what is the active ingredient in chocolate?

A

Xylitol in sugar free and theobromine in chocolate

469
Q

What nutrient is helpful in correcting clotting times in an animal that has ingested rodenticide?

A

Vitamin K

470
Q

What is the third stage of nociception?

A

Transmission

471
Q

What type of medication is used for long term pain management?

A

NSAID

472
Q

How does fludrocortisone work to treat addisons disease?

A

By increasing sodium levels and decreasing potassium levels

473
Q

What condition is contraindicated for acepromazine?

A

Epilepsy

474
Q

Which breed of dog has increased sensitivty to avermectin?

A

Collies because of their more permeable blood brain barrier

475
Q

What drug is banned in the use of food animals because of the potential to cause aplastic anemia in humans?

A

chloramphenicol

476
Q

What antiseptic is commonly used in vet med?

A

Chlorhexidine

477
Q

What suture type would be the most likely to cause an inflammatory reaction?

A

Catgut

478
Q

How many decidiuous teeth do puppies have?

A

28

479
Q

What is an example of a Class III occlusion?

A

Maxillary brachgnathism

480
Q

What parasite can cause cutaneous larval migrans in humans?

A

Ancylostoma braziliense

481
Q

A left shift when referring to blood sample means?

A

An increased number of band neutrophils

482
Q

What site is not an ideal site for IM injections?

A

Gluteal muscles

483
Q

Describe a scenario representing natural passive immunity?

A

A kitten sucking from a queen

484
Q

What kind of arrythmia is characterized by an abnormally long PR interval

A

First degree AV block

485
Q

What is an ideal contrast medium for a myelography

A

Water soluble nonionic organic bodies

486
Q

What could happen if you use a ET tube that is too long?

A

increased mechanical dead space

487
Q

What stage of anesthesia is associated with excitement, vocalization, paddling, and marked muscle tone?

A

Stage II

488
Q

What is a scenario that represents a major cross-match?

A

Donors RBCs mixed with recipeints plasma

489
Q

Most common kind of shock seen in cats and dogs?

A

Hypovolemic shock

490
Q

Unlike dogs cats develop what sign when experiencing shock

A

bradycardia

491
Q

Which fluid is an isotonic fluid?

A

Lactated ringers solution

492
Q

This phase of the pain pathway occurs in the spinal cord?

A

Modulation

493
Q

What combination of drugs represents multimodal analgesia?

A

carprofen, lidocaine, and hydromorphone

494
Q

What is minimum alveolar concentration?

A

The percent concentration of an agent required to prevent a response to surgical stimulation in 50% of patients and therefore is a measurement of the potency of an agent

495
Q

How long should dogs and cats be fasted prior to undergoing anesthesia?

A

8-12 hours

496
Q

What is the chronical order of wound healing?

A

Inflammation, proliferation, and maturation

497
Q

When auscultating a patients lungs you hear crackles. What association would this be with?

A

pleural disease and/or pulmonary disease

498
Q

What does FORL stand for?

A

Feline Odontoclastic Resorptive Lesions

499
Q

WHat are the grades of malocclusions in order grade 1 to grade 4?

A

Grade 1: rostral cross bite
Grade 2: brachygnathism
Grade 3: prognathism
Grade 4: wry bite

500
Q

What is the heel effect?

A

Having the thickest part of the animal towards the cathode side

501
Q

The term kVp allows_____________ and the rem mAs allows the __________

A

penetration of xrays and the number of xrays

502
Q

What solution is a colloid?

A

Blood

503
Q

What percent of an animal’s body weight is made up of water?

A

60%

504
Q

A dog is presented to the clinic upon an emergency for seizures. What is the drug of choice?

A

Diazepam

505
Q

An owner calls the clinic to ask what to do because their dog ingested a large amount of chocolate. What do you tell them to do?

A

Come into the clinic so the vet staff can administer an emetic drug and administer activated charcoal

506
Q

AN owner comes into the clinic to see where her intact, female dog was in her estrousThe owner is going to breed her based upon your findings. How would you differentiate if she is in proestrus or diestrus?

A

They are the same thing so it doesnt matter. Wait 2 days and take another swab and look under the microscope

507
Q

Tubes contain:
1. Purple
2. Green
3. BLue

A
  1. EDTA
  2. Heparin
  3. Citrate
508
Q

Windup….

A

Should be taken seriously and with the use of preemptive analgesia

509
Q

We use the ______ pain scale

A

Colorado State

510
Q

WHich Drug would be used to help stimulate a newborn to breathe after being born csection?

A

Doxapram

511
Q

What drug is in the group called catecholamines?

A

Epinephrine

512
Q

What sutures are natural sutures?

A

Plain gut
Chromatic catgut
Silk

513
Q

Moncryl is?

A

Synthetic and absorbable

514
Q

Which drug dosage from is not administered per OS

A

tincture

515
Q

What are true statements about aspirin?

A
  1. Aspirin blocks the cyclooxygenase pathway which decreases inflammation
  2. Animal owners commonly give aspirin to their animals without veterinary advice
  3. Aspirin is metabolized by cats much more slowly than other species
516
Q

Instruments prepared through cold sterilization by soakin ina disinfecting solution?

A

Can be used on superficial lacerations or dental procedures

517
Q

Sutures in order from smallest to largest?

A

11-0, 7-0, 1, 3

518
Q

Periodontium describes attachment structures of the teeth which include:

A

gingival connective tissue
alveolar bone
periodontal ligament
cementum

519
Q

Signs of Feline CHronic Ulcerative Gingivostomatitis

A

Inflamed gingiva
swollen bright red mucosa
gingival bleeding

520
Q

What are correct statements when performing California Mastitis Test

A
  1. The test screens milk based on a DNA reaction of the somatic cells to the test reagent
  2. The results will appear within 10-15 seconds after the reagent is mixed with the milk samples
  3. An equal amount of milk and reagent is added to each mixing cup in the sample tray
521
Q

Schistocytes AKA

A

RBC fragments

522
Q

Pneumonia can be caused by

A

Bacterial, viral or fungal infection
Aspiration of a foreign object
Aspiration of stomach contents

523
Q

A cystocentesis should not be performed on a patient suspected of having

A

a bladder tumor

524
Q

The borders for a ventrodorsal abdominal radiograph on a small animal are:

A

Diaphragm cranially to the greater trochanter caudally, including the pubic symphysis

525
Q

The principle effects experienced by radiation personnel are

A

Malignancy and genetic defects

526
Q

Stage 1 of anesthesia is noted by:

A

Disorientation and fear

527
Q

When recovering a patient who is showing signs of respiratory distress after extubation, the term stridor refers to

A

Noisy respirations

528
Q

What would cause theobromine toxicity?

A

Chocolate

529
Q

Emergency patients who present with brick red brown or mottled pink red or purple mm may indicate:

A

Sepsis
Heat Stroke
Carbon Monoxide poisoning

530
Q

The DVM may treat with Dextrose in an emergency for a patient suffering from

A

Insulin overdose
insulinoma
glycogen storage disease

531
Q

When measuring arterial blood pressure, the normal ranges for systolic, diastolic, and mean blood pressures are approximately

A

100-160, 60-100, and 80-120 mmHg

532
Q

MLK is added to IV fluids to provide to balanced analgesia, MLK stands for

A

Morphine, Lidocaine, and Ketamine

533
Q

Opioids are classified as

A

agonists, partial agonists, and antagonists

534
Q

To reduce intracranial pressure resulting in trauma, ________________ may be administered every 4-8 hours

A

mannitol

535
Q

GDV is a life threatening emergency. Its main damaging effect is obstruction of the

A

Portal vein

536
Q

To place a nasal oxygenation catheter you would

A

Measure to the medial canthus of the eye

537
Q

What is a colloid sollution?

A

plasma and hetastarch

538
Q

Normal scissor occlusion is when the maxillary fourth premolars occlude

A

buccally to the mandibular first molar

539
Q

What vitamins are water soluble?

A

B and C

540
Q

What statement is true about rabbit cecotrophs?

A

Are known as night feces; are eaten by the rabbit; are soft dark in color moist and coated in mucus; are rich in vitamins, electrolytes, and nutrients

541
Q

Dalmations are the only species to excrete what in their urine?

A

uric acid

542
Q

Arterial blood is most commonly used for

A

blood gas

543
Q

Over inflation of the lungs during artificial ventilation

A

excessive air pressure may rupture the alveoli

544
Q

THe patient is dyspneic> What should you do

A

Turn down the vaprizer, check the ET tube, and check the oxygen flow

545
Q

When a drug has a narrow therapeutic range it means that

A

its effective and toxic doses are close to each other

546
Q

A cow is accidentqally dosed with an equine dose of xylazine. What drug should be immediately administered?

A

Yohimbine

547
Q

THe main purpose of the xray developer is to

A

Convert the exposed silver halide crystals into black metallic silver

548
Q

If using rare earth screens, what spectrum of light must thefilm be sensitive to?

A

green

549
Q

Which suture materal persists in the body the longest period?

A

prolene

550
Q

What are elective procedures?

A

optional

551
Q

Where in the pain pathway does secondary sensitization or windup occur

A

In the spinal cord

552
Q

Administering analgesics before tissue injury is known as

A

preemptive analgesia

553
Q

what type of drug is used to decrease pulmonary edema?

A

diuretics

554
Q

What hormone directly stimulates the thyroid to produce and release hormones?

A

TSH from the pituitary gland

555
Q

What sutures are made of synthetic material?

A

monocryl
ethilon
pds

556
Q

What type of scissors are designed for dissection of delicate tissue?

A

Metzenbaum

557
Q

How long does fluoride treatment need to be left on the teeth for?

A

3-5 minutes

558
Q

What is the adult dental formula for a rabbit?

A

2 (2/1 I, 0/0 C, 3/2 P, 2-3/3 M)

559
Q

When performing a bone marrow aspiration what degree angle should your needle be at?

A

45 degrees

560
Q

What is the specific gravity of most parasite eggs?

A

1.100-1.200 g/ml

561
Q

When presented with a wound that needs care, what is the first objective you must do?

A

Prevent further contamination

562
Q

Guinea pigs require what vitamin supplement in their diet?

A

Vitamin c

563
Q

When taking a small animal abdomen radiograph when is the best time to take the xrays?

A

End of expiration during brief pause

564
Q

You are performing a GI study on a dog with a suspected GI perforation what contrast agent should you use?

A

Oral organic iodine-ionic solution

565
Q

WHen performing a leak check on a low pressure system of a rebreathing system with a pressure of 30 cm of water, no leaks are present if the pressure decrease by how may cm of water in 10 seconds?

A

5 cm of water

566
Q

What monitoring equipment is used to measure the level of CO2 present in inspired and expired air?

A

capnograph

567
Q

You need to induce emesis ina dog what is the most reliable emetic?

A

apomorphine

568
Q

What is the most common problem in exotic small animals?

A

Dental disease

569
Q

What emergency drug does not affect 30-50% of rabbits due to an endogenous enzyme?

A

atropine

570
Q

What is the toxic dose of theobromine?

A

250-500 mg/kg

571
Q

Local infiltration injections of what drug can reduce pain associated with various painful procedures?

A

lidocaine or bupivicaine

572
Q

Using the Colorado State University pain scale, what pain score would be given to a cat who is constantly yowling, growling, or hissing when unattended and may bite or chew at wound but unlikely to move if left alone

A

pain score 3

573
Q

What is a doxycycline?

A

antimicrobial

574
Q

What category of antibacterials can cause ototoxicity and nephrotoxicity?

A

aminoglycosides

575
Q

An onychectomy is the surgical removal of?

A

The claw and the distal phalanx of each digit

576
Q

The purpose of the esmarch bandage is to

A

force blood out of the limb

577
Q

This species has teeth that are brachyodont

A

Porcine

578
Q

Anisognathism is referred to when

A

The upper jaw is wider than the lower jaw

579
Q

What cestode is known as the cucumber seed tapeworm?

A

Dipylidium caninum

580
Q

What parasite has the zoonotic potential for neurological larval migrans?

A

Baylisacaris procyonis

581
Q

Throw away

A
582
Q

FHL is characterized by

A

More than 80% of hepatocytes swelling with lipids

583
Q

Always place the ________ part of the area being xrayed toward the cathode side of the xray tube

A

thickest

584
Q

White spots on an xray could be from

A

hair

585
Q

Horses should have water withheld _____ hours before anesthesia

A

0-2

586
Q

According to the ASA a patient witha P4 physical status classification is _____ risk

A

high

587
Q

___________in a shock state often present with bradycardia, rather than with tachycardia

A

cats

588
Q

Normal mean arterial blood pressure for dogs and cats is

A

60-100 mmHg

589
Q

Increased etCO2 may mean that the patient is

A

hypoventilating

590
Q

Drugs that are safe to administer through an ET tube are easily remembered by the acronym NAVEL which is

A

find answer

591
Q

Nociception has what phases

A

transduction, modulation, transmission, &

592
Q

A circumferential ring block is commonly used for

A

declawing

593
Q

What is pinkeye most often treated with for both sheep and goats?

A

tetracycline

594
Q

NSAID medications are effective in the management of moderate to high levels of pain. True or false

A

false

595
Q

Which of the following should occur as son as possible after GI surgery?

A

Feeding

596
Q

What is helpful in the prevention of excess swelling around the surgical site following the recovery period?

A

exercise

597
Q

Which teeth are generally used for prehending and holding?

A

canines

598
Q

Malocclusion is the correct medical term used to describe abnormal positioning of the teeth. True or false?

A

true

599
Q

WHich type of WBC would indicate allergic disease processes on skin cytology?

A

eosinophil

600
Q

Rocky Mountain SPotted Fever ma occur in what regions?

A

anywhere ticks are found

601
Q

What is the most common sign associated with lyme disease in horses?

A

Stiffness

602
Q

What are the first signs usually noted by owners with puppies that have parvo?

A

V/D

603
Q

During an xray what is the most significant cause of scatter radiation?

A

find answer

604
Q

How does a metal foreign body appear on a radiograph?

A

Bright white

605
Q

What device is a example of an intermittent monitoring device?

A

esophageal stethoscope

606
Q

Upon reaching a deep anesthetic plane is a patient considered to be in the early stages of an overdose?

A

yes

607
Q

Anisocoria may be a symptom of what?

A

Neurologic disease

608
Q

What is the term to describe a condition in which the body does not receive adequate blood flow?

A

shock

609
Q

Palliative care addresses pain through which approach

A

providing symptomatic care

610
Q

If a patients pain is caused by thromboembolism what type of pain does the patient most likely have

A

cardiopulmonary

611
Q

What stage of anesthesia can excitement occur

A

stage 2

612
Q

When measuring central venous pressure where must the tip of the catheter rest

A

vena cava

613
Q

What condition is long lasting and usually develops over an extended period of time?

A

chronic

614
Q

Which diagnostic test is used to assess a horses lower airway?

A

brochoscopy

615
Q

Which teeth are used to grind food?

A

molars

616
Q

Which head type is most common among dogs?

A

mesaticephalic

617
Q

What item is used to monitor the technicians exposure to radiation

A

dosimeter badge

618
Q

IF an object is closer to the xray tube than it is to the image receptor, the object will appear

A

magnified

619
Q

Can exposure to wildlife increase a dogs chance of contracting the distemper virus?

A

yes

620
Q

What is a complex syndrome that results from altered blood flow or impaired delivery of oxygen to the tissues?

A

shock

621
Q

What term indicates a patient is havin a difficult time breathing

A

dyspnea

622
Q

How is parvovirus spread?

A

exposure to infected feces

623
Q

An elevation of BUN indicates a disease of what organ

A

kidney

624
Q

What is hyperalgesia?

A

increased sensitivty to pain

625
Q

In the process of pain transmission which stage occurs when the neural processing in the spinal cord reaches the brain, causing pain to be recognized

A

perception

626
Q

What is the other name for a nonproprietary name?

A

generic name

627
Q

what agent is used as a reversal for opiods?

A

naloxone

628
Q

What is the difference between laparoscopic and traditional surgical incisions

A

Laporoscopic are smaller and less traumatic

629
Q

Which anesthetic agent will commonly result in post op hyperthermia?

A

ketamine

630
Q

The drug group of choice for treating lyme disease is what

A

antibiotics

631
Q

The reversal for xylazine is?

A

yohimbine

632
Q

When scrubbing for surgery yourhands should be

A

above the elbows

633
Q

Metzenbaum scissors are only used for

A

cutting tissue

634
Q

Can dental radiographs aid in sulcus depth measurement

A

no

635
Q

The tooth surface towards the cheek is

A

buccal

636
Q

Icteric plasma will appear

A

yellow

637
Q

Phagocytes are

A

wbcs

638
Q

Which endocrine disease leads to weight loss and increased appetite in cats

A

hyperthyroidism

639
Q

Which needle size hast the smalles diameter?

A

25-28 gauge

640
Q

Which ultrasound frequency pentrates deepest?

A

4 MHz

641
Q

If in your dental radiograph the tooth is elongated your beam was perpendicular to

A

the tooth

642
Q

What is used to evaluate the depth of anesthesia

A

eye position
jaw tone
palpebral reflex

643
Q

QRS complex represents

A

ventricular depolarization

644
Q

The first drug of choice for status epilepticus is

A

diazepam

645
Q

What is the most recommended treatment for canine paraphimosis

A

applying a warm compress

646
Q

What is a doppler used for?

A

blood pressure measurement

647
Q

a megaesophagus patient presents with exercise-induced collapse. What condition do you suspect?

A

myasthenia gravis

648
Q

What is the correct order of the pain pathway?

A

Transduction, transmission, modulation, perception

649
Q

Which anesthetic agent listed below commonly resultis in post op hyperthermia

A

hyperthermia

650
Q

Define patent ductus arteriosus

A

the failed closure of a duct between the pulmonary arter and the aorta

651
Q

If pyometra is not surgically corrected within a reasonable time, damage may occur to what organ?

A

kidneys

652
Q

The patient is diagnosed with grade 3 periodontal disease. This means

A

The patient has 25-50% tooth structure loss

653
Q

What will a vet most likely check during a routine dental exam on a 2 year old horse

A

bit injuries

654
Q

What do blood collection tubes with light blue tops contain

A

sodium citrate solution

655
Q

How is synovial fluid collected for testing

A

arthrocentesis

656
Q

Regarding fluid therapy what is an isotonic solution?

A

Fluid with the same osmotic pressure as blood

657
Q

What is the unit of measure used by the International System of Units to measure the absorbed dose of ionizing radiation?

A

gray

658
Q

Which of the following will appear gray on a radiograph

A

fluid

659
Q

What is an example of an objective means of observation

A

measurment of central venous pressure

660
Q

IF a patient has a sever head inujury what is its anesthetic risk according to the american society of anesthesiologists

A

extreme p5

661
Q

For equine emergency if a yearling needs a nasogastric tube placed what is the correct size

A

7/16” outer diameter 1/4” inner diameter 12’ long

662
Q

Name a lower respiratory disease

A

asthma

663
Q

Define anisocoria

A

a difference in the size of the patients pupils

664
Q

severe sepsis may result in?

A

hypotension

665
Q

What type of medication is considered the primary and preferred means of long term pain managment

A

NSAIDa

666
Q

Define allodynia

A

a pain response that is not usually painful