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vtne exam ?'s > VTNE Practice test D > Flashcards

VTNE Practice test D Flashcards

1
Q

Which of the following is the best vein to use for blood collection in healthy medium to large pet birds?

A. Right jugular
B. Medial metatarsal
C. Basilic
D. Left jugular

A

A. Right Jugular

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2
Q

Most anesthetic drugs used in ruminants:

A. are preceded by administration of an anticholinergic.
B. cause a drug-induced GI hypermotility and post-operative diarrhea.
C. are considered extra-label and have no established withdrawal times for meat or milk.
D. are administered at higher doses to compensate for rumen volume.

A

C. are considered extra-label and have no established withdrawal times for meat or milk.

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3
Q

Which medical suffix is used when a procedure involves surgical creation of an artificial opening?

A. -ectomy
B. -otomy
C. -ostomy
D. -plasty

A

C. -ostomy

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4
Q

Large quantities of calcium carbonate crystals, which cause the urine to be viscous and opaque, are normally present in the urine of a:

A. rat.
B. mouse.
C. rabbit.
D. cat.

A

C. rabbit

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5
Q

Which of the following drugs is used to promote uterine contractions in a bitch?

A. Lincomycin
B. Progesterone
C. Dexamethasone
D. Oxytocin

A

D. Oxytocin

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6
Q

Theobromine toxicity occurs after ingestion of:

A. chocolate.
B. grapes.
C. onions.
D. lilies.

A

A. chocolate.

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7
Q

A pulse oximeter will help an anesthetist:

A. check arterial CO2 levels.
B. evaluate the quality of respirations.
C. assess tissue perfusion.
D. measure blood pressure indirectly.

A

C. assess tissue perfusion.

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8
Q

A parasite is pictured below:

This parasite, collected from a canine patient by means of superficial skin scraping, is known as:

A. Cheyletiella.
B. Sarcoptes.
C. Chorioptes.
D. Psoroptes.

A

A. Cheyletiella.

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9
Q

A prolonged prothrombin time or partial thromboplastin time would indicate a problem with secondary hemostasis such as:

A. von Willebrand’s disease.
B. rodenticide poisoning.
C. thrombocytopenia.
D. thrombocytopathy.

A

B. rodenticide poisoning.

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10
Q

The emergency treatment of cardiac tamponade is:

A. anticoagulation therapy.
B. diuretic therapy.
C. treatment of arrythmia.
D. pericardiocentesis.

A

D. pericardiocentesis.

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11
Q

Ear protection should be worn when restraining which of the following species?

A. Psittacine
B. Camelid
C. Lagomorph
D. Porcine

A

D. Porcine

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12
Q

The advantage of using regional anesthesia in dentistry is the:

A. ability to block entire quadrants.
B. transient loss of sensation.
C. loss of function in the area.
D. loosening of gingival attachments.

A

A. ability to block entire quadrants.

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13
Q

Blastomycosis is a disease caused by a:

A. rickettsia.
B. fungus.
C. bacterium.
D. virus.

A

B. fungus.

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14
Q

Lead gloves protect the technician primarily from what type of radiation?

A. Primary
B. Background
C. Scatter
D. Tertiary

A

C. Scatter

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15
Q

Which species is most sensitive to hyperthermia during physical restraint?

A. Porcine
B. Ovine
C. Equine
D. Caprine

A

A. Porcine

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16
Q

Which of the following statements is true of a rebreathing circuit with an intubated patient?

A. Allows for rapid change of inspired anesthetic concentration
B. Conserves patient body heat through rebreathed air
C. Has an increased danger of patient hypocarbia
D. Requires a high flow rate to be effective

A

B. Conserves patient body heat through rebreathed air

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17
Q

This type of leptocyte can be caused by:
(looks like RBC targets in blood smear)

A. oxidative denatured hemoglobin production.
B. immune-mediated hemolytic anemia.
C. improper EDTA to whole blood ratio.
D. condensation during blood smear preparation

A

C. improper EDTA to whole blood ratio.

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18
Q

What are the predominant cells in a sample collected from a purulent inflammatory lesion?

A. Neutrophils
B. Lymphocytes
C. Macrophages
D. Monocytes

A

A. Neutrophils

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19
Q

Which of the following pre-anesthesia groups has antiemetic properties?

A. Thiazine derivatives
B. Phenothiazines
C. Benzodiazepines
D. Opioids

A

B. Phenothiazines

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20
Q

What is the most likely cause for an increased amount of polychromatic red blood cells on a blood smear?

A. The patient is polycythemic.
B. The patient is anemic.
C. The sample was not stained properly.
D. The sample was refrigerated.

A

B. The patient is anemic

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21
Q

A patient shows the following characteristics:

Corneal reflex: Brisk
Palpebral reflex: Brisk
Lateral nystagmus: Present
Unstimulated blinking: Present
Eyeball rotation: Centered
Tearing: Present

How would this patient’s plane of anesthesia be characterized?

A. Light
B. Adequate
C. Moderately deep
D. Very deep

A

A. Light

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22
Q

Permanent incisors of the dog erupt at the age of:

A. 6-10 weeks.
B. 12-16 weeks.
C. 18-22 weeks.
D. 24-28 weeks.

A

B. 12-16 weeks.

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23
Q

Without refrigeration, chemical analysis of blood samples should be completed within how many hours?

A. 1
B. 3
C. 5
D. 7

A

A. 1

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24
Q

The term hyperpnea refers to an abnormal increase in:

A. expiratory reserve volume of the lungs.
B. rate and/or depth of breathing.
C. volume of dead space in the lungs.
D. functional residual volume of the lungs.

A

B. rate and/or depth of breathing.

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25
Q

In the nursing care for a hospitalized paralyzed animal, it is highly important to check for:

A. visual acuity.
B. cardiac failure.
C. full bladder.
D. blood pressure.

A

C. full bladder.

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26
Q

Gavage feeding in birds is correctly performed when food is delivered to the:

A. proventriculus.
B. ventriculus.
C. crop.
D. esophagus.

A

C. crop

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27
Q

Which of the following areas should be shaved for an exploratory laparotomy?

A. midsternum to pubis; laterally to edge of ribs
B. umbilicus to caudal pelvis; laterally to edge of ribs
C. cranially to the mandible; caudally to thoracic inlet; laterally to commissure of lips
D. dorsally to tail head; laterally to tuber ischii, centrally to mid-thigh

A

A. midsternum to pubis; laterally to edge of ribs

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28
Q

The level of waste anesthetic gas is most influenced by:

A. the use of a scavenging system.
B. whether or not a chamber is used.
C. the flow of gas.
D. the presence of leaks.

A

A. the use of a scavenging system.

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29
Q

The major lesion associated with infections of horses by Strongylus vulgaris is injury to the:

A. peritoneum.
B. liver.
C. arterial system.
D. lungs.

A

C. arterial system.

Strongylus vulgaris= blood worm

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30
Q

When radiographing the teeth of a canine, the parallel technique should be used on which teeth?

A. 108, 109, 110
B. 204, 205, 206
C. 307, 308, 309
D. 401, 402, 403

A

C. 307, 308, 309

Left mandible premolars and molar.

31
Q

Removing social interaction from an animal in order to influence behavior is an example of:

A. positive punishment.
B. negative punishment.
C. negative reinforcement.
D. positive reinforcement.

A

B. negative punishment.

32
Q

Regarding the use of antibiotics in food animals, withdrawal time is the period of time:

A. allowed between when a drug is first given to a food animal and when the last dose may be given.
B. required between when one dose of a medication can be given to a food animal and when a second, different medication can be given.
C. between when the last dose was administered to a food animal and when it is allowed to rejoin the rest of the herd or flock.
D. between when the last dose was administered and when the animal can be slaughtered for food or its products.

A

D. between when the last dose was administered and when the animal can be slaughtered for food or its products.

33
Q

The ova of Pearsonema plica (formerly Capillaria plica) was detected on a urine sediment evaluation of a 6-year-old spayed female dog with a history of cystitis. Which of the following is the most likely cause for the dog becoming infected with this parasite?

A. Ingestion of a dung beetle containing third-stage larva
B. Skin penetration by an infective larva
C. Ingestion of an earthworm containing first-stage larva
D. Ingestion of an ova containing third-stage larva

A

C. Ingestion of an earthworm containing first-stage larva

a parasitic nematode which is most often found in the urinary bladder, and occasionally in the kidneys, of dogs and foxes.

34
Q

An adult horse under anesthesia has a respiratory rate of 20 breaths/minute, nystagmus, and a mean arterial blood pressure of 100 mm Hg. This patient’s anesthetic depth is:

A. too light to perform surgery.
B. adequate for surgery
C. too deep and should be treated.
D. not able to be assessed with this information.

A

A. too light to perform surgery.

35
Q

Localized heat therapy as part of pain management:

A. increases vasoconstriction.
B. increases vasodilation.
C. decreases tissue metabolism.
D. decreases inflammatory response.

A

B. increases vasodilation.

36
Q

A cat is presented with suspected feline infectious peritonitis. What would be the expected PCV and TP measurements?

A. Normal PCV with high TP
B. High PCV with normal TP
C. Low PCV with low TP
D. Normal PCV with low TP

A

A. Normal PCV with high TP

37
Q

Which of the following is true regarding pain scales?

A. They are valuable for determining patient response to treatment.
B. They are unnecessary because they don’t reliably work.
C. They are an academic tool that is only used in school.
D. They are valuable but too hard to use regularly for patients.

A

A. They are valuable for determining patient response to treatment.

38
Q

Which radiographic contrast media is contraindicated for use in patients with a suspected GI perforation?

A. Water-soluble iodide
B. Non-ionic organic iodide
C. Sodium diatrizoate
D. Barium sulfate

A

D. Barium sulfate

39
Q

Which of the following retractors is most appropriate for use on the lung lobes to improve access to the heart?

A. Gelpi
B. Weitlaner
C. Malleable
D. Rake

A

C. Malleable

40
Q

Clients should be advised that while taking phenobarbital to control seizures, their pet may exhibit:

A. polypnea.
B. anorexia.
C. polyuria.
D. pyrexia.

A

C. polyuria.

41
Q

A dog with a suspected urinary tract infection is being discharged home on an orally administered antibiotic pending results of the urine culture and sensitivity. In order to maintain high concentrations of the drug in the urine, the veterinarian should choose:

A. amoxicillin.
B. doxycycline.
C. lincomycin.
D. erythromycin.

A

A. amoxicillin.

42
Q

Which of the following describes the advantage of combining penicillin G with benzathine as an injectable medication?

A. The peak plasma concentration of the combination is higher.
B. Penicillin G benzathine may be administered intravenously.
C. The combination extends the duration of drug activity.
D. Drug absorption is a more rapid at the site of injection.

A

C. The combination extends the duration of drug activity.

43
Q

Malignant hyperthermia is most common in which of the following species?

A. Pigs
B. Sheep
C. Llamas
D. Cattle

A

A. Pigs

44
Q

The primary function of the unidirectional valve is to ensure:

A. a circle breathing system.
B. a nonrebreathing circuit.
C. oxygen flow to the vaporizer.
D. inflation of the rebreathing bag.

A

A. a circle breathing system.

45
Q

The clinical effects of non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) occur mainly by their ability to:

A. bind with mu and kappa receptors.
B. block the transmission of pain impulses by sensory nerves.
C. inhibit the production of prostaglandins.
D. block sodium channels.

A

C. inhibit the production of prostaglandins.

46
Q

For an onychectomy, a tourniquet should be placed distal to the elbow to prevent damage to which of the following nerves?

A. Median
B. Metacarpal
C. Radial
D. Ulnar

A

C. Radial

47
Q

Severe acute lameness in horses is most commonly caused by a:

A. bowed tendon.
B. hoof abscess.
C. ringbone.
D. neurologic disease.

A

B. hoof abscess.

48
Q

In order to accurately deliver 1:10 dilution of 2.27% enrofloxacin to a 40 g (1.41 oz) parakeet that needs to be treated with 5 mg/kg IM, which of the following volume values is required?

A. 0.009 mL
B. 0.09 mL
C. 0.9 mL
D. 9.0 mL

A

B. 0.09 mL

49
Q

The level of consciousness of a feline patient was assessed and it was determined that the cat was unresponsive to all stimuli, including pain. Which of the following terms should be written on the examination record?

A. Comatose
B. Obtunded
C. Stuporous
D. Lethargic

A

A. Comatose

50
Q

Which of the following classes of drugs decreases oral secretions and increases heart rate prior to anesthetic induction?

A. Anticholinergics
B. Tranquilizers
C. Cholinergics
D. Barbiturates

A

A. Anticholinergics

51
Q

One common side effect of narcotics in dogs is:

A. hypertension.
B. mydriasis.
C. tachycardia.
D. respiratory depression.

A

D. respiratory depression.

52
Q

Dehydrated animals will most likely have which of the following laboratory findings?

A. Increased total protein and increased urine specific gravity
B. Increased total protein and decreased urine specific gravity
C. Decreased total protein and increased urine specific gravity
D. Decreased total protein and decreased urine specific gravity

A

A. Increased total protein and increased urine specific gravity

53
Q

Unused media intended for microbiology purposes should be stored:

A. in an incubator.
B. in the freezer.
C. at room temperature.
D. in the refrigerator.

A

D. in the refrigerator.

54
Q

Acute hypercapnic respiratory failure is associated with:

A. asthma.
B. pneumonia.
C. pulmonary thromboembolism.
D. pulmonary edema.

A

A. asthma.

55
Q

Creeping eruption is an intensely pruritic eruption of the human skin, usually caused by the larvae of:

A. whipworms.
B. roundworms.
C. tapeworms.
D. hookworms.

A

D. hookworms.

56
Q

Which of the following grids used in x-ray production will require the highest mA-s setting?

A. 2 to 1
B. 4 to 1
C. 8 to 1
D. 12 to 1

A

D. 12 to 1

57
Q

Which antimicrobial could induce seizures in an epileptic animal?

A. Tetracyclines
B. Fluoroquinolones
C. Sulfonamides
D. Penicillins

A

B. Fluoroquinolones

58
Q

Which vein should be accessed for CRT assessment in an avian patient?

A. Basilic
B. Right jugular
C. Medial metatarsal
D. Saphenous

A

A. Basilic

59
Q

According to the classification system created by the American Veterinary Dental College, which of the following stages of periodontal disease is described as gingivitis only, without attachment loss?

A. PD 0
B. PD 1
C. PD 2
D. PD 3

A

B. PD 1

60
Q

The incidence of catheter-associated urinary tract infections may be reduced by:

A. flushing the urinary catheter with sterile saline.
B. cleaning the prepuce or vestibule with antiseptic soap.
C. taking frequent urine samples through the catheter.
D. placing sterile lubricant over the urethral orifice.

A

B. cleaning the prepuce or vestibule with antiseptic soap.

61
Q

Where is the point of balance located in equine?

A. Near the shoulder
B. Near the hip
C. In the flight zone
D. At the edge of the flight zone

A

A. Near the shoulder

62
Q

Which of the following is a common carrier of Salmonella bacteria?

A. Budgie
B. Ferret
C. Turtle
D. Fish

A

C. Turtle

63
Q

Current recommendations for vaccinating cats include administering:

A. panleukopenia vaccine in the distal left hind leg.
B. rabies vaccine in the right shoulder.
C. no vaccines in the intrascapular space.
D. feline leukemia virus vaccine intramuscularly.

A

C. no vaccines in the intrascapular space.

64
Q

The working end of a dental hand scaler has a:

A. sharp tip and a semicircular cross section.
B. sharp tip and a triangular cross section.
C. rounded tip and a triangular cross section.
D. rounded tip and a semicircular cross section.

A

B. sharp tip and a triangular cross section.

65
Q

A 53.6-lb (24.4-kg) dog is in cardiopulmonary arrest. A 0.2-mg/kg dose of epinephrine is required. What volume of 1:1000 epinephrine must be drawn up for administration?

A. 0.05 mL
B. 0.5 mL
C. 5 mL
D. 50 mL

A

C. 5 mL

66
Q

The incisors of sheep are located on the:

A. caudal aspect of the mandible.
B. rostral aspect of the maxilla.
C. rostral aspect of the maxilla and the mandible.
D. rostral aspect of the mandible.

A

D. rostral aspect of the mandible.

67
Q

Cholestasis, increased osteoblastic activity, or corticosteroid therapy in the canine patient may cause an increase in:

A. alanine aminotransferase (ALT).
B. alkaline phosphatase (ALP).
C. aspartate aminotransferase (AST).
D. cholecystokinin (CK).

A

B. alkaline phosphatase (ALP).

68
Q

Fungal cultures should be incubated at:

A. 0°C (32°F)
B. 4°C (40°F)
C. 25°C (72°F)
D. 37°C (98°F)

A

C. 25°C (72°F)

69
Q

The finished radiograph lacks density. How would this problem be corrected?

A. Increasing focal film distance
B. Increasing kVp
C. Decreasing mAs
D. Decreasing exposure time

A

B. Increasing kVp

70
Q

Which of the following is an example of multimodal pain management?

A. Firocoxib, fenbendazole, and pyrantel pamoate
B. Meloxicam, amoxicillin, and ketoconazole
C. Carprofen, enalapril, and furosemide
D. Deracoxib, buprenorphine, and tramadol

A

D. Deracoxib, buprenorphine, and tramadol

71
Q

Where would the beam be centered when radiographing a ventral dorsal open-mouth oblique view of the maxilla?

A. Third premolar
B. Canines
C. Site of interest
D. Temporomandibular joint

A

A. Third premolar

72
Q

The artery that passes obliquely over the proximal third of the femur on the medial aspect of the thigh is the:

A. iliac.
B. femoral.
C. saphenous.
D. median.

A

B. femoral.

73
Q

During steam sterilization for 9-15 minutes, the temperature must reach at least:

A. 124°F (51°C).
B. 178°F (81°C).
C. 214°F (101°C).
D. 250°F (121°C).

A

D. 250°F (121°C).

vtne exam ?'s (4 decks)

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