Practice VTNE (A) Questions Flashcards

1
Q

A vial of penicillin contains 2,000,000 units of the dry drug. To make the penicillin into a solution that contains 400,000 units per milliliter, how much diluent is needed?

A) 2 mL
B) 4 mL
C) 5 mL
D) 10 mL

A

C) 5 mL

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2
Q

When an anesthetized patients is to be placed on a circular or semi-closed anesthesia circuit, the correct reservoir bag size is determined by using which of the following?

A) 60 mL/lb/min
B) 60 mL/lb
C) 60 mL/kg
D) 60 mL/kg/min

A

C) 60 mL/kg

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3
Q

It is necessary to immunize ferrets against:

A) feline panleukopenia
B) feline rhinotracheitis
C) canine hepatitis
D) canine distemper

A

D) canine distemper

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4
Q

Endotracheal intubation of the horse is usually performed:

A) blindly
B) with the aid of a laryngoscope
C) by palpation of the larynx
D) with direct visualization of the larynx

A

A) blindly

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5
Q

In an anesthetized patients, hypocarbia (hypocapnia) could be attributed to:

A) exhausted soda lima
B) low RR
C) excess artificial ventilation
D) kinked endotracheal tube

A

C) excess artificial ventilation

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6
Q

Which solution is contraindicated as a surgical prep if electrocautery is being used during the procedure?

A) Povidone iodine
B) Hexachlorophene
C) Isopropyl alcohol
D) Chlorhexidine

A

C) Isopropyl alcohol

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7
Q

Ivermectin is classified as which type of agent?

A) fungicide
B) anthelmintic
C) antibiotic
D) disinfectant

A

B) anthelmintic

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8
Q

When discharging a patient that is wearing a fentanyl patch, instructions to the owners should include:

A) skin irritation from the patch is considered a normal reaction
B) proper use and disposal of the patch
C) duration of pain control is 24 hours
D) gloves are not necessary when handling the patch

A

B) proper use and disposal of the patch

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9
Q

Acepromazine is classified as a/an:

A) neuroleptanalgesic
B) anticholinergic
C) dissociative
D) tranquilizer

A

D) tranquilizer

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10
Q

The correct names of the four valves of the heart are:

A) pulmonic, systolic, atrial, tricuspid
B) mitral, pulmonic, aortic, tricuspid
C) aortic, diastolic, septal, mitral
D) mitral, pulmonic, atrial, tricuspid

A

B) mitral, pulmonic, aortic, tricuspid

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11
Q

If anaphylaxis occurs after the administration of any vaccine or drug, which drug will best reverse the effect of shock?

A) Antihistamines
B) Epinephrine
C) Doxapram
D) Dexamethasone

A

B) Epinephrine

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12
Q

In treating hypovolemic shock in the canine, the most important form of therapy is to:

A) administer IV fluids
B) inject corticosteroids
C) keep the patient warm
D) give analgesics

A

A) administer IV fluids

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13
Q

Which of the following is the smallest suture?

A) #1
B) 0
C) 3-0
D) 5-0

A

D) 5 - 0

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14
Q

When a patient shows clinical signs of dyspnea and cyanosis, the technician should check for:

A) ataxia
B) hypothermia
C) respiratory obstruction
D) urethral obstruction

A

C) respiratory obstruction

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15
Q

For a 20-kg dog that is 5% dehydrated, how much fluid replacement is required?

A) 250 mL
B) 500 mL
C) 1000 mL
D) 2000 mL

A

C) 1000 mL

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16
Q

A vial containing 1 g of medication has to be reconstituted to a 2.5% solution (w/v). What volume of diluent is needed and what concentration will result?

A) 25 mL , resulting in a concentration of 4 mg/L
B) 40 mL, resulting in a concentration of 2.5 mg/L
C) 40 mL, resulting in a concentration of 4 mg/L
D) 40 mL, resulting in a concentration of 25 mg/mL

A

D) 40 mL, resulting in a concentration of 25 mg/mL

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17
Q

In the anesthetized, healthy patient, which of the following abnormalities is most commonly encountered?

A) Respiratory alkalosis
B) Metabolic acidosis
C) Metabolic alkalosis
D) Respiratory acidosis

A

D) Respiratory acidosis

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18
Q

The standard culture medium used for bacterial sensitivity testing is:

A) MacConkey
B) Hektoen enteric
C) Sabouraud dextrose
D) Mueller-Hinton

A

D) Mueller-Hinton

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19
Q

The inhalant anesthetic isoflurane:

A) is a liquid at room temperature when stored in a sealed container
B) is odorless
C) is flammable
D) does not vaporize at room temp when stored in an open container

A

A) is a liquid at room temperature when stored in a sealed container

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20
Q

For horses under anesthesia in lateral recumbency, padding and positioning of the front legs and head is important to prevent:

A) decubital sores
B) granuloma
C) laminitis
D) neuromuscular damage

A

D) neuromuscular damage

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21
Q

Adequate tissue perfusion is presumed when an animal exhibits normal:

A) heart rate
B) body temperature
C) capillary refill
D) pupillary size

A

C) capillary refill

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22
Q

Which hormone is responsible for the rupture of an ovarian follicle and the release of a mature egg from an ovary?

A) Luteinizing hormone
B) estrogen
C) follicle stimulating hormone
D) progesterone

A

A) luteinizing hormone

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23
Q

The most profound adverse effect of the opioid drugs is:

A) respiratory depression
B) decreased HR
C) bowel hyper-motility
D) decreased blood pressure

A

A) respiratory depression

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24
Q

How long is the gestation period in the mare?

A) 112-115 days
B) 148-156 days
C) 280-290 days
D) 326 - 354 days

A

D) 326-354 days

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25
Inanimate objects contaminated with pathogens are referred to as: A) carriers B) hosts C) fomites D) vectors
C) fomites
26
Which of the following parasites requires an intermediate host in order to complete the life cycle? A) Ascarid B) Hookworm C) Coccidia D) Heartworm
D) Heartworm
27
Basophilic stippling of the RBCs is a characteristic finding in: A) lead poisoning in dogs B) anemia in horses C) acetaminophen toxicity in cats D) healthy avian blood
A) lead poisoning in dogs
28
An effective drug for treating anaphylaxis is: A) Calcium gluconate B) piperazine C) procaine D) epinephrine
D) epinephrine
29
If a horse is given 825 mL of a 10% solution of guaifenesin, the amount in grams of guaifenesin given is: A) 0.825g B) 8.25g C) 82.5 g D) 825 g
C) 82.5 g
30
Which of the following does not increase radiographs density? A) increased kVp B) increased distance from target C) increased developing time D) increased developing temperature
B) increased distance from the target
31
Anemia due to the lack of iron and chronic blood loss are classified as: A) microcytic, hypochromic B) macrocytic, polychromatic C) macrocytic, hypochromic D) microcytic, polychromatic
A) microcytic, hypochromic
32
Bordetella vaccine is given to dogs to prevent: A) Lyme disease B) parainfluenza C) distemper D) tracheobronchitis
D) tracheobronchitis
33
Which type of suture material is more likely to "wick" fluid along it and therefore, should not be used in a contaminated environment? A) Catgut B) monofilament C) stainless steel D) Braided polyglactin 910
D) braided polyglactin 910
34
A palpebral reflex is checked at the: A) pupil B) foot C) eyelid D) throat
C) eyelid
35
Which of the following is the most likely complication of endotracheal tube cuff overinflation during lengthy anesthesia? A) air leakage from the cuff B) cuff rotation w/in the trachea C) tissue necrosis D) cuff wear and tear
C) tissue necrosis
36
What is the advantage of using a narcotic as a premedication? A) increased analgesia B) increase BP C) decreased salivation D) decreased respirations
A) increased analgesia
37
In cattle, an increase in fibrinogen relative to the other plasma proteins is most likely to be due to: A) estrus B) inflammation C) ketosis D) pregnancy
B) inflammation
38
When skeletal muscles are not being used, or when they lose their nerve supply, they tend to: A) hypertrophy B) atrophy C) necrose D) dystrophy
B) atrophy
39
In radiographic terminology, to which of the following does the term density refer? A) the difference in anatomical detail observable between two areas on the radiograph B) the concentration of X rays produced C) the thickness of the radiograph D) the degree of blackness of the radiograph
D) the degree of blackness of the radiograph
40
Butophanol tartrate has been prescribed for a Pomeranian with a collapsed trachea. The client should be cautioned that a common side effect of the drug is: A) hyperventilation B) tachycardia C) polydipsia D) sedation
D) sedation
41
The primary function of the segmented neutrophil is: A) to remove histamine from the tissues B) the phagocytosis of small particles C) the antigen/antibody response D) to transport oxygen to the tissues
B) the phagocytosis of small particles
42
The contrast media that are most used in veterinary radiography are iodine, barium sulfate, and: A) water B) urine C) air D) feces
C) air
43
Cells that line the thoracic, pericardial, and abdominal cavities are known as: A) mast cells B) macrophages C) Schwann cells D) mesothelial cells
D) mesothelial cells
44
Constant Rate Infusion (CRI) of an analgesic: A) rarely requires a loading dose B) is administered in large amounts over a short period of time C) avoids peaks and valleys normally seen w/ a bolus injection D) provides excellent analgesia in dogs but not in cats
C) avoids peaks and valleys normally seen w/ a bolus injection
45
Which of the following instruments is used for removing sub-gingival plaque? A) Curette B) Elevator C) Scaler D) Calculus forceps
A) curette
46
A correct statement about vaccines is that they contain: A) antibodies B) T-lymphocytes C) B-lymphocytes D) antigens
D) antigens
47
Which of the following is the common nam of the first upper premolar tooth in the horse? A) Incisor B) Canine C) Wolf D) Carnassial
C) Wolf
48
A rising antibody titer in paired serum samples taken 2 weeks apart indicates a: A) latent infection B) lack of infection C) past infection D) recent infection
D) recent infection
49
Which of the following is the correct dental formula for an 8-wo kitten? A) 2 (I 3/3, C 1/1, P 1/1) = 20 B) 2 (I 3/3, C 1/1, P 3/2) = 26 C) 2 (I 3/3, C 1/1, P 3/3) = 28 D) 2 (I 3/3, C 1/1, P 2/3, M 1/1) = 30
B)
50
Which surface of the tooth meets the opposite tooth during mastication? A) Lingual B) Buccal C) Occlusal D) Labial
C) Occlusal
51
How many grams of sodium chloride should be dissolved in 1.5 L of water to make a 12% solution? A) 1.8g B) 18g C) 180 g D) 0.18 g
C) 180 g
52
Which of the following forceps do veterinary surgeons most often use to aid in suturing? A) Kelly B) Adson C) Halsted D) Babcock
B) adson
53
Which of the following is an analgesic drug commonly administered via a transdermal patch? A) oxymorphone B) Meloxicam C) Xylazine D) Fentanyl
D) fentanyl
54
The term that is used to describe the removal of the dorsal, bony roof of the spinal canal is: A) myectomy B) laminectomy C) neurectomy D) caudectomy
B) laminectomy
55
Onychectomy is correctly defined as the surgical removal of: A) ovaries B) tonsils C) testicles D) claws
D) Claws
56
A decrease in RBC size observed during a CBC should be noted as: A) hypochromasia B) macrocytosis C) normocytosis D) microcytosis
D) microcytosis
57
Hypocalcemia is commonly seen in: A) lactating animals B) the second trimester of pregnancy C) unweaned animals D) animals exhibiting lactose intolerance
A) lactating animals
58
The lingual surface of the tooth is closest to the: A) cheek B) tongue C) palate D) lips
B) tongue
59
For a midline ovariohysterectomy, the patient is positioned in which type of recumbency? A) left lateral B) ventral C) dorsal D) right lateral
C) dorsal
60
All of the following drug groups produce analgesia except: A) barbiturates B) alpha-2-agonists C) phenothiazines D) opioids
C) phenothiazines
61
When the veterinarians orders radiographs to investigate a suspected fracture of the left olecranon in a canine patient, the technician should radiograph the left: A) carpus B) elbow C) stifle D) tarsus
B) elbow
62
During surgery, an atraumatic method of hemostasis is: A) clamping w/ hemostatic forceps B) wiping with gauze sponges C) blotting w/ gauze sponges D) ligation with suture material
c) blotting w/ gauze sponges
63
After parturition, a cow may become partially or totally paralyzed with which of the following types of paralysis? A) perineal B) obturator C) median D) femoral
B) obturator
64
After Gram staining, any bacterium that looks reddish-pink under the microscope is: A) alpha-hemolytic B) gram-negative C) acid-fast D) gram-positive
B) gram-negative
65
The primary reason that vasoconstrictors are added to local anesthetics is to: A) increase the duration of action B) increase the area affected by the anesthetic C) minimize toxicity D) decreases the duration of action
A) increase the duration of action
66
Which type of immunoassay typically results in the visible clumping of particles? A) fluorescent-antibody testing B) enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA) C) agglutination test D) polymerase chain reaction (PCR)
C) agglutination test
67
Overinflation of an endotracheal tube cuff in the trachea of an anesthetized animal may result in: A) immediate dyspnea B) emesis C) laryngospasm D) pressure necrosis
D) pressure necrosis
68
In an anesthetized animal, pale gray mucous membranes are indicative of: A) hypercapnia B) hyperventilation C) poor tissue perfusion D) arrtyhmia
C) poor tissue perfusion
69
A radiograph that has been overexposed is: A) very detailed B) too dark C) not developable D) too light
B) too dark
70
Lipase a pancreatic enzyme that: A) degrades carbohydrates B) activates insulin C) degrades fat D) activates proteins
C) degrades fat
71
The neutrophilic segmented cell belongs to the: A) plasmacytic series B) monocytic series C) granulocytic series D) erythrocytic series
C) granulocytic series
72
Which of the following diseases is caused by protozoa? A) pasteurellosis B) trichomoniasis C) salmonellosis D) leptospirosis
B) trichomoniasis
73
Metoclopramide belongs to which class of drugs? A) antiemetic B) anti-infective agent C) nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory agent D) muscle relaxant
A) antiemetic
74
Which of the following is a common side effect of glucocorticoid usage? A) polyuria B) inappetence C) vomiting D) pruritus
A) polyuria
75
Cattle are commonly vaccinated against which of the following zoonotic diseases, which can be spread by the urine of deer and rats? A) leptospirosis B) Borreliosis C) campylobacteriosis D) brucellosis
A) leptospirosis