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vtne exam ?'s > Practice VTNE (A) Questions > Flashcards

Practice VTNE (A) Questions Flashcards

1
Q

A vial of penicillin contains 2,000,000 units of the dry drug. To make the penicillin into a solution that contains 400,000 units per milliliter, how much diluent is needed?

A) 2 mL
B) 4 mL
C) 5 mL
D) 10 mL

A

C) 5 mL

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2
Q

When an anesthetized patients is to be placed on a circular or semi-closed anesthesia circuit, the correct reservoir bag size is determined by using which of the following?

A) 60 mL/lb/min
B) 60 mL/lb
C) 60 mL/kg
D) 60 mL/kg/min

A

C) 60 mL/kg

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3
Q

It is necessary to immunize ferrets against:

A) feline panleukopenia
B) feline rhinotracheitis
C) canine hepatitis
D) canine distemper

A

D) canine distemper

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4
Q

Endotracheal intubation of the horse is usually performed:

A) blindly
B) with the aid of a laryngoscope
C) by palpation of the larynx
D) with direct visualization of the larynx

A

A) blindly

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5
Q

In an anesthetized patients, hypocarbia (hypocapnia) could be attributed to:

A) exhausted soda lima
B) low RR
C) excess artificial ventilation
D) kinked endotracheal tube

A

C) excess artificial ventilation

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6
Q

Which solution is contraindicated as a surgical prep if electrocautery is being used during the procedure?

A) Povidone iodine
B) Hexachlorophene
C) Isopropyl alcohol
D) Chlorhexidine

A

C) Isopropyl alcohol

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7
Q

Ivermectin is classified as which type of agent?

A) fungicide
B) anthelmintic
C) antibiotic
D) disinfectant

A

B) anthelmintic

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8
Q

When discharging a patient that is wearing a fentanyl patch, instructions to the owners should include:

A) skin irritation from the patch is considered a normal reaction
B) proper use and disposal of the patch
C) duration of pain control is 24 hours
D) gloves are not necessary when handling the patch

A

B) proper use and disposal of the patch

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9
Q

Acepromazine is classified as a/an:

A) neuroleptanalgesic
B) anticholinergic
C) dissociative
D) tranquilizer

A

D) tranquilizer

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10
Q

The correct names of the four valves of the heart are:

A) pulmonic, systolic, atrial, tricuspid
B) mitral, pulmonic, aortic, tricuspid
C) aortic, diastolic, septal, mitral
D) mitral, pulmonic, atrial, tricuspid

A

B) mitral, pulmonic, aortic, tricuspid

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11
Q

If anaphylaxis occurs after the administration of any vaccine or drug, which drug will best reverse the effect of shock?

A) Antihistamines
B) Epinephrine
C) Doxapram
D) Dexamethasone

A

B) Epinephrine

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12
Q

In treating hypovolemic shock in the canine, the most important form of therapy is to:

A) administer IV fluids
B) inject corticosteroids
C) keep the patient warm
D) give analgesics

A

A) administer IV fluids

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13
Q

Which of the following is the smallest suture?

A) #1
B) 0
C) 3-0
D) 5-0

A

D) 5 - 0

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14
Q

When a patient shows clinical signs of dyspnea and cyanosis, the technician should check for:

A) ataxia
B) hypothermia
C) respiratory obstruction
D) urethral obstruction

A

C) respiratory obstruction

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15
Q

For a 20-kg dog that is 5% dehydrated, how much fluid replacement is required?

A) 250 mL
B) 500 mL
C) 1000 mL
D) 2000 mL

A

C) 1000 mL

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16
Q

A vial containing 1 g of medication has to be reconstituted to a 2.5% solution (w/v). What volume of diluent is needed and what concentration will result?

A) 25 mL , resulting in a concentration of 4 mg/L
B) 40 mL, resulting in a concentration of 2.5 mg/L
C) 40 mL, resulting in a concentration of 4 mg/L
D) 40 mL, resulting in a concentration of 25 mg/mL

A

D) 40 mL, resulting in a concentration of 25 mg/mL

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17
Q

In the anesthetized, healthy patient, which of the following abnormalities is most commonly encountered?

A) Respiratory alkalosis
B) Metabolic acidosis
C) Metabolic alkalosis
D) Respiratory acidosis

A

D) Respiratory acidosis

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18
Q

The standard culture medium used for bacterial sensitivity testing is:

A) MacConkey
B) Hektoen enteric
C) Sabouraud dextrose
D) Mueller-Hinton

A

D) Mueller-Hinton

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19
Q

The inhalant anesthetic isoflurane:

A) is a liquid at room temperature when stored in a sealed container
B) is odorless
C) is flammable
D) does not vaporize at room temp when stored in an open container

A

A) is a liquid at room temperature when stored in a sealed container

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20
Q

For horses under anesthesia in lateral recumbency, padding and positioning of the front legs and head is important to prevent:

A) decubital sores
B) granuloma
C) laminitis
D) neuromuscular damage

A

D) neuromuscular damage

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21
Q

Adequate tissue perfusion is presumed when an animal exhibits normal:

A) heart rate
B) body temperature
C) capillary refill
D) pupillary size

A

C) capillary refill

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22
Q

Which hormone is responsible for the rupture of an ovarian follicle and the release of a mature egg from an ovary?

A) Luteinizing hormone
B) estrogen
C) follicle stimulating hormone
D) progesterone

A

A) luteinizing hormone

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23
Q

The most profound adverse effect of the opioid drugs is:

A) respiratory depression
B) decreased HR
C) bowel hyper-motility
D) decreased blood pressure

A

A) respiratory depression

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24
Q

How long is the gestation period in the mare?

A) 112-115 days
B) 148-156 days
C) 280-290 days
D) 326 - 354 days

A

D) 326-354 days

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25
Q

Inanimate objects contaminated with pathogens are referred to as:

A) carriers
B) hosts
C) fomites
D) vectors

A

C) fomites

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26
Q

Which of the following parasites requires an intermediate host in order to complete the life cycle?

A) Ascarid
B) Hookworm
C) Coccidia
D) Heartworm

A

D) Heartworm

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27
Q

Basophilic stippling of the RBCs is a characteristic finding in:

A) lead poisoning in dogs
B) anemia in horses
C) acetaminophen toxicity in cats
D) healthy avian blood

A

A) lead poisoning in dogs

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28
Q

An effective drug for treating anaphylaxis is:

A) Calcium gluconate
B) piperazine
C) procaine
D) epinephrine

A

D) epinephrine

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29
Q

If a horse is given 825 mL of a 10% solution of guaifenesin, the amount in grams of guaifenesin given is:

A) 0.825g
B) 8.25g
C) 82.5 g
D) 825 g

A

C) 82.5 g

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30
Q

Which of the following does not increase radiographs density?

A) increased kVp
B) increased distance from target
C) increased developing time
D) increased developing temperature

A

B) increased distance from the target

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31
Q

Anemia due to the lack of iron and chronic blood loss are classified as:

A) microcytic, hypochromic
B) macrocytic, polychromatic
C) macrocytic, hypochromic
D) microcytic, polychromatic

A

A) microcytic, hypochromic

32
Q

Bordetella vaccine is given to dogs to prevent:

A) Lyme disease
B) parainfluenza
C) distemper
D) tracheobronchitis

A

D) tracheobronchitis

33
Q

Which type of suture material is more likely to “wick” fluid along it and therefore, should not be used in a contaminated environment?

A) Catgut
B) monofilament
C) stainless steel
D) Braided polyglactin 910

A

D) braided polyglactin 910

34
Q

A palpebral reflex is checked at the:

A) pupil
B) foot
C) eyelid
D) throat

A

C) eyelid

35
Q

Which of the following is the most likely complication of endotracheal tube cuff overinflation during lengthy anesthesia?

A) air leakage from the cuff
B) cuff rotation w/in the trachea
C) tissue necrosis
D) cuff wear and tear

A

C) tissue necrosis

36
Q

What is the advantage of using a narcotic as a premedication?

A) increased analgesia
B) increase BP
C) decreased salivation
D) decreased respirations

A

A) increased analgesia

37
Q

In cattle, an increase in fibrinogen relative to the other plasma proteins is most likely to be due to:

A) estrus
B) inflammation
C) ketosis
D) pregnancy

A

B) inflammation

38
Q

When skeletal muscles are not being used, or when they lose their nerve supply, they tend to:

A) hypertrophy
B) atrophy
C) necrose
D) dystrophy

A

B) atrophy

39
Q

In radiographic terminology, to which of the following does the term density refer?

A) the difference in anatomical detail observable between two areas on the radiograph
B) the concentration of X rays produced
C) the thickness of the radiograph
D) the degree of blackness of the radiograph

A

D) the degree of blackness of the radiograph

40
Q

Butophanol tartrate has been prescribed for a Pomeranian with a collapsed trachea. The client should be cautioned that a common side effect of the drug is:

A) hyperventilation
B) tachycardia
C) polydipsia
D) sedation

A

D) sedation

41
Q

The primary function of the segmented neutrophil is:

A) to remove histamine from the tissues
B) the phagocytosis of small particles
C) the antigen/antibody response
D) to transport oxygen to the tissues

A

B) the phagocytosis of small particles

42
Q

The contrast media that are most used in veterinary radiography are iodine, barium sulfate, and:

A) water
B) urine
C) air
D) feces

A

C) air

43
Q

Cells that line the thoracic, pericardial, and abdominal cavities are known as:

A) mast cells
B) macrophages
C) Schwann cells
D) mesothelial cells

A

D) mesothelial cells

44
Q

Constant Rate Infusion (CRI) of an analgesic:

A) rarely requires a loading dose
B) is administered in large amounts over a short period of time
C) avoids peaks and valleys normally seen w/ a bolus injection
D) provides excellent analgesia in dogs but not in cats

A

C) avoids peaks and valleys normally seen w/ a bolus injection

45
Q

Which of the following instruments is used for removing sub-gingival plaque?

A) Curette
B) Elevator
C) Scaler
D) Calculus forceps

A

A) curette

46
Q

A correct statement about vaccines is that they contain:

A) antibodies
B) T-lymphocytes
C) B-lymphocytes
D) antigens

A

D) antigens

47
Q

Which of the following is the common nam of the first upper premolar tooth in the horse?

A) Incisor
B) Canine
C) Wolf
D) Carnassial

A

C) Wolf

48
Q

A rising antibody titer in paired serum samples taken 2 weeks apart indicates a:

A) latent infection
B) lack of infection
C) past infection
D) recent infection

A

D) recent infection

49
Q

Which of the following is the correct dental formula for an 8-wo kitten?

A) 2 (I 3/3, C 1/1, P 1/1) = 20
B) 2 (I 3/3, C 1/1, P 3/2) = 26
C) 2 (I 3/3, C 1/1, P 3/3) = 28
D) 2 (I 3/3, C 1/1, P 2/3, M 1/1) = 30

A

B)

50
Q

Which surface of the tooth meets the opposite tooth during mastication?

A) Lingual
B) Buccal
C) Occlusal
D) Labial

A

C) Occlusal

51
Q

How many grams of sodium chloride should be dissolved in 1.5 L of water to make a 12% solution?

A) 1.8g
B) 18g
C) 180 g
D) 0.18 g

A

C) 180 g

52
Q

Which of the following forceps do veterinary surgeons most often use to aid in suturing?

A) Kelly
B) Adson
C) Halsted
D) Babcock

A

B) adson

53
Q

Which of the following is an analgesic drug commonly administered via a transdermal patch?

A) oxymorphone
B) Meloxicam
C) Xylazine
D) Fentanyl

A

D) fentanyl

54
Q

The term that is used to describe the removal of the dorsal, bony roof of the spinal canal is:

A) myectomy
B) laminectomy
C) neurectomy
D) caudectomy

A

B) laminectomy

55
Q

Onychectomy is correctly defined as the surgical removal of:

A) ovaries
B) tonsils
C) testicles
D) claws

A

D) Claws

56
Q

A decrease in RBC size observed during a CBC should be noted as:

A) hypochromasia
B) macrocytosis
C) normocytosis
D) microcytosis

A

D) microcytosis

57
Q

Hypocalcemia is commonly seen in:

A) lactating animals
B) the second trimester of pregnancy
C) unweaned animals
D) animals exhibiting lactose intolerance

A

A) lactating animals

58
Q

The lingual surface of the tooth is closest to the:
A) cheek
B) tongue
C) palate
D) lips

A

B) tongue

59
Q

For a midline ovariohysterectomy, the patient is positioned in which type of recumbency?

A) left lateral
B) ventral
C) dorsal
D) right lateral

A

C) dorsal

60
Q

All of the following drug groups produce analgesia except:

A) barbiturates
B) alpha-2-agonists
C) phenothiazines
D) opioids

A

C) phenothiazines

61
Q

When the veterinarians orders radiographs to investigate a suspected fracture of the left olecranon in a canine patient, the technician should radiograph the left:

A) carpus
B) elbow
C) stifle
D) tarsus

A

B) elbow

62
Q

During surgery, an atraumatic method of hemostasis is:

A) clamping w/ hemostatic forceps
B) wiping with gauze sponges
C) blotting w/ gauze sponges
D) ligation with suture material

A

c) blotting w/ gauze sponges

63
Q

After parturition, a cow may become partially or totally paralyzed with which of the following types of paralysis?

A) perineal
B) obturator
C) median
D) femoral

A

B) obturator

64
Q

After Gram staining, any bacterium that looks reddish-pink under the microscope is:

A) alpha-hemolytic
B) gram-negative
C) acid-fast
D) gram-positive

A

B) gram-negative

65
Q

The primary reason that vasoconstrictors are added to local anesthetics is to:

A) increase the duration of action
B) increase the area affected by the anesthetic
C) minimize toxicity
D) decreases the duration of action

A

A) increase the duration of action

66
Q

Which type of immunoassay typically results in the visible clumping of particles?

A) fluorescent-antibody testing
B) enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA)
C) agglutination test
D) polymerase chain reaction (PCR)

A

C) agglutination test

67
Q

Overinflation of an endotracheal tube cuff in the trachea of an anesthetized animal may result in:

A) immediate dyspnea
B) emesis
C) laryngospasm
D) pressure necrosis

A

D) pressure necrosis

68
Q

In an anesthetized animal, pale gray mucous membranes are indicative of:

A) hypercapnia
B) hyperventilation
C) poor tissue perfusion
D) arrtyhmia

A

C) poor tissue perfusion

69
Q

A radiograph that has been overexposed is:

A) very detailed
B) too dark
C) not developable
D) too light

A

B) too dark

70
Q

Lipase a pancreatic enzyme that:

A) degrades carbohydrates
B) activates insulin
C) degrades fat
D) activates proteins

A

C) degrades fat

71
Q

The neutrophilic segmented cell belongs to the:

A) plasmacytic series
B) monocytic series
C) granulocytic series
D) erythrocytic series

A

C) granulocytic series

72
Q

Which of the following diseases is caused by protozoa?

A) pasteurellosis
B) trichomoniasis
C) salmonellosis
D) leptospirosis

A

B) trichomoniasis

73
Q

Metoclopramide belongs to which class of drugs?

A) antiemetic
B) anti-infective agent
C) nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory agent
D) muscle relaxant

A

A) antiemetic

74
Q

Which of the following is a common side effect of glucocorticoid usage?

A) polyuria
B) inappetence
C) vomiting
D) pruritus

A

A) polyuria

75
Q

Cattle are commonly vaccinated against which of the following zoonotic diseases, which can be spread by the urine of deer and rats?

A) leptospirosis
B) Borreliosis
C) campylobacteriosis
D) brucellosis

A

A) leptospirosis

vtne exam ?'s (4 decks)

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