Volume III Flashcards

1
Q

At least how many shipper declaration forms for dangerous goods are necessary when shipping hazardous material?

A

Three.

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2
Q

When an attack is imminent personnel should?

A

Seek immediate cover and then don’t protective equipment.

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3
Q

During which phase will aircrew flight equipment process aircrew members through the aircrew contamination control area (ACCA)?

A

Post-attack.

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4
Q

Which is a process of identifying analyzing and controlling critical information indicating actions associated with military operations and other activities?

A

Operations security (OPSEC).

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5
Q

Critical information that may be derived from seemingly unrelated elements of information is known as?

A

Indicators.

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6
Q

Which of these must be protected under crypto security components of communications security (COMSEC)?

A

Secure telephone or facsimile equipment.

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7
Q

Which program is defined as the investigation study and control of compromising emanating from telecommunications and automated information system equipment?

A

TEMPEST.

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8
Q

What changes the classification of a personal identification number (PIN)?

A

Directly associating the PIN with a specific device.

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9
Q

If a top secret telephone calls a secret telephone what is displayed on both devices?

A

Secret.

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10
Q

An air tasking order (ATO) directs how airpower assets will be used for the next?

A

Twenty four hours.

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11
Q

What is a concept of operation (CONOPS) designed to provide?

A

Overall picture of the operations.

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12
Q

Who is responsible for ensuring that personnel who may be tasked to fill positions on aircrew contamination control area (ACCA) team remain fully qualified in ACCA functions at all times?

A

Supervisors.

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13
Q

During ○2 use which portion of the aircrew eye respiratory protection (AERP) system provides a positive pressure condition in the MBU-19/P hood?

A

CQU-7/P blower.

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14
Q

What is the primary purpose of the tear away system of the eye respiratory protection (AERP) mask?

A

Prevent drowning.

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15
Q

The hose and tether lengths for the CQU-7/P blower very based on the specific aircraft application and?

A

Seat location.

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16
Q

What size battery powers the MXU-835/P?

A

9-volt.

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17
Q

Which position on the MXU-835/P communication subsystem allows communications transmission and receipt through the speaker and microphone?

A

Third position.

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18
Q

What position on the MXU-835/P communication subsystem is listen only?

A

Second position.

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19
Q

By what part of an inch must the edges overlap when repairing tears on the crue-66/P aircrew chemical ensemble?

A

1/4 inch.

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20
Q

How many modes of operation does the aircrew eye respiratory protection (AERP) system have?

A

Four positions.

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21
Q

A CQU-7/P blower failure is indicated to the wearer by?

A

The loss of lens dentist and the increased breathing resistance.

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22
Q

In a contaminated situation which item should be donned first?

A

Mask and blower unit.

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23
Q

When donning the helmet with the aircrew eye respiratory protection (AERP) system which locking position is the bayonet inserted?

A

Second position.

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24
Q

How should the aircrew eye respiratory protection (ACCA) tear-away pull knobs be positioned when you wear them?

A

Under the lower harness straps.

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25
Q

When setting up an aircrew contamination control area (ACCA) once the constant wind direction is determined the processing direction is established at a?

A

45-60 degrees deviation (angle) towards the wind direction.

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26
Q

Who is responsible for dividing manpower into groups or teams by color when setting up an aircrew contamination control area (ACCA)?

A

ACCA Manager.

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27
Q

Which portion of the aircrew contamination control area (ACCA) is intended to remove and secure all classified information or materiel?

A

Area One, Station One.

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28
Q

How many M295s will the attendant use when performing the decon pat down process?

A

As many as necessary.

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29
Q

Which supervisory measure is concerned with training?

A

Leading people.

30
Q

Who is responsible for developing a rotation plan to ensure all assigned aircrew flight equipment (AFE) technicians are trained and remain proficient in all AFE sections within the work center?

A

AFE Superintendent.

31
Q

Supervisors report training deficiencies on skills taught in the initial skills course through?

A

Customer service information line (CSIL).

32
Q

What recurring training program frequency is required for infrequently maintained systems?

A

Six - Month.

33
Q

When possible who should correct all quality control (QC) noted discrepancies?

A

Original technician.

34
Q

Who designates in-process inspection (IPI) personnel by appointment letter when the unit does not have access to an automated special certification roster (SCR)?

A

Unit commander.

35
Q

Who may waive the 7-level requirement for a SSgt or senior airman to clear red-x discrepancies based on their experience and technical expertise?

A

First O-6 in the chain of command.

36
Q

What weekly quantity of repacked parachute assemblies require quality control inspection (QCI)?

A

100%.

37
Q

How are in-process inspections (IPI) documented?

A

On locally developed forms.

38
Q

Which Air Force instruction sets the minimum requirements for developing and implementing the aircrew flight equipment continuation training program/

A

11-301 volume 1 aircrew flight equipment (AFE) program.

39
Q

How often must aircrew flight equipment continuation training (AFECT) lesson plans be reviewed?

A

Annually.

40
Q

Which AFE continuation training event is focused on making sure a comprehensive fit check is completed on all aircrew flight equipment items worn during flight in ejection seat aircraft?

A

LL07.

41
Q

How are aircrew flight equipment fit checks documented?

A

Documented on AF Form 1522 ARMS additional training accomplishment report.

42
Q

Which aircrew flight equipment continuation training event is required for all aircrew before their first flight?

A

LL01.

43
Q

What percentage of aircrew participants in subsequent aircrew chemical biological radiological and nuclear training classes must dress-out and demonstrate aircrew contamination control area processing procedures?

A

10%

44
Q

Which aircrew flight equipment continuation training event includes aircrew clothing items and information on hazards associated with improper wear and failure to only authorized clothing and equipment items?

A

LL06.

45
Q

The equipment used for aircrew flight equipment continuation training must be clearly marked?

A

FOR TRAINING USE ONLY.

46
Q

How frequent are inspections conducted on all aircrew flight equipment training devices and aids to ensure they are current and safe for training use?

A

Annually.

47
Q

What is the purpose of mishap investigations?

A

Prevent future mishaps.

48
Q

Who determines the depth of investigative effort required for each mishap?

A

Convening authority.

49
Q

How many days of bare base operations in support of contingency and wartime missions must logistics details(LOGDET) sustain?

A

Thirty days.

50
Q

How frequent are reviews of change proposals sent to all non-pilot units for review in comment resolution matrix (CRM) for adjudication?

A

Biennially.

51
Q

How many sections are designed operational capability (DOC) statement divided?

A

Six Sections.

52
Q

A limited factor is a?

A

Factor or condition that either temporarily or permanently impedes mission accomplishment and requires the aid of higher headquarters to resolve.

53
Q

Who should be one of the first to deploy on the advanced echelon team?

A

Experienced AFE supervisors.

54
Q

How many pounds can each ring on a 463L pallet restrain?

A

7,500 Lbs.

55
Q

When pallets are stored outside a plastic barrier will be used?

A

For each stack of ten pallets.

56
Q

A complete set of air cargo pallets consist of?

A

Two side nets and one top net.

57
Q

What is the usual classification of special instructions (SPINS)?

A

Secret.

58
Q

Which supervisory measurement area is concerned with airman’s time?

A

Managing resources.

59
Q

What is the classification of a mishap that results in hospitalizing three or more people?

A

Class B.

60
Q

Who develops the Air Force master lesson plans for aircrew flight equipment continuation training?

A

Aircrew flight equipment career development course writer.

61
Q

From whom does the unit receive the air tasking order?

A

Combined air crew and space operations center (CAOC)

62
Q

Which type of unit type codes (UTCs) information includes primary mission aircraft inventory (PMAI) Mission prefix mission basic number and design series?

A

Aviation.

63
Q

What product or system identifies pilot units?

A

Man power and equipment force packages (MEFPAK)

64
Q

Who is responsible for developing and managing standard manpower and or logistics detail for each unit type code (UTC) for which it has been assigned responsibility?

A

Pilot units.

65
Q

In a resource - constrained environment over/under production?

A

reduces overall effectiveness.

66
Q

Who is responsible for reviewing personalized lesson plans used to conduct aircrew flight equipment continuation training?

A

Aircrew flight equipment superintendent (AFES) or flight equipment officer (FEO)?

67
Q

Who establishes the guidelines for assignment of aircrew flight equipment continuation training instructors (AFECTIs)?

A

Major command function officer.

68
Q

Which document is prepared by a parent major command (MAJCOM) that contains the units identification mission tasking narrative mission specifics and measurable resources?

A

Designed operational capability (DOC) statement.

69
Q

Which communication capability is required for the aircrew flight equipment superintendent to respond to classified correspondence both home station and at deployed locations?

A

Secure internet protocol router (SIPR) Account.

70
Q

What is the classification of a mishap for any nonfatal injury or occupational illness that does not meet the definition of lost time?

A

Class D.

71
Q

Which system provides Air Force planners access to data that is Air Force unique?

A

Deliberate and crisis action planning and execution system (DCAPES).

72
Q

Trainers are selected based upon?

A

Their experience and ability to provide instruction to trainees.