Volume III Flashcards

1
Q

At least how many shipper declaration forms for dangerous goods are necessary when shipping hazardous material?

A

Three.

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2
Q

When an attack is imminent personnel should?

A

Seek immediate cover and then don’t protective equipment.

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3
Q

During which phase will aircrew flight equipment process aircrew members through the aircrew contamination control area (ACCA)?

A

Post-attack.

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4
Q

Which is a process of identifying analyzing and controlling critical information indicating actions associated with military operations and other activities?

A

Operations security (OPSEC).

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5
Q

Critical information that may be derived from seemingly unrelated elements of information is known as?

A

Indicators.

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6
Q

Which of these must be protected under crypto security components of communications security (COMSEC)?

A

Secure telephone or facsimile equipment.

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7
Q

Which program is defined as the investigation study and control of compromising emanating from telecommunications and automated information system equipment?

A

TEMPEST.

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8
Q

What changes the classification of a personal identification number (PIN)?

A

Directly associating the PIN with a specific device.

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9
Q

If a top secret telephone calls a secret telephone what is displayed on both devices?

A

Secret.

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10
Q

An air tasking order (ATO) directs how airpower assets will be used for the next?

A

Twenty four hours.

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11
Q

What is a concept of operation (CONOPS) designed to provide?

A

Overall picture of the operations.

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12
Q

Who is responsible for ensuring that personnel who may be tasked to fill positions on aircrew contamination control area (ACCA) team remain fully qualified in ACCA functions at all times?

A

Supervisors.

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13
Q

During ○2 use which portion of the aircrew eye respiratory protection (AERP) system provides a positive pressure condition in the MBU-19/P hood?

A

CQU-7/P blower.

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14
Q

What is the primary purpose of the tear away system of the eye respiratory protection (AERP) mask?

A

Prevent drowning.

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15
Q

The hose and tether lengths for the CQU-7/P blower very based on the specific aircraft application and?

A

Seat location.

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16
Q

What size battery powers the MXU-835/P?

A

9-volt.

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17
Q

Which position on the MXU-835/P communication subsystem allows communications transmission and receipt through the speaker and microphone?

A

Third position.

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18
Q

What position on the MXU-835/P communication subsystem is listen only?

A

Second position.

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19
Q

By what part of an inch must the edges overlap when repairing tears on the crue-66/P aircrew chemical ensemble?

A

1/4 inch.

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20
Q

How many modes of operation does the aircrew eye respiratory protection (AERP) system have?

A

Four positions.

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21
Q

A CQU-7/P blower failure is indicated to the wearer by?

A

The loss of lens dentist and the increased breathing resistance.

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22
Q

In a contaminated situation which item should be donned first?

A

Mask and blower unit.

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23
Q

When donning the helmet with the aircrew eye respiratory protection (AERP) system which locking position is the bayonet inserted?

A

Second position.

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24
Q

How should the aircrew eye respiratory protection (ACCA) tear-away pull knobs be positioned when you wear them?

A

Under the lower harness straps.

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25
When setting up an aircrew contamination control area (ACCA) once the constant wind direction is determined the processing direction is established at a?
45-60 degrees deviation (angle) towards the wind direction.
26
Who is responsible for dividing manpower into groups or teams by color when setting up an aircrew contamination control area (ACCA)?
ACCA Manager.
27
Which portion of the aircrew contamination control area (ACCA) is intended to remove and secure all classified information or materiel?
Area One, Station One.
28
How many M295s will the attendant use when performing the decon pat down process?
As many as necessary.
29
Which supervisory measure is concerned with training?
Leading people.
30
Who is responsible for developing a rotation plan to ensure all assigned aircrew flight equipment (AFE) technicians are trained and remain proficient in all AFE sections within the work center?
AFE Superintendent.
31
Supervisors report training deficiencies on skills taught in the initial skills course through?
Customer service information line (CSIL).
32
What recurring training program frequency is required for infrequently maintained systems?
Six - Month.
33
When possible who should correct all quality control (QC) noted discrepancies?
Original technician.
34
Who designates in-process inspection (IPI) personnel by appointment letter when the unit does not have access to an automated special certification roster (SCR)?
Unit commander.
35
Who may waive the 7-level requirement for a SSgt or senior airman to clear red-x discrepancies based on their experience and technical expertise?
First O-6 in the chain of command.
36
What weekly quantity of repacked parachute assemblies require quality control inspection (QCI)?
100%.
37
How are in-process inspections (IPI) documented?
On locally developed forms.
38
Which Air Force instruction sets the minimum requirements for developing and implementing the aircrew flight equipment continuation training program/
11-301 volume 1 aircrew flight equipment (AFE) program.
39
How often must aircrew flight equipment continuation training (AFECT) lesson plans be reviewed?
Annually.
40
Which AFE continuation training event is focused on making sure a comprehensive fit check is completed on all aircrew flight equipment items worn during flight in ejection seat aircraft?
LL07.
41
How are aircrew flight equipment fit checks documented?
Documented on AF Form 1522 ARMS additional training accomplishment report.
42
Which aircrew flight equipment continuation training event is required for all aircrew before their first flight?
LL01.
43
What percentage of aircrew participants in subsequent aircrew chemical biological radiological and nuclear training classes must dress-out and demonstrate aircrew contamination control area processing procedures?
10%
44
Which aircrew flight equipment continuation training event includes aircrew clothing items and information on hazards associated with improper wear and failure to only authorized clothing and equipment items?
LL06.
45
The equipment used for aircrew flight equipment continuation training must be clearly marked?
FOR TRAINING USE ONLY.
46
How frequent are inspections conducted on all aircrew flight equipment training devices and aids to ensure they are current and safe for training use?
Annually.
47
What is the purpose of mishap investigations?
Prevent future mishaps.
48
Who determines the depth of investigative effort required for each mishap?
Convening authority.
49
How many days of bare base operations in support of contingency and wartime missions must logistics details(LOGDET) sustain?
Thirty days.
50
How frequent are reviews of change proposals sent to all non-pilot units for review in comment resolution matrix (CRM) for adjudication?
Biennially.
51
How many sections are designed operational capability (DOC) statement divided?
Six Sections.
52
A limited factor is a?
Factor or condition that either temporarily or permanently impedes mission accomplishment and requires the aid of higher headquarters to resolve.
53
Who should be one of the first to deploy on the advanced echelon team?
Experienced AFE supervisors.
54
How many pounds can each ring on a 463L pallet restrain?
7,500 Lbs.
55
When pallets are stored outside a plastic barrier will be used?
For each stack of ten pallets.
56
A complete set of air cargo pallets consist of?
Two side nets and one top net.
57
What is the usual classification of special instructions (SPINS)?
Secret.
58
Which supervisory measurement area is concerned with airman's time?
Managing resources.
59
What is the classification of a mishap that results in hospitalizing three or more people?
Class B.
60
Who develops the Air Force master lesson plans for aircrew flight equipment continuation training?
Aircrew flight equipment career development course writer.
61
From whom does the unit receive the air tasking order?
Combined air crew and space operations center (CAOC)
62
Which type of unit type codes (UTCs) information includes primary mission aircraft inventory (PMAI) Mission prefix mission basic number and design series?
Aviation.
63
What product or system identifies pilot units?
Man power and equipment force packages (MEFPAK)
64
Who is responsible for developing and managing standard manpower and or logistics detail for each unit type code (UTC) for which it has been assigned responsibility?
Pilot units.
65
In a resource - constrained environment over/under production?
reduces overall effectiveness.
66
Who is responsible for reviewing personalized lesson plans used to conduct aircrew flight equipment continuation training?
Aircrew flight equipment superintendent (AFES) or flight equipment officer (FEO)?
67
Who establishes the guidelines for assignment of aircrew flight equipment continuation training instructors (AFECTIs)?
Major command function officer.
68
Which document is prepared by a parent major command (MAJCOM) that contains the units identification mission tasking narrative mission specifics and measurable resources?
Designed operational capability (DOC) statement.
69
Which communication capability is required for the aircrew flight equipment superintendent to respond to classified correspondence both home station and at deployed locations?
Secure internet protocol router (SIPR) Account.
70
What is the classification of a mishap for any nonfatal injury or occupational illness that does not meet the definition of lost time?
Class D.
71
Which system provides Air Force planners access to data that is Air Force unique?
Deliberate and crisis action planning and execution system (DCAPES).
72
Trainers are selected based upon?
Their experience and ability to provide instruction to trainees.