Volume II Flashcards

1
Q

What is used to initially inflate the F-2B life rafts main flotation tubes?

A

CO2 and nitrogen (CO2N2).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

When inflated what shape is the 35-man life raft?

A

Decagon.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

How many people is the LRU-33/A life raft designed to hold?

A

Twenty people.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

The C-5 crew type escape slide is constructed of?

A

Urethane-coated nylon.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is the maximum time it should take for the KC-135 escape slide to inflate to its designated shape?

A

Ten seconds.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

The KC-135 type escape slide is packed into?

A

An envelope type container.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

How often do KC-135 discharge valve assemblies require replacement or overhauling?

A

Eight years old or eight years since last overhaul.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is the main difference between the C-5 and KC-135 cylinder inspections?

A

Inspection or test.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Which type of personnel parachute allows crew members to move about the aircraft to perform their duties?

A

Chest style.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

The maximum number of airspeed knots that an advanced concept ejection seat (Aces) II system can operate at is?

A

Six hundred knots.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What are the three major components of the back automatic parachute?

A

Canopy, pack and harness, automatic ripcord release.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

How many inches in diameter is the MA-1 pilot parachute canopy?

A

30 inches

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

The C-9 canopys characteristics are best described as a?

A

Multicolored 28-feet diameter flat circular canopy.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What size and type of material is used to construct the C-9 canopy on the pilots parachute?

A

1.1 ounce rip-stop nylon

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

The purpose of the parachute pack on the C-9 canopy is to?

A

Serve as a container for the canopy, Pilot chute and suspension lines.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is the time delay for the reefing line cutters to fire on the ACES II parachute?

A

1.15 seconds.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

The purpose of the morter assembly on the ACES II parachute is to?

A

Pull the parachute container assembly away from the seat.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

During the deployment of the ACES II droque parachute when is the droque parachute released?

A

0.15 seconds before the recovery parachute morter fired.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

How many inches is the deployment yoke on the ACES II droque parachute?

A

9.5 inches

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Which back automatic (BA) parachute model is used for smaller framed crew members?

A

BA-29 model.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Which back automatic (BA) parachute is used for premeditated jumps?

A

B-22Z model

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What keeps the automatic back parachute quarter deployment bag in the pack during deployment until three quarters of the canopy has deployed?

A

Canopy thong tacking.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

The purpose of the dummy cartridge contained in the Scot release is to?

A

Test the firing pin action.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Within what preset altitude range is the Scot automatic release unit?

A

14,000 Ft +/- 1,000 Ft.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
A red streamer installed on a back-style parachute means it?
Has a one second automatic ripcord release time-delay device.
26
While in training mode the cybernetic parachute release system (CYPRES) updates the ground pressure value every?
30 seconds.
27
What is the recommended rate of descent when using the personnel-lowering device?
Two to three FPS.
28
When used for C-5A/B and C-17 aircraft how long is the HBU-6/P safety strap (+0/-1 inches to support material shrinkage) to include buckle assembly hardware is required?
18 feet 6 inches.
29
The basic HGU-5S/P helmet shell incorprates the leather edge roll and lens stop to aid in retention of lightweight visor and?
Prevents scarring of the helmet surface.
30
What does the high speed visor incorporate to provide friction that will hold the visor in up to 600 knots equivalent air speed (KEAS) ?
Specially designed rubber edge roll cover.
31
The combat edge bladder is inflated when the aircraft exceeds?
+ 4Gs.
32
Which component of the joint helmet mounted cueing system (JHMCS) provides the various symbologies that are projected onto the visor?
Cathode ray tube (CRT).
33
Which component of the joint helmet mounted cueing system(JHMCS)is mounted to the structure of the display unit(HDU)providing an electric signal representative of the pilots head position?
Magnetic receiver unit (MRU).
34
How are the extra small (xs) and extra-extra small (xxs) HGU-5s/p helmet sizes accommodated to the aircrew members?
Use a thicker liner.
35
The nape strap pad is secured to the helmet shell on the HGU-56/p helmet by using a?
Tie-down strap.
36
What is the purpose of the skeleton shroud on the future assult shell technology (FAST) helmet?
Provide a front mounting option for attaching night vision devices.
37
What is the only authorized color for all additional attachments to the accessory rail connector (ARC) rails?
Urban tan.
38
Which subassembly of a night vision goggle is responsible for filtering out certain wavelengths of light?
Objective lens.
39
Which night vision goggle assembly incorporates diopter adjustments that allow the image to adjust to variations in the users eyesight?
Eye piece lens.
40
What does the (V) indicate when referring to the AN/AVS-9 (V) aviator night vision goggles (NVG)?
That there are many versions in service.
41
Which solution may be used to clean night vision goggles?
Isopropyl alcohol.
42
What wattage light bulb is used for a night vision goggles (NVG) test lane?
7.
43
How many degrees horizontal is the field of view (FOV) for AN/AVS-10 (V) panoramic night vision goggles ( PNVG)?
95.
44
Which assembly of the panoramic night vision goggles (PNVG)houses the adjustment mechanism for interpupillary distance adjustment(IPD)for and aft adjusemt and the tilt adj. mechanism?
Bridge.
45
Which aircrew laser eye protection (ALEP) devices lenses are housed in a low pro wrap frame?
Joint helmet mounted cueing system (JHMES) ALEP spectacles ( JCAS).
46
Which is used to modify the MIL-G-635 goggles for integration with helmets and oxygen masks?
KMU-229/P.
47
If the thermal radiation curtain is closed and the flash decider curtain is not erected the peephole cover must be?
In Place.
48
Which ailment is a type of decompression sickness that causes gases to return to their original state forming bubbles in the body because of reduction in atmospheric pressure?
Evolved gases.
49
What color are low-pressure oxygen cylinders?
Yellow.
50
The continuous-flow oxygen system provides sufficient oxygen for flight up to a maximum altitude of how many feet?
30,000 Ft.
51
The diamond oxygen system provides oxygen for flight up to a maximum altitude of how many feet?
35,000
52
What type of manifold is the CRU-60/P oxygen connector?
Three -way.
53
Which part of the CRU-120/P provides system overpressure protection for the aircrew member when the vest is not being worn or has been inadvertently disconnected?
Pressure relief valve.
54
The regulated portion of the CRU-120/P regulated connector (RC) reduces the emergency oxygen pressure and?
Provides positive pressure breathing.
55
The CRU-122/P is qualified for flights up to a maximum altitude of how many feet?
60,000
56
What is the maximum pressure relief valve allows to the pilots mask?
80 MM HG.
57
The individual harness adjustment straps are attached to the MBU-12/P oxygen mask with?
Capped tee nuts and a self-locking screw.
58
On the MBU-12/P oxygen mask what difference in pressure compared to that supplied by the oxygen system is required to open the valve and allow exhaled air to pass to the atmosphere?
1mm HG greater.
59
The MBU-20/P oxygen mask provides for operations up to?
+9G's.
60
What is the difference between the MBU-20/P and the MBU-20A/P oxygen mask?
Breathing hose.
61
With the quick -don Scot 358 oxygen mask how is the face piece held to the weares face?
Spring loaded telescoping mounts on the suspension assembly.
62
Which major component of protective breathing equipment (PBE) is powered by the oxygen generator and circulates the breathing gas within the system loop?
Venture "pumping" arrangement.
63
How many minutes is the protective breathing equipment (PBE) rated to operate?
15 Minutes.
64
Without adjustment what neck sizes does the emergency pressure oxygen (EPOS) neck seal fit?
11-19 Inches.
65
If needed during flight where should the emergency passenger oxygen system (EPOS) placed on infants to protect them from smoke,fumes,or lack of oxygen?
Waist.
66
The entire donning and activation sequince should take less than?
15 Seconds.
67
Approximately how long can a passenger weighing 154LBS expect to receive respiratory protection while at light to moderate activity?
20 Minutes.
68
How long is the emergency passenger oxygen system (EPOS) unit service life from date of manufacturing as long as 5he protective pouch has not been compromised ?
10 years 6 months.
69
The purpose of the breathing valves located on in the valve body of the passenger oxygen system mask is to?
Provide an anchor for the head strap.
70
On the CWU-16/P which pocket is the inflatable hood attached?
Right hand.
71
Why do the tops if the CWU -67/P socks extend to the flight boots when they are connected to the CWU -74/P anti-exposure coverall?
Reduce bulk and restriction.
72
How many sizes do the CWU-86/P and CWU-87/P flyers anti-exposure coveralls come in for women?
24 Sizes.
73
When the VIA -13 B/P anti-gravity garment is disconnected from an aircraft in a pressurized condition in excess of 1.5 pounds per square inch (PSI) the bladders automatically bleed down to?
1.5 PSI in 4 seconds.
74
How many sizes does the CSU-17/P vest assembly come In?
4 sizes.
75
What is the primary difference between the versions of advanced concept ejection seat 11 (ACES11) survival kits?
an auxiliary kit container.
76
When selecting either automatic or manual deployment modes for the advanced concept ejection seat 11 (ACES11)survival kit, the kit deployment selector will be located on the seat pan at the?
Right forward edge.
77
How is closure accomplished on ML-4 survival kit?
Snap fasteners along each side and slide fasteners along the front.
78
Where is the slide fastener release lanyard located on the ML-4 container?
Right front edge.
79
To prevent duplication of items who can approve deviations from requirements listed in the technical order if like components are installed in survival vests or multi-place life raft kits?
Owning MAJCOM.
80
The primary means of closing Air Ace survival vests exterior pockets is a slide fasteners and the secondary closure method is?
Two metal snaps to secure covering flap.
81
The AIRSAVE vest is intended to be worn over the top of The?
Torso harness.
82
What is the size stencil used to mark the aircrew body armor (ABA) with local control number?
1/2 Inch.
83
What stroke rate must be used with the survivor 06 to produce optimum pressure within the system?
30 to 40 strokes per minute.
84
What is the maximum visible range the MK-13 flare can be seen at night?
30 miles.
85
As an air crew flight equipment journeyman working with the combat survivor/Evader locator (CSEL) radio program, your major area of responsibility will be The?
user segment.
86
What component part on LRU-16/P Primarily reduces life raft drift?
Sea anchor.
87
The cosmisheskaya systyema Poiska avariynish sudov-search and rescue satellite assisted tracking (COSPAS-SARSAT) is a ?
One-way dedicated search and rescue (SAR) system operated t the US, Russia, France, and Canada to provide global coverage.
88
The AN/PRC-112 BI radio acts as a transponder supplying?
Bearing and distance ranging Pulses and Personnel ID information.
89
What beacon megahertz (MHZ) frequencies does the AN/PRC-112 series radio contain?
121.5 and 243 MHZ.
90
On what two megahertz (MHZ) frequencies can the URT-44 provide homing signals?
121.5 MHZ and 243 MHZ.
91
What is the flash rate for the MS-2,000 M strobe lights?
50 + 10 flashes per minute.
92
After the 10 minute flash rate test has been completed on the MS-2000M what is the length of subsequent flash rate tests?
2 minutes.
93
When fitting the LPU-10/P life preserver to an aircrew where are the containers placed?
Bellow the armpits.
94
What color are the bladders if the LPU-38/P life preserver?
Yellow with a black cover.
95
How is the tracking of the excess straps on the LPU -38/P secured?
Surgeons knot and locking knot.
96
What is used to secure the adjustment straps when the LPU -38/P is used temporarily?
Masking tape.
97
How many primary inflators are on the A-A-50652 life preservers?
Two singles.
98
Where does the crewmembers board the LRU-16/P life raft?
The stern.
99
How is the oral inflation tube on LRU-16/P flotation tube identified?
The tube is either solid red or has red tape wrapped around it.