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AIR CREW FLIGHT EQUIPMENT > Volume II > Flashcards

Volume II Flashcards

1
Q

What is used to initially inflate the F-2B life rafts main flotation tubes?

A

CO2 and nitrogen (CO2N2).

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2
Q

When inflated what shape is the 35-man life raft?

A

Decagon.

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3
Q

How many people is the LRU-33/A life raft designed to hold?

A

Twenty people.

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4
Q

The C-5 crew type escape slide is constructed of?

A

Urethane-coated nylon.

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5
Q

What is the maximum time it should take for the KC-135 escape slide to inflate to its designated shape?

A

Ten seconds.

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6
Q

The KC-135 type escape slide is packed into?

A

An envelope type container.

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7
Q

How often do KC-135 discharge valve assemblies require replacement or overhauling?

A

Eight years old or eight years since last overhaul.

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8
Q

What is the main difference between the C-5 and KC-135 cylinder inspections?

A

Inspection or test.

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9
Q

Which type of personnel parachute allows crew members to move about the aircraft to perform their duties?

A

Chest style.

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10
Q

The maximum number of airspeed knots that an advanced concept ejection seat (Aces) II system can operate at is?

A

Six hundred knots.

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11
Q

What are the three major components of the back automatic parachute?

A

Canopy, pack and harness, automatic ripcord release.

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12
Q

How many inches in diameter is the MA-1 pilot parachute canopy?

A

30 inches

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13
Q

The C-9 canopys characteristics are best described as a?

A

Multicolored 28-feet diameter flat circular canopy.

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14
Q

What size and type of material is used to construct the C-9 canopy on the pilots parachute?

A

1.1 ounce rip-stop nylon

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15
Q

The purpose of the parachute pack on the C-9 canopy is to?

A

Serve as a container for the canopy, Pilot chute and suspension lines.

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16
Q

What is the time delay for the reefing line cutters to fire on the ACES II parachute?

A

1.15 seconds.

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17
Q

The purpose of the morter assembly on the ACES II parachute is to?

A

Pull the parachute container assembly away from the seat.

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18
Q

During the deployment of the ACES II droque parachute when is the droque parachute released?

A

0.15 seconds before the recovery parachute morter fired.

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19
Q

How many inches is the deployment yoke on the ACES II droque parachute?

A

9.5 inches

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20
Q

Which back automatic (BA) parachute model is used for smaller framed crew members?

A

BA-29 model.

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21
Q

Which back automatic (BA) parachute is used for premeditated jumps?

A

B-22Z model

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22
Q

What keeps the automatic back parachute quarter deployment bag in the pack during deployment until three quarters of the canopy has deployed?

A

Canopy thong tacking.

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23
Q

The purpose of the dummy cartridge contained in the Scot release is to?

A

Test the firing pin action.

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24
Q

Within what preset altitude range is the Scot automatic release unit?

A

14,000 Ft +/- 1,000 Ft.

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25
Q

A red streamer installed on a back-style parachute means it?

A

Has a one second automatic ripcord release time-delay device.

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26
Q

While in training mode the cybernetic parachute release system (CYPRES) updates the ground pressure value every?

A

30 seconds.

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27
Q

What is the recommended rate of descent when using the personnel-lowering device?

A

Two to three FPS.

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28
Q

When used for C-5A/B and C-17 aircraft how long is the HBU-6/P safety strap (+0/-1 inches to support material shrinkage) to include buckle assembly hardware is required?

A

18 feet 6 inches.

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29
Q

The basic HGU-5S/P helmet shell incorprates the leather edge roll and lens stop to aid in retention of lightweight visor and?

A

Prevents scarring of the helmet surface.

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30
Q

What does the high speed visor incorporate to provide friction that will hold the visor in up to 600 knots equivalent air speed (KEAS) ?

A

Specially designed rubber edge roll cover.

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31
Q

The combat edge bladder is inflated when the aircraft exceeds?

A

+ 4Gs.

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32
Q

Which component of the joint helmet mounted cueing system (JHMCS) provides the various symbologies that are projected onto the visor?

A

Cathode ray tube (CRT).

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33
Q

Which component of the joint helmet mounted cueing system(JHMCS)is mounted to the structure of the display unit(HDU)providing an electric signal representative of the pilots head position?

A

Magnetic receiver unit (MRU).

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34
Q

How are the extra small (xs) and extra-extra small (xxs) HGU-5s/p helmet sizes accommodated to the aircrew members?

A

Use a thicker liner.

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35
Q

The nape strap pad is secured to the helmet shell on the HGU-56/p helmet by using a?

A

Tie-down strap.

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36
Q

What is the purpose of the skeleton shroud on the future assult shell technology (FAST) helmet?

A

Provide a front mounting option for attaching night vision devices.

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37
Q

What is the only authorized color for all additional attachments to the accessory rail connector (ARC) rails?

A

Urban tan.

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38
Q

Which subassembly of a night vision goggle is responsible for filtering out certain wavelengths of light?

A

Objective lens.

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39
Q

Which night vision goggle assembly incorporates diopter adjustments that allow the image to adjust to variations in the users eyesight?

A

Eye piece lens.

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40
Q

What does the (V) indicate when referring to the AN/AVS-9 (V) aviator night vision goggles (NVG)?

A

That there are many versions in service.

41
Q

Which solution may be used to clean night vision goggles?

A

Isopropyl alcohol.

42
Q

What wattage light bulb is used for a night vision goggles (NVG) test lane?

A

7.

43
Q

How many degrees horizontal is the field of view (FOV) for AN/AVS-10 (V) panoramic night vision goggles ( PNVG)?

A

95.

44
Q

Which assembly of the panoramic night vision goggles (PNVG)houses the adjustment mechanism for interpupillary distance adjustment(IPD)for and aft adjusemt and the tilt adj. mechanism?

A

Bridge.

45
Q

Which aircrew laser eye protection (ALEP) devices lenses are housed in a low pro wrap frame?

A

Joint helmet mounted cueing system (JHMES) ALEP spectacles ( JCAS).

46
Q

Which is used to modify the MIL-G-635 goggles for integration with helmets and oxygen masks?

A

KMU-229/P.

47
Q

If the thermal radiation curtain is closed and the flash decider curtain is not erected the peephole cover must be?

A

In Place.

48
Q

Which ailment is a type of decompression sickness that causes gases to return to their original state forming bubbles in the body because of reduction in atmospheric pressure?

A

Evolved gases.

49
Q

What color are low-pressure oxygen cylinders?

A

Yellow.

50
Q

The continuous-flow oxygen system provides sufficient oxygen for flight up to a maximum altitude of how many feet?

A

30,000 Ft.

51
Q

The diamond oxygen system provides oxygen for flight up to a maximum altitude of how many feet?

A

35,000

52
Q

What type of manifold is the CRU-60/P oxygen connector?

A

Three -way.

53
Q

Which part of the CRU-120/P provides system overpressure protection for the aircrew member when the vest is not being worn or has been inadvertently disconnected?

A

Pressure relief valve.

54
Q

The regulated portion of the CRU-120/P regulated connector (RC) reduces the emergency oxygen pressure and?

A

Provides positive pressure breathing.

55
Q

The CRU-122/P is qualified for flights up to a maximum altitude of how many feet?

A

60,000

56
Q

What is the maximum pressure relief valve allows to the pilots mask?

A

80 MM HG.

57
Q

The individual harness adjustment straps are attached to the MBU-12/P oxygen mask with?

A

Capped tee nuts and a self-locking screw.

58
Q

On the MBU-12/P oxygen mask what difference in pressure compared to that supplied by the oxygen system is required to open the valve and allow exhaled air to pass to the atmosphere?

A

1mm HG greater.

59
Q

The MBU-20/P oxygen mask provides for operations up to?

A

+9G’s.

60
Q

What is the difference between the MBU-20/P and the MBU-20A/P oxygen mask?

A

Breathing hose.

61
Q

With the quick -don Scot 358 oxygen mask how is the face piece held to the weares face?

A

Spring loaded telescoping mounts on the suspension assembly.

62
Q

Which major component of protective breathing equipment (PBE) is powered by the oxygen generator and circulates the breathing gas within the system loop?

A

Venture “pumping” arrangement.

63
Q

How many minutes is the protective breathing equipment (PBE) rated to operate?

A

15 Minutes.

64
Q

Without adjustment what neck sizes does the emergency pressure oxygen (EPOS) neck seal fit?

A

11-19 Inches.

65
Q

If needed during flight where should the emergency passenger oxygen system (EPOS) placed on infants to protect them from smoke,fumes,or lack of oxygen?

A

Waist.

66
Q

The entire donning and activation sequince should take less than?

A

15 Seconds.

67
Q

Approximately how long can a passenger weighing 154LBS expect to receive respiratory protection while at light to moderate activity?

A

20 Minutes.

68
Q

How long is the emergency passenger oxygen system (EPOS) unit service life from date of manufacturing as long as 5he protective pouch has not been compromised ?

A

10 years 6 months.

69
Q

The purpose of the breathing valves located on in the valve body of the passenger oxygen system mask is to?

A

Provide an anchor for the head strap.

70
Q

On the CWU-16/P which pocket is the inflatable hood attached?

A

Right hand.

71
Q

Why do the tops if the CWU -67/P socks extend to the flight boots when they are connected to the CWU -74/P anti-exposure coverall?

A

Reduce bulk and restriction.

72
Q

How many sizes do the CWU-86/P and CWU-87/P flyers anti-exposure coveralls come in for women?

A

24 Sizes.

73
Q

When the VIA -13 B/P anti-gravity garment is disconnected from an aircraft in a pressurized condition in excess of 1.5 pounds per square inch (PSI) the bladders automatically bleed down to?

A

1.5 PSI in 4 seconds.

74
Q

How many sizes does the CSU-17/P vest assembly come In?

A

4 sizes.

75
Q

What is the primary difference between the versions of advanced concept ejection seat 11 (ACES11) survival kits?

A

an auxiliary kit container.

76
Q

When selecting either automatic or manual deployment modes for the advanced concept ejection seat 11 (ACES11)survival kit, the kit deployment selector will be located on the seat pan at the?

A

Right forward edge.

77
Q

How is closure accomplished on ML-4 survival kit?

A

Snap fasteners along each side and slide fasteners along the front.

78
Q

Where is the slide fastener release lanyard located on the ML-4 container?

A

Right front edge.

79
Q

To prevent duplication of items who can approve deviations from requirements listed in the technical order if like components are installed in survival vests or multi-place life raft kits?

A

Owning MAJCOM.

80
Q

The primary means of closing Air Ace survival vests exterior pockets is a slide fasteners and the secondary closure method is?

A

Two metal snaps to secure covering flap.

81
Q

The AIRSAVE vest is intended to be worn over the top of The?

A

Torso harness.

82
Q

What is the size stencil used to mark the aircrew body armor (ABA) with local control number?

A

1/2 Inch.

83
Q

What stroke rate must be used with the survivor 06 to produce optimum pressure within the system?

A

30 to 40 strokes per minute.

84
Q

What is the maximum visible range the MK-13 flare can be seen at night?

A

30 miles.

85
Q

As an air crew flight equipment journeyman working with the combat survivor/Evader locator (CSEL) radio program, your major area of responsibility will be The?

A

user segment.

86
Q

What component part on LRU-16/P Primarily reduces life raft drift?

A

Sea anchor.

87
Q

The cosmisheskaya systyema Poiska avariynish sudov-search and rescue satellite assisted tracking (COSPAS-SARSAT) is a ?

A

One-way dedicated search and rescue (SAR) system operated t the US, Russia, France, and Canada to provide global coverage.

88
Q

The AN/PRC-112 BI radio acts as a transponder supplying?

A

Bearing and distance ranging Pulses and Personnel ID information.

89
Q

What beacon megahertz (MHZ) frequencies does the AN/PRC-112 series radio contain?

A

121.5 and 243 MHZ.

90
Q

On what two megahertz (MHZ) frequencies can the URT-44 provide homing signals?

A

121.5 MHZ and 243 MHZ.

91
Q

What is the flash rate for the MS-2,000 M strobe lights?

A

50 + 10 flashes per minute.

92
Q

After the 10 minute flash rate test has been completed on the MS-2000M what is the length of subsequent flash rate tests?

A

2 minutes.

93
Q

When fitting the LPU-10/P life preserver to an aircrew where are the containers placed?

A

Bellow the armpits.

94
Q

What color are the bladders if the LPU-38/P life preserver?

A

Yellow with a black cover.

95
Q

How is the tracking of the excess straps on the LPU -38/P secured?

A

Surgeons knot and locking knot.

96
Q

What is used to secure the adjustment straps when the LPU -38/P is used temporarily?

A

Masking tape.

97
Q

How many primary inflators are on the A-A-50652 life preservers?

A

Two singles.

98
Q

Where does the crewmembers board the LRU-16/P life raft?

A

The stern.

99
Q

How is the oral inflation tube on LRU-16/P flotation tube identified?

A

The tube is either solid red or has red tape wrapped around it.

AIR CREW FLIGHT EQUIPMENT (3 decks)

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