Volume II, 201.03, 201.04 2, 202.01, 202.2A, 202.2C, 202.03A, 202.05 Flashcards

1
Q

What is the purpose of accountability (this procedure)?

A

-to account for all FF operating in the hot zone

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2
Q

What is the hot zone defined as?

A

-any area that requires an SCBA

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3
Q

The purpose of the Accountability procedure identifies a?

A

-a system of incident site accountability

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4
Q

This system will provide the Incident Command Team/Sector Officers/Divisions/Groups and command a means of?

A

-tracking the location and function of FF on the scene

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5
Q

Each person whether at the _____, _____ or _____ of an incident must make a strong commitment to follow all policies and procedures regarding accountability

A

-Strategic, Tactical, Task

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6
Q

What does Command/Strategic address in regards to accountability?

A
  • addresses the strategic level of accountability by tracking all crews and S/D/G
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7
Q

What must Command obtain from all S/D/G?

A

-PARs (personal accountability report)

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8
Q

What does S/D/G/ Tactical address in regards to accountability?

A

-addresses the tactical level of accountability by tracking the location and function of crews assigned to their Sector

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9
Q

What must all S/D/G obtain from all crewmembers of all companies assigned to his/her division?

A

-PARs

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10
Q

What does Company Officer/Task address in regards to accountability?

A

-addresses the task level of accountability and must know where each FF is located and what each FF is doing

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11
Q

What are 5 things a company officer must maintain/ensure before/during/after an incident?

A
  • maintain current PASSPORT, MCT Roster, Proper Helmet ID Tags/SCBA name tags, maintain air supply of crew, delivery and retrieval of passports
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12
Q

An Engineer is accountable for?

A
  • track crews/crew members who take hand lines from apparatus
  • collecting Passports prior to hot zone
  • placing Passports on discharge gate
  • place hoseline ID tags on each hoseline
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13
Q

A FF is accountable for?

A
  • Proper company ID on helmet
  • Name Tag on passport
  • Stay with crew at all times
  • Maintain constant awareness of Air/Exit supply
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14
Q

Minimum crew size will be considered?

A

-Two or more members

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15
Q

What consists of accountability equipment for each truck?

A

-a passport (3x4”), pouch with small company ID tags, helmet ID stickers, Hose ID tag

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16
Q

Before entering the hot zone, a company officer must ensure?

A

-His/her passport reflects only those entering hot zone

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17
Q

Implementation of the PASSPORT system will occur on any incident that?

A

-requires the use of an SCBA

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18
Q

Do Passports ever enter the hot zone?

A

-NO

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19
Q

Where is an engines passport accountability location?

A

-the engine where your crew deployed their hoseline

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20
Q

What is given in an On-scene follow up report in regards to accountability?

A

-the accountability unit id and geographical location (N, S, E, W)

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21
Q

What is placed on discharge gate at the pump panel?

A

-Units passports, passport pouch, and hoseline id tags

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22
Q

What does the ladder do with their Passport when going to roof?

A

-leave on apparatus dash

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23
Q

What does the ladder do with their Passport when going interior (salvage, etc)?

A

-deliver Passport to closest engine to their point of entry

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24
Q

A Passport remains on pump panel/discharge gate until?

A

-A Company officer retrieves it upon exit of the hot zone

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25
Q

What does a back-up accountability kit include?

A

-3 blank hoseline id tags, a Passport pouch, a blank passport (Crew IDS), A blank passport with velcro, and a black grease pencil

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26
Q

Accountability CAN be terminated when?

A

-Report of fire under control at which time a PAR is obtained

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27
Q

A PAR is?

A

-Confirmation that all members are accounted for and have adequate exit air supply

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28
Q

T/F Reports of PAR’s should be made face-to-face within S/D/G or company whenever possible?

A

-True

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29
Q

A PAR will be required for which situations?

A

report of missing/trapped FF, change from offensive to defensive, sudden hazardous situation (flashover, etc.), Report of all clear, report under control, 30 min elapse time, any time command feels it is necessary

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30
Q

For multi-story/high rise sit, where do Passports go?

A

-Lobby or Lobby Sector

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31
Q

For multi-story/high rise sit, where does hose line ID tag go?

A

-Hoseline in stairwell with standpipe

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32
Q

If Lobby sector is not established yet, where do Passports go?

A

-Fire personnel in the fire control room

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33
Q

In regards to 2 in / 2 out, when does OHSA state it applies?

A

Once FF’s begin the interior attack on an interior structural fire, the atmosphere is assumed to be IDLH and 2 in / 2 out applies.

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34
Q

What is the Objective of 2 in / 2 out?

A

To have fully equipped FF’s in position during the initial fire attack to react in the event of a Mayday situation.

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35
Q

When is the 2 in / 2 out procedure established on the fire ground?

A

Anytime FF’s are on air inside a structure and no other units have arrived on-scene

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36
Q

What are the 2 standard exceptions to 2 in / 2 out?

A
  • When there is a reported or suspected life hazard where immediate action could prevent the loss of life.
  • When the fire is in incipient stage
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37
Q

What is the OHSA definition of incipient stage fire?

A

-Fire which is in the initial or beginning stage and which can be controlled or extinguished by portable fire extinguishers, Class II standpipe or small hose systems without the need for protective clothing or breathing apparatus.

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38
Q

During the initial deployment of the first in company, what is the only radio communication with regards to 2 in / 2 out?

A

Radio traffic is necessary when standard is not met.

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39
Q

When is the 2 in / 2 out standard met in regards to other units arriving?

A

When the 2nd fire company arrives and is positioned on scene or in level 1 staging

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40
Q

What are the primary member responsibilities in 2 in / 2 out?

A

-Solely dedicated to tracking interior personnel. Their function is to react in a safe and effective manner based on their capabilities and the ability to communicate in the event of a mayday.

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41
Q

When a rescue effort is initiated, it must consist of what?

A

-a 2 member team (Min), and well communicated prior to action

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42
Q

Standard Company operations integrate the efforts of engine, ladder, and rescue companies to achieve what 3 activities?

A

Rescue, Fire Control, Loss Control

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43
Q

What are the standard engine company functions?

A
  • Search and rescue / treatment
  • stretch hoselines
  • operate nozzles
  • pump hoselines
  • loss control
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44
Q

What are the standard ladder company/tender functions?

A
  • search and rescue /treatment - provide lighting
  • ventilate - operate ladder pipes
  • forcible entry - overhaul
  • raise ladders - extrication
  • provide access/check extension - loss control
  • utility control
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45
Q

What are the standard rescue company functions?

A
  • Transport sick and injured to hospital
  • search and rescue/treatment
  • general firefighting duties as assigned by command
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46
Q

What will happen in the absence of a specific piece of apparatus on a fire?

A

-Companies will be assigned by command to perform duties of the other piece of equipment to the best of their capabilities

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47
Q

What is the goal of standard company responsibilities?

A

Represents a standard fireground plan for tactical operations designed to improve the effectiveness and safety of all units working together.

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48
Q

Company Officers will determine, based upon conditions and the ________, the priority
of the functions for their company unless otherwise ordered by Command.

A

-Risk Management Profile

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49
Q

-Standard company operations assign basic fireground functions and activities to companies based upon?

A

the capability and characteristic of each type of unit

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50
Q

How many basic functions does an engine have?

A

-5

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51
Q

-How many basic functions does a ladder/ladder tender have?

A

11

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52
Q

-How many basic functions does a rescue have?

A

3

53
Q

Identify 3 separate tactical objectives that must be completed in order to stabilize any fire situation?

A
  1. Rescue 2. Fire Control 3. Property Conservation
54
Q

What is the Rescue Objective?

A

The activities required to protect occupants, removed those threatened and treat the injured

55
Q

What is the fire control objective?

A

The activities involved to stop forward progress of fire and bring fire under control

56
Q

What is the property conservation objective?

A
  • the activities required to stop or reduce primary or secondary damage to property
57
Q

What is the benchmark of Rescue?

A

Primary Search / All Clear

58
Q

What is the benchmark for Fire Control?

A
  • Under control
59
Q

What is the benchmark for Property Conservation?

A
  • Loss stopped
60
Q

The 3 tactical benchmarks are considered complete when?

A

benchmarks are declared

61
Q

What are the 3 ongoing considerations of the umbrella of service?

A

-FF safety, customer service, Loss Control

62
Q

Continuing efforts of FF safety include which 2 things?

A
  • Physical fitness and mental preparedness
63
Q

Company officers will determine based on _________, the priority of the functions for their company ordered by command

A
  • risk management profile
64
Q

The concept of Loss Control not only addresses salvage and overhaul techniques but also emphasize the importance of _______, _______, _______

A

craftsmanship, pride in professionalism, and compassion

65
Q

FF safety, Customer service, and Loss control take place when?

A

-before, during, and after all emergency responses

66
Q

What is a Primary Search?

A

Companies have quickly gone through all affected areas and verified the removal and / or safety of all occupants

67
Q

What is a Secondary Search?

A

Companies thoroughly search the interior of the fire area after initial fire control and ventilation activities have been completed

68
Q

What is the critical factor in the primary search process?

A

Time

69
Q

What is the critical factor in the secondary search process?

A

Thoroughness

70
Q

What is the standard radio reporting term for completion of primary search?

A

All Clear

71
Q

Who is responsible for coordinating primary search, secure completion reports, & transmit All Clear to Alarm?

A

Command

72
Q

In smoke showing & working fire situations, What is Command’s basic approach to Rescue?

A

Fire control efforts must be extended simultaneously with rescue operations in order to gain entry and control interior access to complete primary search

73
Q

In fully involved structures, What must Command report (concerning rescue)?

A

That he will not report an All Clear. Secondary search will be performed after fire control is achieved

74
Q

What 3 factors must Command consider in developing a basic rescue size-up?

A
  1. Number, location & condition of victims
  2. Affect the fire has on the victims
  3. Capabilities of FF’s to enter, remove victims, & control fire
75
Q

What is the basic rescue decision Command must make?

A

Do we remove victims from fire? OR Do we remove the fire from the victims?

76
Q

What order should rescue efforts be extended?

A
  1. Most severely threatened
  2. The largest number (groups)
  3. The remainder of the fire area
  4. The exposed area
77
Q

All initial attack efforts must be directed toward supporting rescue efforts, and?

A

Hose lines must be placed in a manner to control interior access, confine the fire, & protect avenues of escape

78
Q

What are the normal means of interior access that should be utilized to remove victims?

A

stairs, halls, interior public areas

79
Q

What are secondary means of rescue that should be utilized?

A

platforms, ladders, fire escapes, helicopters, gravity/nets

80
Q

What is the most urgent reason for calling additional alarms?

A

Life safety

81
Q

What is the term May-Day used for?

A

Used by FF’s to report their status as being lost, trapped, or injured and needing rescue.

82
Q

What is the term Emergency Traffic used for?

A
  • Used to report all other emergencies
83
Q

What will Alarm do immediately once a May-Day is called?

A

Upgrade assignment to the next greater alarm with a medical component

84
Q

-If a FF stops communicating in a May-Day situation, What channels do Command need to monitor?

A

Channels 12 & 15, radio to radio channels

85
Q

What will happen when a May-Day is declared on a different Tactical channel?

A

FF must remain on that channel; Alarm will move all other radio traffic to another channel.

86
Q

Who can report a May-Day?

A

Any FF

87
Q

“May Day” term will be used in the following situations?

A
    1. Member who is lost, trapped or in trouble
    1. Company officer, sector officer who cannot account for assigned FF
    1. Any member who witnesses or confirms a FF is lost or in trouble
88
Q

All non-emergency communications will be _______ until the may-day is resolved

A

discontinued

89
Q

Once initial may-day communication has taken place, command must revise the?

A

IAP to provide a high priority rescue effort

90
Q

-May-Day events are low-frequency - _________________?

A

High Stress events

91
Q

Personnel must use caution when placed in the following positions?

A
  • Above the fire
    • Where the fire can move behind them
    • Where sector cannot control position/retreat
    • When involved w/ opposing fire streams
    • Combining interior and exterior fire attacks
    • Limited access—one way in/out
    • Operating under involved roof structures
    • In areas containing hazardous materials
    • Below ground fires
    • Areas where a backdraft potential exists
    • Above/below ground rescue
92
Q

On the fireground, all personnel should be?

A
  • positioned in staging
  • assigned to task or operating in sector
  • when done with task, assigned to resource/staging/rehabilitation sector waiting for reassignment
  • NO FREELANCING
93
Q

-It is the intent of rehab sector to reduce _____ and _____ experienced during difficult operation.

A

Fatigue and trauma

94
Q

How far above the roof line should a ladder be extended?

A

-2’ – 3’

95
Q

When operating in defensive strategy, where should positions be located?

A

-Operating positions should be as far from the involved area as possible while still remaining effective

96
Q

What is Offensive Strategy defined as?

A

-an effective, coordinated interior attack operation directed toward knocking down the fire eliminates most eventual safety problems

97
Q

Where is the optimal area to place a ladder on a building under fire conditions?

A

-Near building corners and firewalls

98
Q

How many escape routes should be established when operating above or below ground?

A

-At least 2 separate routes

99
Q

The Hot Zone will be defined as?

A

Any area that requires SCBA, charged hoseline, special protective clothing, or at which FF’s are at risk of becoming lost, trapped, or injured by environment or structure.

100
Q

The Warm Zone will be defined as?

A

-Just outside of the Hot Zone where FF’s start their operations. If at any time FF’s become threatened this area becomes the Hot Zone

101
Q

The Cold Zone will be defined as?

A

Outside the Warm Zone where no one is at risk because of the incident.

102
Q

-All personnel entering the Hot Zone shall?

A

-Wear full turnouts
-have crew intact
-be assigned to a Sector
ALL OTHERS STAY OUSIDE

103
Q

Who must authorize a crew leaving their respective Sector?

A

Sector Officer

104
Q

What is the goal of Rehabilitation Sector?

A

-Reduce fatigue and trauma experienced by FF’s

105
Q

When should Command establish a Safety Sector?

A

-Incidents involving an inordinate danger to personnel, any situation that would be advantageous to overall safety

106
Q

If after __________ of interior operations heavy fire conditions still exist, command should initiate a carefully evaluation of structural conditions, and should be fully prepared to withdrawal interior crews and change to a defensive strategy

A

10-15 minutes

107
Q

-When should firefighting efforts be abandoned?

A

When the extent of the fire prohibits control or the structure becomes unsafe to operate in.

108
Q

What is the Emergency Traffic notification designed to do?

A

-Designed as immediate notification for all fire ground personnel

109
Q

When should Emergency Traffic be initiated?

A

Hazard appears imminent or has just occurred

110
Q

When can elevators be used in working fires?

A

Elevator shaft is clear

  • hoist mechanism undamaged
  • identify nearest enclosed stairway
  • floor your going to is not involved
111
Q

How many floors below the fire should the elevator stop?

A

2

112
Q

Should an elevator without the Emergency Operations be used if a working fire is indicated?

A
  • NO
113
Q

How big of a perimeter around a high rise should be set up?

A

200ft

114
Q

What situations would be included inside the Hot Zone?

A
  • entering a structure reported to be on fire -operating in close proximity to the structure during exterior operations
  • confined space
  • trench rescue
  • operating close to crane operations or close to swift water operations
  • building collapse
  • extrication
115
Q

What functions could be done in the Warm Zone?

A
  • forward fire apparatus working the incident
  • laying lines
  • HMRT & TRT developing strategies & tactics
  • utility trucks
  • special equipment needs
  • accountability officer
  • FIRE Investigations
116
Q

What functions could be done in the Cold Zone?

A
  • Command
  • level I & II staging
  • support and staff personnel
  • canteen
  • rehab
  • media
  • P.D. Liaison
  • INTERVIEWING THE RESPONSIBLE PARTY
117
Q

What is a major reason for fire ground sectorization?

A

safety of firefighting personnel

118
Q

In a typical fire involved building, what is the most likely candidate for failure?

A

Roof

119
Q

What are signs of building collapse?

A
  • cracks in exterior walls
  • bulges in exteriors walls
  • sounds of structural movement
  • smoke/water leaking through walls
  • flexible movement of any floor or roof where FF walk
  • interior or exterior bearing walls or columns – leaning, twisting, or flexing
  • sagging or otherwise distorted rooflines
  • time of fire involvement
120
Q

Construction features that have been known to fail prematurely are?

A
  • parapet walls
  • large open areas
  • cantilevered canopies
  • ornamental or secondary fronts
  • lightweight truss, bow string, bar joist
  • unprotected metal–beams, columns
121
Q

Search & Rescue should be performed according to an?

A

efficient, well planned procedure which includes the safety of all search crew personnel

122
Q

If a working fire is suspected in a high-rise building, the following procedures shall be adhered to:

A

utilize stairways to go aloft.

Elevators may be used if proper measures have been taken.

123
Q

What 3 measures should be taken when utilizing an elevator in a high rise fire?

A
  1. Ensure that heat/fire have not damaged the hoist mechanism.
  2. Locate the nearest enclosed stairway.
  3. Must verify the floor you are going to is uninvolved.
124
Q

What is the purpose of Emergency Deployment?

A

Intended to significantly increase the number of available emergency response resources expeditiously to deal with high activity Types.

125
Q

Who can activate Emergency Deployment when it is evident that deployment activity may exceed system wide available resources?

A

South Deputy Chief in conjunction with the on-duty Deployment Battalion Chief

126
Q

What changes will take place with Type 1 Emergency Deployment?

A

Will automatically modify response requirements for all non EMS calls

127
Q

What will happen during Type II Emergency Deployment?

A

South Deputy Chief will call off-duty personnel in to staff Brush trucks or other adjunct response apparatus. Will be developed on a case by case basis.

128
Q

What will happen during a Type III Emergency Deployment?

A

South Deputy Chief will call off-duty personnel in to staff reserve apparatus.