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CDC > Volume 3: Self-Test > Flashcards

Volume 3: Self-Test Flashcards

1
Q

Where are complete procedures found for initiating and processing MDR/PQDRs?

A

TO 00-35D-54

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2
Q

How are MDR/PQDRs turn-ins processed?

A

TRIC TIN, Supply Condition Code Q, Action Code C

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3
Q

How are the MDR/PQDRs exhibit items readily identified in stock?

A

The I012 management notice is attached to the property.

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4
Q

Why does inspection need a copy of the I012 management notice?

A

To determine if the deficiency esests in other assets.

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5
Q

Who performs normal inspecton functions which influde certifying work performed by the receiving inchecker, changing the stock number, unit of issue, and quantity if required?

A

Qualified inspector

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6
Q

What does inspection personnel indicate on the condition code of the receiving document when items are received in an unserviceable (repairable) condition?

A

Inspection personnel annotate the actions on the receipt documentations before further processing.

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7
Q

What do you do if the original documents are missing or badly mutilated?

A

Fill out a new document based on information you find from the mutilated documents, package markings, item ID tags or labels, transaction records or NSN query.

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8
Q

What entries are annotated on the shelf life listing by the inspector?

A

Items found to be outdated and items that require issue or disposition prior to the next inspection.

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9
Q

Why does the materiel management inspector process a condition change (FCC) when dealing with type I items under shelf life control?

A

To process outdated shelf life items to transfer automatically to DRMS.

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10
Q

How many days before their expiration date are type II shelf life items scheduled for serviceability testing?

A

15 to 45 days.

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11
Q

When an item is destroyed because of serviceability testing, what action do you take?

A

Process a turn in with a supply condition code H and action taken code 9.

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12
Q

What supply classes does inspection personnel visually inspect or retest?

A

6810, 6820, and 6850 supply classes.

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13
Q

What list is published by DLA that provides data on products which have been tested or condemned?

A

Quality Status List

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14
Q

What AFTO form is used by inspection personnel to identify the materiel being sent to laboratory?

A

AFTO form 475

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15
Q

Aircraft and ground equipment lubricants and oils are governed by retest cycle dates as specified
in what T.O.?

A

TO 42B-1-1.

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16
Q

Describe the two categories of functional check items.

A

1) Assets requiring extensive functional check after issue for installation.
(2) Assets, identified by an inspector, whose serviceability may be doubtful due to apparent mishandling while in stock or being.

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17
Q

What is required for adequate proof that a functional check was performed by base maintenance
activity?

A

Appearance of a base maintenance inspector’s stamp or signature.

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18
Q

How often are functional check listings run?

A

At least semiannually.

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19
Q

Who identifies and controls all items requiring compliance with technical orders?

A

Inspection personnel.

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20
Q

How are materiel management inspector personnel notified of TCTOs?

A

Base Maintenance Quality Control forwards two copies of each TCTO publication (except for munitions) with a cover letter to inspection personnel.

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21
Q

When a TCTO is received identifying items that require modification by maintenance and is
returned under the same NSN, what action must inspection personnel take on the cover letter that
is sent back to the base maintenance quality control activity?

A

Endorse the cover letter listing by stock number the total number of spares on hand that require
modification (negative replies are required).

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22
Q

What action must inspection personnel take when an item is received and it cannot find out if
TCTO actions have been done?

A

Issue the item to maintenance for the necessary inspection or test.

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23
Q

How are items requiring TCTO action, where modification will not require reidentification to a
new NSN, identified?

A

By assignment of a TCTO flag.

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24
Q

Name the two ways of assigning the NPPC “4” and the TCTO flag.

A

(1) Through the AFMC Interchangeability and Substitution Data Maintenance System (D043B) and the Stock Number User Directory (SNUD).
(2) By input of an FCD.

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25
Q

Why do inspectors prepare an inquiry of all item records and detail records for the listed stock
numbers on a TCTO?

A

To find out the total number of assets to be modified.

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26
Q

What does the TCTO kit manager use to control shelf life items in the kits?

A

Kit stock numbers.

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27
Q

Define an item that is suspect or unsuitable.

A

Items that, if used prior to inspection for verification of serviceability, could cause a hazardous condition or damage to personnel, property, or equipment.

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28
Q

How is a suspect item flagged?

A

By processing the FCD input with an “S” in position 48.

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29
Q

What happens to items found unsuitable or suspect?

A

They are suspended on the unserviceable DIFM detail record until disposition instructions are received.

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30
Q

How are on-base customers notified of possible suspect items?

A

By bulletins, newsletters, and phone calls.

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31
Q

Define the Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA) Hazard Communication
Standard (HCS) requirements in regards to hazards of all chemicals in the workplace.

A

Requires evaluation of the hazards of all chemicals in the workplace and that information concerning the potential hazards and protective measures are provided to both employers and employees. The HCS generally applies to any chemical that is a health or physical hazard to which employees may be exposed under normal use conditions or in a foreseeable emergency.

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32
Q

What provides specific manufacturer’s MSDS information that is readily available to Air Force
personnel?

A

Hazardous Materiel Information System (HMIS).

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33
Q

How often is the HMIRS distributed?

A

Quarterly.

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34
Q

The materiel management inspector monitors and coordinates with what agency on items that are
subject to health hazard control?

A

Base Bioenvironmental Engineering Services (BES).

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35
Q

What must a inspector ensure is assigned to applicable health hazard item records?

A

IEX codes “8”, “9”, “M” or health hazard flags (HHF).

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36
Q

What publication can be used by the inspection personnel to identify item records that have not
been assigned an IEX “8”, “9”, “M” or a HHF?

A

Federal Standard 313, Table 1.

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37
Q

What is the purpose of an HHF?

A

It eliminates repetitive initial reviews of the same item by the BES and ensures that all items in the
categories identified in the health hazard publications have been screened, identified, controlled (if hazardous), or certified (if non-hazardous).

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38
Q

How may MSDSs be kept when employees must travel between workplaces during a work shift
(e.g., work is carried out in different warehouses or geographical locations).

A

MSDSs may be kept in a central location at the primary workplace as long as the information is available to employees immediately in the event of an emergency.

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39
Q

How are unit packs marked for ESD items?

A

With a Sensitive Electronic Device Unit Pack Label on the identification marking side of the unit pack.

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40
Q

How many yellow caution labels must be placed on each exterior container for an ESD item?

A

Two.

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41
Q

What type cargo code stored on the item record identifies an ESD item?

A

The number three.

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42
Q

If the asset is on a detail record, what action is taken to process an ESD item to maintenance for
testing?

A

The inspector processes the item to maintenance using TRIC of MSI and activity code “C”.

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43
Q

Where can the inspector open the unit pack of an ESD item if it is required?

A

In an ESD protective area.

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44
Q

What framework is used to develop the overall net storage space?

A

The warehouse layout plan.

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45
Q

What are the prime factors used in determining the best possible space layouts for storage
operations?

A

Efficiency of operations and effective space utilization.

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46
Q

What should be the first step prior to the actual development of the stock layout plan within a
given facility?

A

A determination of storage aid requirements.

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47
Q

When fast-moving items of great demand are stored in locations where they are easily accessible
with as little handling as possible, what storage factor is being observed?

A

Item popularity.

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48
Q

What factors determine aisle layout when accomplishing the storage layout plan?

A

The structure of a warehouse; quantity, nature, and popularity of materiel stored; and the types and capacity of materiel-handling equipment available for use.

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49
Q

What are personnel aisles used for in a warehouse?

A

As pedestrian routes only.

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50
Q

What type aisles are those that provide access to the interiors of stacks of property for inventory,
inspection, or protective processing?

A

Service aisles.

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51
Q

What main objective must you keep in mind when storing property?

A

To waste as little space as possible.

52
Q

What are the two main things you must consider when planning at which height to stack
supplies?

A

1) The strength of the storage containers.

(2) The type of supplies to be stored.

53
Q

What is honeycombing and what is it the result of?

A

Honeycombing is the practice of storing and withdrawing items in a manner that the resulting empty area cannot be used for the storage of additional supplies. It is a result of poor space layouts and poor storage plans and methods.

54
Q

When an item is stored in several rows, how should it be removed for use?

A

One row at a time, which makes space immediately available for a new item.

55
Q

List the six suggested ways to minimize space loss.

A

1) Store in several short rows rather than one long row.
(2) Store from the back of the storage area to the aisle.
(3) Organize a regular rewarehousing program.
(4) Store each pallet as compactly as possible.
(5) Assure the proper withdrawal of stock.
(6) Store to maximum heights.

56
Q

What are two of the most prevalent hindrances that limit effective utilization of gross storage
space within a warehouse facility?

A

(1) Structural loss.

(2) Floor load limits.

57
Q

What clearance is required when items are stacked below an automatic sprinkler head to a height
of 15 feet? When the stack is 18 feet high? When the stack is of hazardous property?

A

18 inches; 36 inches; 36 inches.

58
Q

What is meant by the term “floor load limit or capacity?”

A

The total or maximum amount of weight that may be stored in a specific amount of floor space.

59
Q

Why must the floor load limit be observed?

A

To ensure there is no damage to the storage facility, the items being stored there, or the MHE that may be in use, and to prevent any injury to you or to anyone else who may be in the area.

60
Q

What is the best way to display the maximum floor load limit in a storage area?

A

By the use of signs stating the floor load limit, and posted in highly visible spots throughout the storage
area.

61
Q

What storage principle will reduce the number of outdated items in stock?

A

The principle, “first in, first out.”

62
Q

What action should you take when you find an item in stock with no markings or identification
labels?

A

Turn the item over to an inspector.

63
Q

Which items are readily adaptable for open storage?

A

Chains, most nonferrous metal objects, unfinished lumber products, galvanized or iron pipes, most
vehicles, and most items in large metal drums.

64
Q

How can items in outside storage be protected from direct exposure to the elements?

A

By using preservatives, climatized or expendable end item packs, and when necessary, the placing of roofs, portable sheds, or such flexible coverings as tarpaulins or reinforced plastic sheets over materiel easily damaged by weather.

65
Q

If the decision is made to cover items in outside storage with tarpaulins, plastic sheets, waterproof
paper, or similar coverings, what condition must the covering meet?

A

The covering should be flame retardant and must not produce toxic fumes if combustion does occur.

66
Q

All materiel stored in outside storage will be elevated above the ground by using what?

A

Dunnage or specially built platforms and foundations.

67
Q

What is the purpose of dunnage?

A

Provide adequate ventilation beneath items in stock.

68
Q

What are the storage requirements for Top Secret materiel?

A

A class A vault is required under the control of the designated primary or subordinate Top Secret control officer. The area must be controlled and alarmed.

69
Q

What are the storage requirements for Secret and Confidential materiel?

A 
Must be stored in a class B vault or secure storage area. Storage areas must meet the supplemental
safeguards outlined by local authorities to be judged adequate.
70
Q

How will sensitive firearms be stored?

A

In an approved, locked, steel weapons rack; in a locked metal container; or, when necessary, in a weapons storage cabinet.

71
Q

How will precious metals be stored?

A

In a security cage.

72
Q

How often will the keys and locks be audited when key-operated high security padlocks are used
to store classified materiel?

A

Each month.

73
Q

How often will combinations be changed when combination padlocks are used to store classified
materiel?

A

When a padlock is placed in use, when an individual knowing the combination no longer requires access, when the combination has been subject to possible compromise, at least annually, and when taken out of use.

74
Q

What is the purpose of SF 700, Security Container Information Form?

A

It shows the location of the container and the names, home addresses, and home telephone numbers of the individuals having knowledge of the combination.

75
Q

Who prepares a warehouse location validation schedule?

A

Storage personnel.

76
Q

For what period of time is the warehouse location validation schedule prepared?

A

Each fiscal year.

77
Q

Explain the importance of performing a validation prior to a scheduled inventory.

A

Performing a validation prior to the physical inventory ensures that property is accurately stored and reflected so on the item record balance. This is necessary for an effective and efficient inventory process.

78
Q

From what type input and what sequence are FCS images printed on the FCS Validation File
Listing?

A

Warehouse location parameter input, warehouse location sequence.

79
Q

List three results of not correcting “mislocated” assets found during the validation process.

A

Out-of-balance conditions, erroneous stock records, or warehouse refusals.

80
Q

There is stock in the bin and no warehouse location has been assigned. What can you check to see
if a location is in the process of being loaded?

A

The warehouse location change suspense file and the R36, Serviceable BalanceNo Warehouse Location Listing.

81
Q

What is the Serviceable Balance – No Warehouse Location Listing (R36) used to identify?

A

Items having a serviceable balance but no warehouse location assigned to them, and a date of last transaction (DOLT) greater than days.

82
Q

What actions does the warehouse supervisor take when a warehouse refusal is verified?

A

Stamps all copies of the ship/issue document “Warehouse Refusal” (using 1/2-inch block letters and red ink), signs copy 1 across the stamp, and writes ASSIGN TEX CODE P beneath the stamp on the first copy.

83
Q

In requesting a special inventory, what document does the requesting activity prepare?

A

Special inventory request (1GP).

84
Q

What freeze code is used to freeze the item record for special inventories?

A

Freeze code “I.”

85
Q

What input removes freeze code “I”?

A

Special inventory count (IRC).

86
Q

Who must approve the assignment of photographic items, controlled item codes “J,” “R,” “X,” or
“*” to a bench stock?

A

The unit commander who controls and manages the bench stock.

87
Q

When should a bench stock include a minimum reserve authorization or a maximum authorized
quantity?

A

When items are placed on bench stock and authorizations are not supported by past demands.

88
Q

What code can be used to protect a temporary large quantity of bench stock items from
disposition?

A

An excess exception code.

89
Q

How many phases of bench stock review are there?

A

Three.

90
Q

When a phase II semiannual bench stock review is conducted, within what timeframe must the
review be accomplished?

A

Within one workweek.

91
Q

How often must SRD data and MRA levels be validated?

A

Annually by a phase III review.

92
Q

What is the purpose of the S04?

A

Provide listings of items authorized on bench stock for applicable activities, control the assignment of
bench stock document numbers, and assist shop personnel in the location of bench stock items.

93
Q

What must the Accountable Officer ensure when conducting a complete inventory?

A

That the warehouse does not remain closed to normal receipts and issues for an unreasonable length of time and that all backlog transactions are processed immediately upon completion of an inventory.

94
Q

When must parameter requests for an inventory be prepared?

A

One day before the inventory deadline date.

95
Q

What program writes inventory count records to a data base file and assigns freeze code “C” to all
item records within the input parameter?

A

Inventory Count File Program (R12).

96
Q

When processing the R12 program, count records are written for what type of item records?

A

Those with a serviceable balance and a warehouse location within the parameters of the request.

97
Q

Count records are not produced for records assigned what freeze codes?

A

“Q”, “L”, or “C”.

98
Q

What is produced when the CIC input count quantity is unequal to the item record balance?

A

A recount image.

99
Q

When conducting complete inventories, what is output when the input recount quantity is unequal
to the item record balance and the item does not qualify for automatic adjustment?

A

F105 management notice and an IRC image with AR in positions 52–53.

100
Q

How would you research the transaction history for a physical shortage?

A

Begin with the current date and go back to the last item record with a zero balance.

101
Q

When would further research be required to resolve an inventory discrepancy?

A

When initial research does not identify probable causes.

102
Q

Where are the results documented for items requiring further research?

A

On a DD Form 200.

103
Q

Specify the criteria for an automatic adjustment.

A

Type account code B, total dollar value for pilferable items must be less than $100. All other unclassified (controlled item code “U”), must be less than $1,000.

104
Q

When automatic adjustments occur, they appear on what management products?

A

Both the transaction register and the Consolidated Inventory Adjustment Document Register (M10).

105
Q

What is the purpose of researching inventory discrepancies?

A

To determine the type of discrepancy so that you can begin to reconcile the accountable records and
provide a valid, audible transaction record that accounts for all items.

106
Q

What are the four categories of inventory discrepancies?

A

(1) Resolved discrepancies.
(2) Unresolved discrepancies that do not meet criteria for further research.
(3) Unresolved discrepancies where further research indicates no personal responsibility.
(4) Unresolved discrepancies where further research indicates evidence of personal responsibility.

107
Q

What type of items requires support documentation?

A

Inventory adjustments that don’t meet the automatic adjustment criteria.

108
Q

What product prints and deletes internally stored inventory adjustment records?

A

Consolidated Inventory Adjustment Document Registers (M10).

109
Q

Where is the original copy of the M10 filed?

A

Document Control.

110
Q

What does the last page of the M10 reflect?

A

Number of sample inventories in progress over 30 days.

111
Q

What reflects inventory trends and problem areas?

A

Trend charts.

112
Q

What activities analyze the causes of unresolved discrepancies?

A

Inventory and analysis functions.

113
Q

What are the different types of asset management reports?

A

The reports are categorized into All Open Records, Creation to Delivery Times, Customer Validation,
Inactive Customers, Items Delivered, Items Not Pulled, Items Not Put Away, Items Not Received, and Items Put Away.

114
Q

How are Items Not Pulled Report exported?

A

The report can be exported into CSV, Excel, or PDF format by clicking on the applicable icon at the
bottom of each page.

115
Q

When submitting the query, what button is clicked to retrieve the selected Items Not Received
Report from the ES-S Asset Management database?

A

Run Report.

116
Q

Briefly describe a Nuclear Weapon Related Materiel (NWRM)?

A

Nuclear weapons related materiel (NWRM) is defined as any components that are critical to launch, enable, inhibit, and authenticate status (code and critical components); are classified or become classified once installed and used; serialized items installed on operationally deployed weapons systems; items removed/replaced as an end item (there are critical parts inside but are not normally removed separately).

117
Q

Briefly describe classified property?

A

Classified property is defined as material which requires protection in the interest of national security.

118
Q

How is the documentation stamped prior to issuing the material?

A

Stamped with the phrase “CLASSIFIED ITEM” prior to issuing the material.

119
Q

In order to achieve positive inventory control of NWRM, what must be ensured?

A

A management environment must ensure each item is identified, accounted for, secured, segregated, and/or handled in such a manner to ensure its safeguarding and integrity at all times.

120
Q

Briefly describe what AFI directs AF organizations to formally designate in writing; personnel
permitted and authorized to accept controlled materiel?

A

AFI 31–401, Information Security Program Management or other applicable directives.

121
Q

How often does the chief inspector conduct training to maintain awareness and competence
regarding the proper management of controlled materiel?

A

Semiannually.

122
Q

How often are code components inventoried as designated in STRATCOM guidance?

A

At 15, 30 and/or 90 days intervals.

123
Q

How are copies of source documents for classified items marked?

A

All copies of source documents for classified items must be stamped or handwritten in red ink with the
words “Classified item.”

124
Q

For controlled, sensitive, classified and pilferable items, where are shipping documentation
placed?

A

The shipping documentation shall be placed inside all containers rather than on the outside.

125
Q

How is an overage of a serialized control item processed?

A

By processing a serialized asset inquiry in AFEMS and/or contact the depot with the actual serial number of
the asset.

126
Q

What does the material management activities use to maintain custody accountability?

A

DD Form 1907, or carrier furnished signature and tally record.

127
Q

Where are signed documents for the issue of controlled items kept?

A

Signed documents will be retained in document control files.

CDC (4 decks)

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