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CDC > Volume 2: Self-Test > Flashcards

Volume 2: Self-Test Flashcards

1
Q

Why are nonstocked item due-out cause codes assigned?

A

Due to insuffiecient item demand history for computation of a demand-based stock level.

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2
Q

What MICAP cause code indicates the request was a first demand for the item?

A

A

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3
Q

What MICAP cause code indicates base decision not to stock the item?

A

D

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4
Q

What MICAP cause code indicates the depth of stock was insufficient to meet MICAP/due-out requirement?

A

F

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5
Q

What MICAP cause code indicates that assets cannot be used to satisfy this requirement because they are deployed, inaccessible, or unavailable?

A

R

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6
Q

What MICAP cause code indicates no due-in established and AWP assets are on hand at time of MICAP?

A

X

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7
Q

What MICAP delete code indicates item from ALCs?

A

1

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8
Q

What MICAP delete code indicates item satisfied through lateral support?

A

3

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9
Q

What MICAP delete code indicates “WRM asset has been used to meet requirement”?

A

7

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10
Q

What MICAP delete code indicates “Reported in error”?

A

9

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11
Q

What activity code is used to identify issues processed through the Integrated Maintenance Data System (IMDS)?

A

J

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12
Q

What notification is used to notify the IMDS of a change in due-out status of an item?

A

1SH

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13
Q

What due-out status code on the 1SH describes a cancellation?

A

1

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14
Q

What due-out status code on the 1SH describes a mark for change?

A

4

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15
Q

What is the main function of the repair cycle section when managing repair cycle assets?

A

To maintain accurate computer records of location and status of all unserviceable assets in maintenance.

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16
Q

What listing is used to monitor the status and maintain visibility of DIFM assets?

A

Repair cycle management list-D23

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17
Q

What listing is used to monitor AWP end items?

A

AWP validation listing-D19

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18
Q

Why is it important for RCS personnel to know what location maintenance is taking to repair an item and wher the item is physically located?

A

Because an item can go through several changes such as repair shop location or item condition.

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19
Q

How do base personnel submit requests for repair parts for reparable end items?

A

On a fill or back order basis using UJC “AR” or “BR”

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20
Q

What does advice code “6L” identify?

A

That the requisition is for an AFMC managed AWP end item.

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21
Q

Explain the use of the AWP checklist.

A

Its use is mandatory and should be used for requesting parts and monitoring active AWP requisitions.

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22
Q

Describe what AWP monitors can ensure through review of the AWP Validation Listing.

A

Valid due-ins for each due-out, shipment status or realistic estimated release dates, and requirement for additional follow up.

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23
Q

Explain what should be done if the D19 lists and NSN containing status J, and the EDD has come and gone over 14 days ago.

A

AWP monitor should be aggresivly working with the source of supply to follow up and track down this item.

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24
Q

How does the retail supply system requisition two-level maintenance (2LM) items?

A

Automatically

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25
Q

What RDD will be assigned to output requisitions when items are identified as two-level maintenance?

A

777

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26
Q

What are additional warehouses called that are located within or next to the activities they are supporting; and where can they be located?

A

Supply points; on or off base

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27
Q

Who maintains overall accountability and control of assets in Supply Point?

A

LRS/Supply Activity

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28
Q

What are the two types of WRM equipment?

A

Joint use and Mobility equipments

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29
Q

What type of WRM equipment is authorized to support a peacetime function that ceases to exist in wartime, thereby allowing the equipment to satisfy a wartime requirement?

A

Joint use

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30
Q

What is mobility equipment?

A

Items and quantities that need to be moved with a unit or are needed for deployment in an emerging or during wartime.

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31
Q

Who is the AF lead command through the BEAR Integrated Management Team (BIMT) structure for BEAR systems?

A

HQACC/A4

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32
Q

What is the primary mission of BEAR?

A

To provide expeditionary basing assets for use at austere airfields, thereby, providing the AEF with global basing capability.

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33
Q

What are the seven component subsystems of BEAR?

A

BEAR 150 personnel housekeeping, BEAR 550 housekeeping, BEAR 550 follow on housekeeping, BEAR industrial operations, BEAR initial flight line, BEAR follow on flight line, BEAR housekeeping support

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34
Q

What BEAR component subsystem set supports up to 150 personnel in the open-the-base force module?

A

BEAR 150 Personnel Housekeeping Set

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35
Q

What is a BEAR 550 initial housekeeping (B-550i) set?

A

It is a stand alone set that provides a robust camp consisting of billeting, feeding, and hygiene to support 550 personnel.

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36
Q

What BEAR component subsystem set includes facilities, equipment, and supplies necessary to establish and support aircraft flight-related operations and maintenance activities for an initial aircraft squadron deployed at a bare-base location?

A

BEAR initial flight line set

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37
Q

What are the different types of RSPs?

A

Mobility RSP, In place RSP, Consumable RSP, Flexible consumable RSP

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38
Q

What is a MRSP?

A

An air transportable package of readiness spares, repair parts, and related maintenance supplies required to support planned wartime or contingency operations of a weapon or support system for a specified period of time pending resupply.

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39
Q

Who publishes MRSP authorization annually?

A

HQUSAF/LGX

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40
Q

What is an IRSP?

A

Only the spares and repair parts required needed for operation above the normal peacetime operating stock levels expected to be available to a unit during wartime.

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41
Q

How long is the support period funded and planned for IRSP?

A

30 days

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42
Q

Who will process items requiring functional checks according to procedures outlined in AFMAN 23-110?

A

War readiness

43
Q

What activity code is issued to process mated item issues from the RSP?

A

C

44
Q

What is a system inventory managers use to formulate RSP levels?

A

Personal Computer-Aircraft Sustainability Module

45
Q

Who has the responsibility for operation of a weapons storage facility when mobilization is authorized?

A

Material management flight

46
Q

What management notice is produced, containing the serial number of weapons transferred?

A

F117

47
Q

Who can direct small arms transfer from one accountable activity to another within or outside the AF?

A

WR-ALC

48
Q

Who is responsible for preparing and packaging, inventorying, and maintaining bags?

A

War readiness element

49
Q

What is a PC-based program designed to account for mobility and chemical warfare defense equipment (CWDE)?

A

MICAS

50
Q

How do you delete a person from the MICAS database?

A

By locating the person to be deleted and then clicking the eraser icon.

51
Q

What are the ways you can use to process and issue?

A

Scanning the linear bar code on the users CAC; Typing MICAS user ID into the scan box; Scrolling to the user in the list on the left and clicking on user; Scanning a bar code with users MICAS ID

52
Q

What info needs continuous monitoring in the mobility section?

A

Expiration dates for the shelf-life assets.

53
Q

Briefly define an operations plan.

A

Any plan for the conduct of military ops.

54
Q

List the 5 major phases in the deliberate planning process.

A

Initiation, Concept development, Plan development, Plan review, Supporting plans

55
Q

In what phase do planners determine the best mix of UTCs, based on availability, timing, criteria, and required AFSCs?

A

Phase 3 plan development

56
Q

How are tasked units identified in an OPLAN or TPFDD?

A

UTC

57
Q

What capability document defines the total capability of the unit and documents the resources required to provide that capability?

A

DOC statement

58
Q

What four resource areas are measured in the DOC statement?

A

Personnel, on hand, supplies and equipment, equipment conditioning, and training

59
Q

What is a WMP-3 Part 2?

A

Part of the WMP system; the corresponding owning force provider maintains all UTC availability records

60
Q

Which capability system provides a timely and accurate assessment of the status of the resources required by a unit to accomplish its wartime mission?

A

Sorts

61
Q

What does the AF us status info in SORTS for?

A

For assessing readiness and the impact of budgetary allocations and management actions on unit level readiness. Data is used to answer congressional inquiries, readiness trend analysis, justification for readiness accounts in AF budget requests, and the AF resource allocation decisions.

62
Q

What capability system allows AEF-allocated units the ability to report UTC-level readiness?

A

ART

63
Q

What type of adjusted stock level is used to restrict stockage?

A

Maximum adjusted stock level

64
Q

What input establishes an ASL detail record as an unconfirmed (memo)?

A

1F3L

65
Q

What does processing of a TRIC 1F3L input do to an ASL detail record?

A

Change the ASL detail record from memo to firm.

66
Q

Explain why predetermined ASL’s are different than base-initiated requests, and from where they are received.

A

The quantity, app, justification, and approval have already been determined. You may receive predetermined ASL requests from Headquaters AFMC, Majcom, FOA, or Headquaters USAF.

67
Q

What is the mission change process designed to achieve?

A

Alter base demand levels for items applicable to a weapon system that is already assigned at the base that will be affected by a known mission change such as the addition or loss of a number of weapon system end items at a base.

68
Q

When is a Customer Oriented Leveling Technique used?

A

To compute levels for items that have established demand patterns.

69
Q

What is the goal of Proactive Demand Leveling (PDL)?

A

To reduce the number of MICAPs for material management system non stocked items.

70
Q

What type levels does an RBL override to become the basis for a base’s peacetime stock requisitioning?

A

Retail Supply-Computed RBL’s and any ASL’s

71
Q

In what two instances may an RBL be less than an approved minimum or fixed level?

A

When there is insufficient world wide requirement to allocate to the minimum/fixed level and when the base’s minimum/fixed level is not registered in AFMC’s D035 system.

72
Q

How are RBLs forwarded to a base for retail supply system implementation?

A

Via an electronic Headquaters AFMC computed level transaction (XCA)

73
Q

When an A2x/A4x is processed, what input priority causes the computer to release centrally procured serviceable assets down to zero balance automatically?

A

MICAPs with priority 01-03

74
Q

How are item records released for non-MICAP RDO’s?

A

They are released beginning with input stock number and continuing through the ISG chain until either the RDO quantity is filled or the ISG quantity equals or falls below the RO.

75
Q

How is acceptance of an RDO identified?

A

They are sent in DIC BLO format. A BLO is a notification to the originator of the RDO that the RDO has been accepted and the requested property is being processed for shipment.

76
Q

What type of shipment results from a local management decision?

A

Nondirected shipment

77
Q

What type of shipment is a lateral support shipment?

A

Nondirected, Special

78
Q

What RIC is used on lateral support shipments?

A

JLS or Dxx

79
Q

What is the result of the cosignee not providing a document number for a post-post lateral shipment?

A

The input will be rejected.

80
Q

What is a transfer? What are the two types of transfers?

A

Movement of material to DRMS. Directed and Nondirected

81
Q

What TRIC is used to transfer an item to DRMS?

A

TRM

82
Q

What process was agreed upon to implement uniform procedures for the inter-Service redistribution of repairable assets?

A

Total asset visibility

83
Q

What does a billed not received transaction identity?

A

Items that have a vendor bill presented for payment but the receipt has not been processed by the retail supply activities.

84
Q

What is a MILSTAMP reconciliation program?

A

It provides detailed descriptions of the policies, processes, and procedures used by the retail supply activity to trace delinquent requisitions that have been released by the source of supply for shipment, shipment status assigned, but not received.

85
Q

What code will tell you if a piece of equipment is an EAID item? Where do you find this code?

A

EMC; 3rd position of the ERRCD and can be found by researching AFEMS

86
Q

What’s an allowance standard?

A

The item quantity of an equipment item thats needed to perform the assigned missions, functions, or duties of AF organizations and individual specialist.

87
Q

What’s an equipment authorization?

A

Allowances that have been coverted to specific quantities of specific items for specific units.

88
Q

What’s a BOI?

A

The authority that establishes the number of items to be issued to an individual, activity, or military organization.

89
Q

When should an AF Form 2005 be used to request an equipment item?

A

When the requested item is in an allowance standard where the approval is at wing/base level or below, and when the allowance standard preface or other directive requires special base level coordination.

90
Q

How are non-EAID items identified?

A

By ERRCD NF1 and activity code D

91
Q

What form is prepared to recommend/request changes to equipment allowance standards?

A

AF Form 601

92
Q

What action do you take if required data for an AF Form 601 can’t be obtained form the custodian?

A

Disapprove the request

93
Q

When are multiple items with different federal supply classes included on a single AF Form 601 requiring higher than base level approval?

A

When the request is against the same ASC and the background and justification for all the items are the same.

94
Q

What method can be used to input an equipment allowance change request electronically?

A

The data transactions session TACR screen.

95
Q

What controlled item codes are assigned to control weapons?

A

N, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 8

96
Q

How are weapons that require reporting to the D184 system identified on the item record?

A

SRC A

97
Q

Within what time period are weapon source documents processed to Document Control?

A

Within 3 workdays

98
Q

How often are weapon serial numbers reconciled with WR-ALC and AFEMS systems?

A

Annually

99
Q

What report/program is used to reconcile weapon serialized control records?

A

R46/NGV874

100
Q

What’s the SNCS?

A

A centrol file of all COMSEC assets by serial number within the AF.

101
Q

Whithin what time period are COMSEC source documents sent to document control personnel?

A

3 workdays

102
Q

How often are COMSEC assets reconciled?

A

Semiannually

103
Q

How are bases notified when they fail to process the COMSEC reconciliation as required?

A

SNCS sends a XHB with COMSEC error notification code 7B.

CDC (4 decks)

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