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CDC 3M071B > Volume 3. Readiness, Mortuary, and Protocol > Flashcards

Volume 3. Readiness, Mortuary, and Protocol Flashcards

1
Q

401.1. What does the WMP match to ensure completion of a planned activity?

A

Facilities, personnel and material resources.

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2
Q

401.2. What does the WMP address?

A

General situation, concept of operations, mission, execution tasks.

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3
Q

401.3. List and explain the 3M wartime priorities.

A

Priority one is combat support for stratigic offensive and defensive missions. Priority two is the mobilization and deployment of military personnel on Prime RIBS teams for wartime use in the overseas theater(s) of operation. Priority three is maintaining a CONUS sustaining force capable of carrying out the wartime support requirements, other than strategic mission support.

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4
Q

402.1. What is the IGESP?

A

This is a compilation plan that identifies and integrates all base-level actions required to support major command (MAJCOM) operational plans (OPLAN) or contingencies of any kind. The IGESP will ensure wartime readiness and may be used to support MOOTW and humanitarian relief.

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5
Q

402.2. Describe the Two parts of the IGESP.

A

Part one identifies resources and capabilities of a location by functional area and is the focus of the expeditionary site survey. Part two allocates resources identified in part one, assesses the ability to support the operation, and also identifies limiting factors (LIMFACS).

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6
Q

402.3. Define Command and Control Operations.

A

C^2 is the exercise of authority and direction by a properly designated commander over assigned and attached forces in the accomplishment of the mission.

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7
Q

403.1. As a member of management, where will you be assigned while deployed?

A

To any 3M operation.

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8
Q

403.2. List the types of shelters used for force beddown.

A

BEAR, COTS, or existing structures.

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9
Q

403.3. What is the makeup of Mortuary operations when deployed?

A

Expeditionary Search and Recovery, collection, recovery, storage, preparation and shipment.interment.

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10
Q

403.4. When are the deployments sourced for staffing and equipment?

A

Before CONUS wartime in-place requirements are met.

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11
Q

403.5. What are the ration types used for contingency or deployment?

A

MRE, UGR, A-Ration, HDR

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12
Q

404.1. What is the TPFDD, “specifically”?

A

The electronic data portion of a plan that exists in JOPES, where detailed requirements, capabilities,and movement data to support Air Force, Joint, and Combined Plans are listed.

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13
Q

404.2. When the TPFDD is combined with a UTC, what information is shown for the deployed location?

A

The number of personnel and equipment required.

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14
Q

404.3. What are the two types of TPFDDs?

A

Requirements and capability driven.

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15
Q

404.4. What two elements are critical for TPFDD management?

A

Accuracy and timeliness of the information.

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16
Q

405.1. What does the DRMD provide?

A

It provides MAJCOM, numbered Air Forces, and wings with the personnel requirements for fulfilling exercise, deployment, and contingency needs.

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17
Q

405.2. When planning support in 3M functional areas, what is the defined cook-to-customer ratio.

A

Under 1:50.

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18
Q

406.1. What is the definition of force beddown.

A

Establishing basic living conditions at a location at which a deploying unit operates during a contingency,

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19
Q

406.2. What are the priorities for base construction?

A

Beddown of forces including work sites and lodging, mission readiness and security, and finally quality of life.

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20
Q

406.3. What are the meal preparation times in theater?

A

D0-4: three MREs a day.

  1. D5-14: one MRE and 2 UGRs (fresh fruit and vegetable supplements)
  2. D15-29: three UGRs a day
  3. D30-+: four meals a day, integrating fresh food
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21
Q

406.4. In the flight kitchen, what are the planning factors for MTF patient feeding?

A

90 percent of MTF, 100 percent cenvalescent patients, 100 percent of aero medical staging facility patients.

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22
Q

407.1. What is the task of the UDM?

A

The UDM is tasked to implement the Prime RIBS program IAW the Prime RIBS manager;s guide, AFI 10-214 and AFSVA Readiness Standards.

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23
Q

407.2. List 5 of the UDM responsibilities used to support readiness.

A

Any of the following:
() Are unit commanders and staff informed of the deployment status of unit personnel?
() Can the unit deployment control center be immediately activated?
() Is a copy of the IDP/IGESP available in the unit deployment control center?
() Is there a continuous training program to familiarize unit personnel with the IDP and with the specifics responsibilities during deployment?
(Is a current pyramid unit recall notification plan in effect and can unit personnel be recalled in the event of telephone or communication failure?
() Are unit deployment rosters complete and current and updated in LOGMOD/LOGMOD Stand-Alone?

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24
Q

408.1. Training equipment is not centrally funded, what is prevented by reporting its inoperable status?

A

Training shortfall.

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25
Q

408.2. How are IMA positions used upon mobilization??

A

Assume command and control of essential activities at home station.

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26
Q

409.1. What is the fundemental premise of SORTS reporting?

A

Integrity.

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27
Q

409.2. Who designs measurement criteria?

A

FAM.

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28
Q

410.1. List the 3M lead UTCs.

A

RFSR1, RFSRR, RFSR7, RFSR9, and RFSRJ.

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29
Q

410.2. Which 3M UTC provides NAFI support?

A

RFSRL.

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30
Q

410.3. Which BEAR UTC will be used to open-the-base?

A

BEAR 150 or Swift BEAR.

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31
Q

411.1. What is the primary goal of the Force Module?

A

To improve the Air Forces capability to rapidly deploy and commence effective combat operation.

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32
Q

411.2. Define and explain the “Robust the Base” FM.

A

This FM contains those support forces that would typically not arrive until 30 days after an operation location is established. It provides additional ECS forces to robust the capabilities already in place from previous FM’s until a rotation operation can be implemented. The robust FM is considered part of the baseline structure for the AETF.

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33
Q

412.1. Who are the main players in the WFRR?

A

All MAJCOM and ANG SVX readiness action officers with advisors from AFIT/CES, the Air and Space Expeditionary Force Center (AEFC), the Services Academy, and HQ AFSVA/SVOHR and SVORA.

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34
Q

412.2. List the responsibilities of the RTEAM.

A

Any of the following:
() Reviews Services readiness, training and education, manpower programs, validates new requirements while balancing available resources, and recommends AF/ILV approval for major changes/deletions to programs.
() Reviews and recommends AF/ILV approval of Services Readiness program direction through the Services Readiness Management Strategic Plan.
() Provides vision and recommends direction for Services readiness, training and education and manpower programs to AF/ILV.
() Promotes Services readiness panning, execution consistency across component, MAJCOM and base level organizations.

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35
Q
  1. (401) Which of the following is not provided by WMP to support operations?
A

D. Concept of operations

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36
Q
  1. (401) Operational commanders will accept a reduced level of services for how many days?
A

D. 30.

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37
Q
  1. (402) Which of the following will intergrate all base-level actions to support operational plans?
A

a. In-garrrison expeditionary support plan (IGESP)

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38
Q
  1. (402) Which part of the in-garrison expeditionary support plan identifies resources?
A

a. Part 1.

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39
Q
  1. (402) Which section of the IGESP allocates resources?
A

b. Part 2.

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40
Q
  1. (What agency supervises food source for deployed units?
A

c. United States Army Veterinary Command (USVETCOM).

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41
Q
  1. (403) When deployed which ration type does not require cooks?
A

a. Meal ready to eat (MRE).

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42
Q
  1. (404) What is considered a data element that controls and identifies each entry in Joint Operational Planning and Execution System (JOPES)?
A

d. Unit line number (ULN).

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43
Q
  1. (404) Which time-phase force deployment data (TPFDD) is associated with a written operational plan (OPLAN)?
A

a. Requirements driven.

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44
Q
  1. (405) How many keys make up the deployment requirement manning document (DRMD)?
A

c. 9.

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45
Q
  1. (405) Which is not one of the population bases that unit type code (UTC) are build on?
A

d.2200

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46
Q
  1. (406) At what deployment period will three unitized group rations (UGR) be served each day?
A

c. D15-29.

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47
Q
  1. (406) What is the wartime flight feeding planning factor?
A

d. 100 percent of base population.

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48
Q
  1. (408) What percentage of team members must receive home station training on vehicle operations?
A

c. 30.

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49
Q
  1. (408) Services combat training (SCT) for deployable unit type code (UTC) should occur
A

c. 90-180 days before departure.

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50
Q
  1. (409) What is the fundemantal premise of Status of Resources and Training System (SORTS)
A

a. Integrity.

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51
Q
  1. (409) Cheif of Staff, United States Air Froce (CSAF) use Status of Resources and Training System (SORTS) to assess organizational
A

d. Effectiveness.

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52
Q
  1. (410) What UTC supports initial deployment to a bare base (BB)?
A

a. RFSR1

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53
Q
  1. (410) What UTC supports port mortuary operations?
A

c. RFSRJ

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54
Q
  1. (411) After the start of the open-the air base, at what day will the generate the mission force module (FM) be in place?
A

c. 4.

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55
Q
  1. (411) What day after an operational location is established will the robust-the-base force module (FM) be in place?
A

d. 30.

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56
Q
  1. (412) How often will the war fighting requirements review (WFRR) working group meet?
A

b. Semiannually.

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57
Q
  1. (412) How often will the readiness, training, education and manpower team (RTEAM) meet?
A

b. Semiannually.

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58
Q

413.1. List the eligibility criteria for an AFR/ANG member.

A

() While on active duty.
() During inactive duty training.
() Performing authorized travel directly to or from active duty or inactive-duty training.
() Remaining overnight immediately before the commencement of inactive-duty training at or in the vicinity of the site of the inactive-duty training or where funeral honors will be performed.
() While hospitalized or undergoing treatment for a medical condition aggravated by or incurred while on active duty or inactive training.

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59
Q

413.2. List the primary mortuary expenses

A 
All of the following:
() Recover or removal
() Preparation of remains
() Casket
() Shipment
() Death Certificates.
() Burial Clothing.
() Cremation.
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60
Q

413.3. List the secondary mortuary expenses.

A

List of the following:
() Funeral arrangements.
() Cemetery expense.

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61
Q

413.4. List the other mortuary expenses.

A 
List of the following:
() Escorts
() Summary courts officer.
() Interment Flags.
() Hardwood flag case.
() Military funeral honors.
() Memorial register book.
() Internment in a government cemetery.
() Government furnished headstone.
() Shipment of grave markers.
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62
Q

414.1. Define and explain the current death program.

A

Eligible personnel are provided with professional mortuary services, supplies, and related services during peacetime and contingency or wartime operations. The Current Death Program provides for search and recovery, and evacuation of remains to a mortuary, where remains of eligible personnel are identified and prepared as designated by the PADD and shipped to the final destination for permanent disposition.

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63
Q

414.2. Define and explain the concurrent death program.

A

This program provides for search, recovery, and evacuation of remains to a mortuary, where remains are identified and prepared as directed by the PADD and shipped to the final destination for permanent disposition. This is the preferred method of handling remains during periods of conflict. It should be activated when the Current Death Program capabilities are exceeded yet conditions do not require temporary internment. The concurrent return program may be phased into either the current death or temporary internment programs as the situation dictates.

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64
Q

Define and explain the survivor assistance program.

A

The AF survivor assistance program (AFSAP) marshals all available resources in support of family needs following unexpected loss of life. This program is also intended to to provide a systematic structure that offers assistance, information and support made available on the family’s terms. Details on AFSAP can be found in AFI 34-1101, Assistance to Survivors of Persons killed in Aviation Mishaps and Other Incidents.

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65
Q

415.1. Who was the FLP designed to support?

A

Family of the deceased military personnel.

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66
Q

415.2. Who will appoint the FLO?

A

Installation commander.

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67
Q

416.1. Explain the use of escorts.

A

One escort accompanies the remains form the shipping facility to final destination when the two places are not located in the same locale. The PADD may request a civilian or military “special escort” by name, or request that the AF appoint a military escort. If the Air Force appoints the escort, it must be someone of equal or higher rank than the decedent, but dies not have to be from the same organization. The escort’s travel arrangements start at the place of assignment or residence, proceed to the shipping installation, then on to the final destination and finally return to the place of assignment or residence. Escorts are special or family appointed.

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68
Q

416.2. List the authorized transportation expenses.

A

Any of the following:
() Removal of remains from place of death or the place the remains are released to the mortuary officer then on to the preparing funeral home.
() Delivery of remains by the preparing funeral home to the common carrier.
() Delivery of remains from the common carrier to the receiving funeral home or directly to the government cemetery.
() Delivery of remains from the receiving funeral home to the cemetery.
() Common carrier costs.
() Wooden or lightweight shipping container for caskets (only one authorized, for deaths outside CONUS).
() Consular fees, if required for shipment overseas.

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69
Q

416.3. List three methods of remains shipment within CONUS.

A

Commercial aircraft, hearse or service car, government aircraft.

70
Q

417.1. What is the determinant factor in deciding which mortuary officer will open the case file?

A

Proximity to the death.

71
Q

417.2. What tasks/items must be completed to close the case file.

A

The following in any order.
() Obtain the FLO’s log of events upon completion of their duties and file in the mortuary case file.
() Ensure the Summary Courts Officer forms have been turned in and filed in the Mortuary Case File IAW AFI 32-244.
() Forward the original copy of the mortuary case file to HQ AFSVA/SVOM and maintain a copy of the case file locally. Case files will be retained for three years.

72
Q

418.1. List the three contract monitoring methods.

A

Inspection, customer complaint, HQ AF Mortuary review.

73
Q

418.2. What does the pre-award survey consist of?

A

Survey includes facilities, vehicles and personnel.

74
Q

419.1. List the personnel that are authorized travel and per diem.

A

The following:
() Military or special escorts for deceased military personnel.
() Attendants or guardians to accompany a dependents incapable of traveling alone, such as a minor child, an elderly parent, or a spouse under medical care or with physical limitations.
() HQ AFSVA/SVOM personnel to provide assistance in technical, operational, and administrative matters for the Air force Mortuary Affairs Program.

75
Q

419.2. List the types of burial clothing that may be purchased with the GPC.

A

Either civilian or military, including military ribbons, badges, and insignia, and when necessary, cleaning.

76
Q

420.1. Who has primary responsibility for providing military funeral honors?

A

Base Honor Guard Program.

77
Q

420.2. Describe the minimum funeral honors.

A

Folding and presentation of the American Flag to the decedent’s family and the playing of Taps.

78
Q

420.3. If funeral honor cannot be supported, what agencies maybe contacted?

A

The following in any order:
() Local Air National Guard or Air Reserve Units.
() Other Air Force local base Honor Guards,
() Other DOD Services who can perform MFH ( that is, Army, Navy, Marine Corps), and their major command (MAJCOM)A1S office to ensure the request is supported.

79
Q

420.4. Describe the firing party.

A

The firing party should consist of eight Airmen, seven armed with the M14 rifle and the NCOIC of the firing party (NFP). Honor guard members can not be part of the firing party if they have been disqualified from bearing arms because of administrative or judicial action, or have failed to qualify in pre-marksmanship training. The firing party must qualify in pre-marksmanship training and be trained in safety, proper handling, operation and function, assembly and disassembly and care and cleaning of assigned weapons. The details OIC or NCOIC may provide three spent shells to the family. The NCOIC or the firing party (NFP) must inspect all fired ammunition to ensure any shells provided to the family are in fact spent and not live rounds. Spent rounds must not be placed into the folded flag.

80
Q

421.1. What is the goal of the mortuary affairs program during contingency operations?

A

Ensure remains are returned to CONUS as quickly as possible to preserve remains for identification and preservation of evidence of death.

81
Q

421.2. Where are casualty collection points (CCP) normally located?

A

Near medical facilities.

82
Q

421.3. What are some requirements for site selection of MACP?

A

Separated from the main living and working areas; natural or artificial cover; an access road for vehicles; suffiecent space for processing and holding areas; a perimeter to prevent unauthorized personnel and news media from entering the area; and if there’s a possibility that remains may contain UXOs provide sandbags and revetments for emergency areas of protection and for general blast protection.

83
Q

421.4. If remains are delivered tot he CCP instead of the MACP, who transports them to the MACP?

A

The MACP or the mortuary CCP augmentees.

84
Q

421.5. What items are shipped with remains?

A

All items on the remains, except weapons, munitions, classified documents and hazardous material.

85
Q

421.6. Who signs for the remains on DD Form 1075, Convoy List of Remains of Deceased Personnel?

A

The aircraft commander or vehicle driver must sign for the remains.

86
Q

421.7. How are transfer-case handled on aircraft?

A

Load transfer cases onto the aircraft feet first and turn them once they are inside the aircraft so the remains are stowed in the aircraft with the head towards the nose on the aircraft. Ensure the head is higher than the feet. Do not place other cargo or miscellaneous items, besides other human remains, on top or hum remains. Offload remains feet first.

87
Q

421.8. When is emergency interment authorized?

A

When intense hostilities prevent evacuation of remains and burial is an emergency means of preserving remains or preventing them from falling into enemy hands.

88
Q

421.9. What situations may require temporary interment operations?

A

Weapons of mass destruction, hostilities, transportation shortages, a large number of remains that could overwhelm manpower capabilities, insufficient capability to decontaminate remains, or insufficient refrigerator space.

89
Q

421.10. What are some concerns about the temporary interment site?

A

Site should be level, free of large obstacles, away from main roads and populated areas, not in a flood zone and have adequate soil depth to the water table.

90
Q

421.11. Describe the size of a temporary interment trench used for contaminated remains?

A

6 1/2 ft deep and 80 feet long with 3 feet between trench rows.

91
Q

421.12. When remains that were temporarily interred disinterred; what is done with them?

A

At the earliest possible time remains should be recovered and returned to Dover AFB port mortuary for processing.

92
Q

422.1. What is DOD policy in regards to S & R?

A

Every reasonable effort should be made to identify remains and account for unrecovered remains of US military personnel, employees, contractors, their dependents and other who die in military operation, training mishaps, and other multiple fatality incidents.

93
Q

422.2. What is a FRST and when are they likely needed?

A

Fatality search and recovery team; likely required in incidents with three or more commingled remains.

94
Q

422.3. When marking the location of remains, how do you mark each site?

A

With the appropriate letter designation: R for intact remains and P for partial or fragmented remains. Each letter will be followed by sequential numbering (example, R-1, P-1, P-2) using consecutive recovery numbers for each stake.

95
Q

422.4. What should you do with personal effects?

A

PE found on or associated with the remains are placed in plastic bags and then placed in the same HRP as the remains. All other personal effects (RE) are placed into plastic bags and these are placed into a separate HRP.

96
Q
  1. (413) Which is not a benefit allotted by mortuary expenses?
A

c. Advertisement.

97
Q
  1. (414) Which mortuary program is the preferred method of handling remains during periods of conflict?
A

b. Concurrent return.

98
Q
  1. (414) Who administers the Air Force survivor assistance program (AFSAP)?
A

a. Family liaison officer (FLO)

99
Q
  1. (415) Who will appoint the family liaison officer to assist the deceased member’s family communicate with other support agencies?
A

d. Installation commander.

100
Q
  1. (416) Which transport method is not authorized for movement of member’s remains?
A

a. Personal vehicles.

101
Q
  1. (416) How many escorts are authorized for final shipment of deceased member’s remains if the two places are not located in the same locale?
A

a. One.

102
Q
  1. (417) What form is used as a death confirmation letter if the death occurs overseas?
A

d. DD Form 2065, Death certificate.

103
Q
  1. (417) Who will close the mortuary case file?
A

a. Mortuary officer.

104
Q
  1. (418) Who will complete the DD Form 2063, Record of Preparation and Disposition of Remains?
A

c. Quality assurance evaluator (QAE).

105
Q
  1. (418) Who provides a complete quality control program to assure requirements are met?
A

c. Contractor.

106
Q
  1. (419) Who is responsible for developing a financial plan to govern the payment of mortuary expenses?
A

b. MAJCOM/SV

107
Q
  1. (419) The Government Purchase card (GPC) may be used for what type of expense?
A

a. Primary.

108
Q
  1. (420) Who may waive funeral honors?
A

d. Secretary of Defense (SeCDEF)

109
Q
  1. (420) Who has overall responsibility for the honor guard program?
A

d. Installation commander.

110
Q
  1. (421) Who makes the final determination as to the positive identification of remains and the cause and manner of death?
A

c. Medical examiner.

111
Q
  1. (421) What DD Form is used to inventory personal belongings?
A

c. 1076, Record of Personal effects of Deceased personnel.

112
Q
  1. (422) How many members are on the installation search and recovery team?
A

c. 11.

113
Q
  1. (422) How many days after completion of a search and recovery (S & R) operation are allowed for the mortuary officer to turn in the after action report?
A

b. 30.

114
Q

423.1. What is the first known rule agreed on and recorded concerning protocol?

A
  1. Precedence is the first recorded rule protocol.
115
Q

423.2. What are some examples of official functions?

A

Official meetings and conferences, official promotions, reenlistment and retirement ceremonies, changes of command and reorganization events, and funerals.

116
Q

423.3. What are the installation or base protocol officer responsibilities?

A

Establishes quality protocol programs, identifies requirements, and executes their programs in compliance with AFIs. Protocol officers are responsible for protocol decorum, customs, and courtesies during Air Force ceremonies, conferences and social events; in hosting DVs; and in honors afforded at military funerals.

117
Q

424.1. When is the flag customarily displayed?

A

It is universal custom to display the flag from sunrise to sunset. The flag may be displayed 24 hours for patriotic effect if properly illuminated in the hours of darkness.

118
Q

424.2. Why is it important that we display the flag proudly and properly?

A

The national flag of the United States of America is the most important symbol of our nation’s past and future and it’s important that we not only display it properly too.

119
Q

424.3. The rules for proper use and displayed of the US Flag can be found in what code?

A

United States Code, Title 4.

120
Q

425.1. Define precedence.

A

Precedence is the right to higher honor or priority of importance at a ceremonial or formal occasion.

121
Q

425.2. Before organizing the order of the arrival and departure, to seating, to introductions of distinguished guest in an official function or event; what must accomplished first?

A

Determine the order of precedence first.

122
Q

425.3. Who complies and maintains the Air Force Precedence List?

A

Air Force Protocol Office.

123
Q

425.4. What are DV codes used for?

A

Senior Executive Services (SES) precedence is determined by DV codes.

124
Q

426.1. How will you determine seating at a formal event?

A

Rank precedence forms the basis for making seat assignments.

125
Q

426.2. How is the position of honor determined?

A

This position is usually given to the most senior guest or the guest of honor.

126
Q

426.3. What type of table is preferable to facilitate conversations and offer more position of honor?

A

Round tables.

127
Q

427.1. List at least three types of invitations.

A

Formal, handwritten, letter, e-mail or telephone invitations.

128
Q

427.2. On a military invitation, what symbol should be included to identify the hosting individual?

A

The host’s organizational emblem, star flag, or other symbol.

129
Q

427.3. Once invitations have been sent out, what worksheet should be ready to go and why?

A

The R.S.V.P. worksheet to track responses; they may start coming the same day.

130
Q

428.1. What course is recommended before deploying to a protocol position?

A

The Air Force Institute of Technology Protocol Course at Wright Patterson AFB.

131
Q

428.2. In a joint operation environment, who is responsible for communications functions?

A

J6

132
Q

What is now the norm organization structure in the deployment location?

A

Coalition or combined operations (mission).

133
Q

429.1. What protocol information should be carefully guarded?

A

Information regarding the travel of all DVs.

134
Q

429.2. What offices should be notified in advance when a DV is scheduled to visit your installation?

A

Either Security Forces (SF) or Office of Special investigations (OSI)

135
Q

429.3. When planning for a DV visit and factoring security, what are the key to ensure your success?

A

Coordination and flexibility will be the key to success on your part in these situations.

136
Q

430.1. Why should you always consider the appearance when dealing with funds and gifts?

A

What may be technically legal may be perceived as improper.

137
Q

430.2. How are Official Respresentations Funds (ORF) used?

A

They are intended to uphold the standing and prestige of the United States by extending courtesies to certain officials and dignitaries of the United States and foreign countries.

138
Q

430.3. Define troop money.

A

NAF proceeds for troop-supported activities and base exchanges are frequently referred to as “troop money”

139
Q

431.1. Where does the Air Force get many of its customs, courtesies and traditions?

A

Its parent service, the United States Army.

140
Q

431.2. Explain the priciple “place of honor”

A

The principle that the right side of a person or thing is the position of honor is one of those time honored customs and courtesies passed down from early days. The “right of the line” was the critical side in ancient battle formations and is the place of honor in ceremonies today.

141
Q

431.3. What terms or forms of dress should you avoid when specifying event attire?

A

Term like “smart casual” or “holiday attire”

142
Q

432.1. What should you check before the DVs aircraft arrives?

A

Check with TA, aircraft maintenance or base operations as appropriate to deteremine where the aircraft is or will be parked. Ensure arrival/departure location is clean, clear (od another aircraft) and safe.

143
Q

432.2. How should greeters line up?

A

Right to left facing the door side of the aircraft.

144
Q

432.3. What type of communication equipment should be located in a DV lounge?

A

(1) Local, long distance and DSN phones should be available.
(2) STU should be available, but secure as per local procedures. Provide a key if necessary.
(3) Office equipment. Computer connectivity (docking station, keyboard, mouse, printer are beneficial to have), fax, copier, and printer.

145
Q

433.1. What does protocol normally focus on when supporting conferences?

A

Social events and ensuring certain logisitics matters have been handled (lodging, transportation, meals and social, and so forth).

146
Q

433.2. List some of the most common military ceremonies.

A

(1) Military funerals.
(2) Individual Retirements.
(3) Promotion Ceremonies.
(4) Change of Command Ceremonies.
(5) Re-enlistment Ceremonies.
(6) Awards Ceremonies.

147
Q

433.3. what are the primary responsibilities of being an escort officer?

A

Ensure that the DV’s visit goes as smoothly as possible.

148
Q

434.1. What is the primary rule regurding the use of government vehicles?

A

To use them only for official purposes that further the mission of the Air Force, not for personal reasons, personal business, personal convenience or pleasure at any time.

149
Q

434.2. What is crucial to the success of a visit?

A

Planning.

150
Q
  1. (423) Who determines the distinguished visitor (DV) distinction?
A

d. The Air Force Senior Leader Management Office.

151
Q
  1. (424) What does tradition calls to be displayed at all military ceremonies?
A

a. Flags

152
Q
  1. (424) When carried in a marching procession with another flag or flags, what is the location of the US Flag?
A

a. To the Flags Right.

153
Q
  1. (425) Who determines precedence among foreign representatives?
A

b. The US Department of State.

154
Q
  1. (425) What is the first factor used when determining precedence among officers on active duty?
A

a. Rank.

155
Q
  1. (426) Who sits to the right of the hostess (or host at an all male event)?
A

d. The most senior guest.

156
Q
  1. (426) What are receiving lines frequently used for in the Air Force?
A

c. Greet a new commander and spouse.

157
Q
  1. (427) What is used to follow up a telephone invitation to a military event?
A

d. Written “to remind” invitation.

158
Q
  1. (427) What is spelled out, in plain English on all invitations?
A

a. Date and time of event.

159
Q
  1. (428) Who does the protocol officer work for in a deployed situation?
A

b. The wing commander.

160
Q
  1. (428) What is the basis of protocol authorizations at a deployed unit?
A

000

161
Q
  1. (429) What may cause a distinguished visitor’s (DV) visit to be postponed or canceled?
A

a. Operational security (OPSEC).

162
Q
  1. (430) What is the name of fund from the government that is issued by congress?
A

c. Appropriated funds (NAF).

163
Q
  1. (430) What is the spending limit for mementos when purchased using non appropriated funds (NAF) special morale and welfare (SM&W) expenditures?
A

a. $20.

164
Q
  1. (430) What Air Force instruction (AFI) governs Gifts to the Department of the Air Force?
A

a. AFI 51-601.

165
Q
  1. (431) What is the most embedded item in the military culture?
A

c. Salutes.

166
Q
  1. (431) What location does cutom adn courtesies identify as the first place of honor?
A

b. Right.

167
Q
  1. (432) When flight line access is permitted, how should vehicles approach an aircraft?
A

a. Left side of the aircraft from the rear.

168
Q
  1. (432) Who may required for a flight line departure ceremony?
A

c. Honor Guard.

169
Q
  1. (433) Why do you send out invitations early for a military ceremony?
A

a. To allow sufficient time to respond.

170
Q
  1. (433) Who will make sure the funding unit makes the proper facility or location reservation for military ceremonies?
A

a. Project officer.

171
Q
  1. ( 434) What is the primary rule regarding day to day use of government vehicles?
A

a. For official business only.

172
Q
  1. (434) Normally an office call is for visitors that are what rank in relation to the host?
A

b. Higher.

CDC 3M071B (3 decks)

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