Volume 2B Flashcards

Volume 2B UREs

1
Q

How many kilovolt ampere (KVA) are the constant frequency generators (CFG) 1 and 2 rated at?

A

40.

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2
Q

A constant frequency generator (CFG) comes on line at an input shaft speed between 15,138 and 15,238 revolutions (rotations) per minute (rpm), or about what percent of the proprotor speed (Nr)?

A

71.

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3
Q

At oil temperatures from -54 degrees Celsius (C) to 75 degrees C, the variable frequency generators (VFG) 3 and 4 are rated at how many kilovolt amperes (KVA)?

A

80.

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4
Q

Automatic alternating current (AC) power system control is provided by the

A

generator control units (GCU).

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5
Q

What components of the alternating current (AC) distribution system provide current protection for the suite of integrated radio frequency countermeasures system (SIRFC) and the aircrew eye respirator protection system (AERPS)?

A

Circuit breakers.

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6
Q

What alternating current (AC) distribution system component contains contactors, current sensors, and terminal boards to connect, route, and sense aircraft electrical power?

A

Power distribution panel (PDP).

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7
Q

What rigid conductive materials jumper electrical power to groups of electrical components and are pre-shaped to fit in prescribed positions internal to the panel or flexible wiring within the circuit breaker panels?

A

Bus bars.

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8
Q

Which components are cooled by the avionics cooling system?

A

DC regulated converter (CV) 1 and CV2.

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9
Q

In the direct current (DC) power system, what solid-state device contains the timing, logic circuits, and relay that automatically disconnects the aircraft battery from the ESS/BAT BUS to prevent excess battery drain during ground servicing?

A

Battery relay control unit.

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10
Q

What facilitates the connection/disconnection of the aircraft battery to the MAINT BUS?

A

RCCB 2.

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11
Q

What direct current (DC) power distribution system component provides the bus health monitor function for DC BUS 2, DC BUS 3, and the essential/battery BUS?

A

Avionics bay interface unit (ABIU).

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12
Q

How many feed-through capacitor filters are contained in the direct current (DC) power distribution system?

A

Ten.

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13
Q

What systems are not powered by the external power system?

A

Nacelle ice protection systems.

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14
Q

When external electrical power is connected, but not applied to the aircraft electrical system, the external power box and text is displayed on the cockpit display unit (CDU) as

A

EXT CON.

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15
Q

The numbers used for reference designators in the wiring system for system, subsystem, and sub-sub- system identification are based on the

A

unified numbering system.

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16
Q

In direct current (DC) power, what type of cable wiring uses the airframe ground for power return?

A

Single.

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17
Q

What tracer color is used with the integrated wiring system (IWS) to identify position 1?

A

Orange.

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18
Q

What kind of wire harness consists of both conventional (individually shielded and/or unshielded) wires and integrated wiring system (IWS) wire?

A

Hybrid.

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19
Q

How many zones does the flight compartment primary lighting have?

A

Four.

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20
Q

The three electroluminescent 115 volts alternating current (VAC) lights that provide an alternate lighting source for illuminating the instrument panel are the

A

instrument panel secondary lights.

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21
Q

What flight compartment lighting system mode of operation has the maximum brightness levels set for affected cockpit lights?

A

DAY NORM.

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22
Q

What types of cabin lights are identical and interchangeable? Each light contains two incandescent lamps, on with an opaque lens and one with a green night vision imaging system (NVIS) lens.

A

Dome.

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23
Q

Operating power and intensity control for the passenger compartment dome lighting and passenger compartment panel lighting is provided by the

A

secondary lighting control unit (SLCU).

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24
Q

What is the length, in inches, of the shorter formation lighting units that are installed on the inboard top of each nacelle and on top of each aft wing fairing?

A

9.

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25
Q

Two light-emitting diode (LED) light assemblies that are installed on the tip of each proprotor blade are

A

visible from the top and the bottom.

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26
Q

During night vision imagine system (NVG) mode of operation, which anitcollision light(s) is disabled?

A

Bottom anticollision light.

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27
Q

How many degrees must the search/landing lights be extended before they can be turned on?

A

10.

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28
Q

What component provides interface and control for charging power and system logic control for the emergency egress lighting system (EELS)?

A

Signal conditioning box.

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29
Q

What is the minimum time, in minutes, that a fully charged 24 volts direct current (VDC) battery pack contained in the emergency egress lighting system (EELS) control boxes is capable of providing sufficient power to illuminate several emergency egress lighting assemblies?

A

Ten.

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30
Q

When the 28 volts direct current (VDC) is removed (power removed from the aircraft), how long will the countdown timer maintain the emergency egress lighting system (EELS) control box in an extended operational state?

A

One hour.

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31
Q

The lighting control system, through the primary lighting control unit (PLCU), provides operating power and intensity controls for

A

external lights (position, anticollision, formation, proprotor tip, in-flight refueling).

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32
Q

The primary lighting control panel OVHD (overhead) lighting control potentiometer provides luminance control for zones

A

3 and 4.

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33
Q

CPLT lighting control intensity of the left main console panel lights increases when the knob is

A

rotated clockwise.

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34
Q

What environmental protection system provides the intake, particle filtration, and high velocity movement of compressed air for use by the environmental control unit (ECU)?

A

Compression.

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35
Q

What is one of the components responsible for unloading the shaft driven compressor (SDC) during the auxiliary power unit (APU) start up?

A

Hydraflow surge valve.

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36
Q

Controlled by a two-position solenoid valve, the shaft driven compressor (SDC) inlet guide vane is what kind of unit?

A

Hydraulic-pneumatic.

37
Q

The shaft driven compressor (SDC) oil filter assembly differential oil pressure pop-out is set for how many pounds per square inch differential (PSID)?

38
Q

What provides a path for compressed air from the shaft driven compressor (SDC) surge valve outlet to be exhausted overboard?

A

Surge valve outlet duct.

39
Q

What component will provide unfiltered ambient air to the cockpit and cabin in the event of environmental control unit (ECU) failure?

A

Emergency vent fan.

40
Q

What kind of filter elements does the inlet particle separator (IPS) filter assembly filters contain?

A

Two paper fabric internal throw away.

41
Q

What provides partially conditioned air to the onboard oxygen generating system (OBOGS)/onboard inert gas generator system (OBIGGS), avionics cooling, and the wing pneumatic deice system?

A

Environmental control unit (ECU).

42
Q

What environmental control unit (ECU) subcomponent consists of a single platinum element, hermetically sealed in a probe-type housing?

A

Compressor temperature sensor.

43
Q

Oxygen (O2) tubes are labeled with tape that identifies oxygen tubes with the legend BREATHING OXYGEN and a

A

green band followed by a band of rectangle symbols.

44
Q

Nitrogen (N2) tubes are labeled with tape that identifies nitrogen tubes with the legend PNEUMATIC and a

A

blue and orange band of continuous X-formed lattice.

45
Q

How many pneumatically operated engine nacelle pneumatic detector assemblies are attached to each nacelle?

46
Q

The optical detectors located in the wing aft covers, midwing area, and the dry bays each have a cone field of how many degrees?

47
Q

Within 35 milliseconds after the fire has fully developed, the optical detector will detect a ten in hydrocarbon pan fire located a maximum distance of how many feet from each detector?

48
Q

The fire extinguishing system gas generators suppressors discharge makes up less than what percentage of solid agent?

49
Q

To extinguish a fire resulting from an incendiary round through the forward spar, the explosion suppression system uses powder panel assemblies that contain

A

an aluminum oxide suppressant.

50
Q

In inches, approximately what is the amount of chordwise coverage that the poprotor blade leading edge anti-ice parting strip provides?

51
Q

How many heater zones does each blade deice distributor (BDD) switch power serially to?

52
Q

In the ice protection control system (IPCS), what component activates the deice cycle when the ice thickness on any surface reaches a preprogrammed limit?

A

Master ice protection controller (MIPC).

53
Q

In what mode, do the ice detectors sense the presence of icing conditions and the anti-icing and deicing is accomplished automatically with no pilot action required?

54
Q

At up to what speed in knots, are the windshield wipers and washer operational?

55
Q

In strokes per minute, what are the two speeds of each windshield washer motor assembly?

A

120 (low speed) and 180 (high speed).

56
Q

If the wipers are off when WASHER is selected, how long is the time delay, in seconds, that occurs between the WASHER and WIPER ON commands to prevent wiper operation on a dry windshield?

57
Q

What component is designed to reduce rotor-induced vibrations and provide anti-ice protection for the proprotor blade assemblies?

A

Pendulum damper assemblies.

58
Q

What hydraulic system (s) provide 5,000 pounds per square inch (psi) for blade fold/wing stow system indexing and stowing operations?

59
Q

The planetary assembly is mounted in each

A

proprotor blade.

60
Q

What are the indications on the two pairs of wing lock pin safety flags to show the lock pins are disengaged?

A

Each flag is half black and half white.

61
Q

Proprotor normal nacelle blower vibration sensors monitor what component’s vibrations?

A

Proprotor and nacelle blower.

62
Q

How many levels of adjustment will the vibration structure life and engine diagnostic (VSLED) will calculate for rotor smoothing?

63
Q

The pylon driveshaft transfers power from the proprotor gearbox to what major assembly?

A

Tilt axis gearbox (TAGB).

64
Q

What system transfers power between gearboxes under one engine inoperative (OEI) conditions?

A

Interconnecting shafting system (ISS).

65
Q

What type of adapter allows for a more solid connection between a driveshaft and its couplings?

66
Q

What additional component in the left proprotor gear box (PRGB) provides for the counter-rotation of the proprotors?

A

Idler gear.

67
Q

How many debris sensors are in each proprotor gearbox (PRGB)?

68
Q

What is the maximum flow rate, in gallons per minute (gpm) for the proprotor gearbox (PRGB)?

69
Q

If the dual stage oil filter in the tiltaxis gearbox (TAGB) becomes clogged, what component will ensure oil is supplied to the TAGB?

A

Single stage oil filter assembly.

70
Q

What component engages and disengages the auxiliary power unit (APU)?

A

Integral overrunning clutch.

71
Q

What midwing gearbox (MWGB) oil component vents the gearbox to the atmosphere to equalize internal and external case pressure?

72
Q

The emergency lubrication system (ELS) oil is not recycled, but passed overboard through what component(s)?

A

Dump valve.

73
Q

To deliver oil to the low side of the proprotor gearbox (PRGB), what emergency lubrication system (ELS) component does the drive system interface unit (DSIU) sends a signal to?

74
Q

The AE1107C basic engine consists of four major assemblies: the power turbine assembly, the torque meter assembly, the accessory drive gearbox, and what other major component?

A

Gas generator assembly.

75
Q

What component’s output torque does the torquemeter assembly measure and transmit to the proprotor gearbox (PRGB)?

A

Power turbine.

76
Q

What is suctioned through two hydraulically driven blowers to the engine air particle separator (EAPS) and discharged overboard?

77
Q

How many seconds does it take the engine air particle separator (EAPS) to cycle from “EAPS OFF” to “EAPS AUTO” or “EAPS ON?”

78
Q

What kind of fuel filter is housed in the fuel pump assembly?

A

Disposable 25-micron.

79
Q

Prior to working on ignition system components, as a minimum, how long, in minutes, must the required circuit breakers be open for?

80
Q

In the compressor acceleration bleed system, compressed air of what compressor stage of the engine is allowed to bleed off during engine start to aid in compressor stall/surge prevention?

81
Q

During emergency engine shutdown, the full authority digital electronic (engine) control (FADEC) keeps what valve de-energized to prevent the flow of air into the nacelle?

A

Compressor acceleration bleed control solenoid valve (ABC valve).

82
Q

The engine oil tank assembly provides oil at a flow rate of 5.5 gallons per minute (gpm) to what component for lubrication of the engine accessory gearbox?

83
Q

What does a static cyclonic separator do in the engine lubrication system?

A

Separate air from the oil.

84
Q

The oil tank assembly ensures adequate delivery of oil to the engine by the oil pump for sea level up to an altitude of how many feet?

85
Q

For identification purposes, what color is the engine monitoring system’s (EMS) electrical harness color-coded?

86
Q

A controlled engine shutdown occurs if a temperature rise does not occur within how many seconds of initiating the engine start sequence?

87
Q

What is the maximum number of seconds the auxiliary power unit (APU) can operate in CRANK mode?

88
Q

The auxiliary power unit (APU) starter is what kind of motor?

A

High speed.

89
Q

How many light emitting diodes (LED) are on the front of the auxiliary power unit (APU) built-in-test (BIT) display unit (BDU)?