Volume 2A Flashcards
Volume 2A UREs
How are engine nacelles on the CV-22 Osprey positioned so it can be controlled as a conventional fixed wing aircraft?
Horizontally.
The component that can be rotated 90 degrees to facilitate towing, parking, and jacking in a reduced space environment is the
turret mounted wing.
What role system kit provides a means for rapidly inserting personnel into areas in which the aircraft is unable to land?
FAST ROPE.
The three fuselage interface/splice areas within the four structural systems are the
forward-to-mid fuselage; mid-to-aft fuselage, and aft fuselage-to-empannage.
The E3s that the exterior access panels are designed to protect the aircraft from are
all of the above. (EMI, HPMR, NEMP)
How many pounds per square foot is the cabin floor limit load?
300.
How many independent troop seat release mechanisms are in the cabin compartment?
Three.
The graphite/epoxy composite component that acts to minimize the airflow disturbances created by the rotor blades while ion AIRPLANE MODE is the
vortex control device.
Which assembly is used for daily maintenance to provide access to the hydraulic ground support pan assembly and allow for the attachment of hydraulic ports for maintenance purposes?
Hydraulic ground service door.
Which mount assembly provides a means for attaching the nacelle structure to the proprotor gearboxes, transmission adapters, and conversion spindles?
Nacelle.
The mode of operation that a solenoid operated lock pin engages the main cabin door aft latch to prevent opening the door when there is no WOW and the nacelle angle is less than 45 degrees is
SAFETY INTERLOCK.
In the ramp fold down position, wheeled cargo cannot exceed a maximum weight of
5,000 pounds or 300 pounds per square foot.
The pilot and copilot seats adjust in 11 steps through a range of
five inches vertically and three inches longitudinally.
Which assembly prevents recoil of the seat due to the elastic energy released at the conclusion of a crash-induced seat stroke?
Anti-rebound.
What configuration has the proprotor blades folded toward the fuselage; the nacelles rotated to the horizontal position; and the wing rotated 90 degrees (left nacelle over the nose of the aircraft and right nacelle over the empennage)?
FULL STOW.
What configuration has the proprotor blades fully extended; the nacelles rotated to the vertical position; and the wing rotated perpendicular to the fuselage?
HELICOPTER MODE.
Which digit of the four-digit numbering system that identifies access panels and doors on the Osprey provides a more detailed location of the panel/door within the zone?
Third.
What component acts to hold the lower cabin door in place to prevent rotor wash from throwing the door back into the closed position against the aircraft?
Down lock.
While both cabin doors have normal opening/closing mechanisms, what is the only door that is given emergency opening provisions?
Upper.
Emergency egress for the pilots is facilitated by the cockpit side windows, which are configured with explosive escape separators. These explosive escape separators are also known as
fast burn.
To avoid partially blocking the associated escape hatch after the escape hatch is separated from the aircraft using the external initiator, what handle must be actuated manually to release the associated troop seats?
Seat release.
The primary composite material used on the Osprey is
GR/EP.
During normal operation, the radiation hazard area of the operating multifunction radar for personnel is
100 feet forward and +/-60 degrees of the nose of the aircraft.
In the HELICOPTER MODE, the variable arc (in feet), and height (in feet) of the proprotors above the ground or deck is
16 to 20 (variable arc), 20 to 22 (height).
With the aircraft in a hover at 10 feet above the ground or deck, the exhaust temperature about five feet above the deck can exceed how many degrees Fahrenheit above ambient temperature?
100.
Once the nose gear down-lock safety pin is activated by a pop-out handle on the right side of the aircraft nose, what prevents inadvertent reset of the handle?
A removable down-lockpin with “remove before flight” flag.
The equipment that is strictly prohibited from use for purging oxygen systems is
aircraft nitrogen servicing trailers.
If the aircraft is fully fueled and the entire left nacelle is removed, the wing rotation condition that will cause a right tipover condition is from 0 to
20 degrees.
What is the maximum total weight limit, in pounds, that may be on the empennage at any one time?
1,200.
What term that is associated with inspections refers to a definite amount, operation, or limitation that has been established and is contained in applicable directives?
Specified.
What type of phase inspection will be performed at 630 aircraft hours?
C.
What is the maximum amount of time that a phase inspection may be performed early or extended to meet mission requirements?
10 percent (21 hours).
What type of inspection employs a logical walk-around sequence to ensure coverage of the lower and upper aircraft surfaces and the cockpit?
Preflight.
What type of inspection is to be accomplished upon the accrual of a specified number of flying hours, equipment hours of operation, a lapse of calendar time, or after occurrence of a specified or unusual condition?
Special.
What does it mean when units of equipment are replaced upon accrual of a specified number of flying hours, equipment hours of operation, a lapse of calendar time, or units of any other specific measurement base?
Removal of the item and installation of a serviceable item in its place.
The automated history system that will be used in place of AFTO Form 95 to document significant historical events on aircraft, engines, aerospace ground equipment (AGE), and armament equipment is the
maintenance information system.
All aircraft fuel servicing/defueling operations will be performed in accordance with local activities supplemental instructions and
NAVAIR 00-80T-109.
What component controls and monitors ground fuel system servicing?
GRDP.
During normal operations, the maximum fuel cell fill rate in gallons per minute when using the GRAVITY FILL mode is
100.
Except for the refuel close connection point, what method of refueling is similar to aerial refueling?
Hover in-flight.
The GRDP provides for all ground refuel and defuel modes, a basic display of fuel system status, and
total fuel quantity, indications of low oil levels, and basic display of fuel system failures.
What mode of operation does the GRDP operate in?
ON.
What MLG component provides damping and shock absorbing of forces created during landing or ground maneuvring, static load distribution, and dynamic load distribution?
Shock strut.
What backup safety mechanism is manually installed to prevent accidental landing gear retraction and to facilitate post-flight servicing and maintenance for the internal drag strut actuator locks?
Ground lockpin.
What system on the NLG provides the means to raise the nose of the aircraft during ground maintenance and towing of the aircraft?
Hike.
What does it mean if the NLG proximity switches determine the target is far?
NLG is on the ground.
What powers the landing gear and extend/retract tricycle configuration?
Hydraulic system 2.
About how much pressure in psi is the emergency extension system pneumatic reservoir charged, when the temperature is 70 degrees F?
2800.
Without hydraulic power applied to the steering unit, the nose gear can swivel how many degrees?
360.
What components convert the mechanical inputs to electrical signals and provide nose wheel steering movement information to the FCCs?
CCPT.
If the landing gear has not been extended, the landing gear control lever handle flashes whenever the aircraft is below
200 feet AGL in altitude and less than 60 knots forward airspeed.
What prevents wheel brake assembly rotation?
Torque lug bushing.
What parking brake component applies hydraulic pressure separately to the MLG left and right wheels and brakes and retains hydraulic pressure for parking brake engagement?
Transfer module.
What type of maintenance pump provides hydraulic pressure to recharge the back-up brake accumulator and provide pressure to operate the cargo ramp system?
Electric motor driven hydraulic.
Operation of the wheel and brake system in POWERED mode, hydraulic system 3 supplies how much pressure in psi to the pressure reducer?
5000.
What independent hydraulic system(s) provide hydraulic power to the Osprey?
Hydraulic system 1, 2, and 3.
Hydraulic actuator control to induce roll is provided by the
flaperons.
During ground operations, what facilitates fluid between hydraulic system 3 and hydraulic systems 1 and 2?
Fluid compensation valves.
What hydraulic component stores fluid displaced by actuated components and filters supply and return?
Flight control module.
What component is incorporated into the flight control module to maintain 5000 psi of pressure during system startup and shutdown to prevent pump cavitation?
Accumulator.
What valve assembly, in the hydraulic flight control module, that has a flat-face poppet microseal design, is jam free high, and prevents system pressure back flow into the hydraulic pump pressure line?
High flow check valve.
What flight control module component is used to shuttle the additional hydraulic fluid gained by hydraulic system 1 during APU clutch and ground check out operations back into hydraulic system 3?
Fluid compensation valve.
What flight control module component regulates hydraulic fluid temperature by providing a maximum pressure-to-return leak path flow of up to 2 gpm, when fluid temperature is below 40 degrees Fahrenheit, to rapidly heat up the hydraulic system fluid and maximize hydraulic sstem operation?
Thermal control valve module.
During ground operations prior to start-up, what hydraulic system provides 5000 psi hydraulic pressure to all three hydraulic systems?
Hydraulic system 3.
What flight control utility module 3 component shuts off hydraulic fluid to the utility system in the fuselage, including the landing gear, brakes, winch/hoist, and cargo ramp wile the aircraft is in flight?
Utility isolation valve.
Under what conditions will a pressure/temperature bypass valve internal to the MWGB heat exchanger route hydraulic fluid bypass the heat exchanger?
Temperatures below 150 degrees F, or differential pressure above 40 psi.
When using the electric motor/pump, or when using hydraulic system 3, the cargo ramp and door opening and closing times take about how many seconds?
30 to 60 for the pump, 12 for system 3.
What functions does the PFCS combine to transmit pilot or copilot inputs to components that control the aircraft?
Mechanical, electronic, and hydraulic.
Utilizing signals from the FCCs, what components provide a motorized autotrim/autopilot function and displace the mechanical flight controls accordingly?
CCFDAs.
The lateral mass balance bellcrank assembly reduces the effects of PIOs by the counterweight action of what component?
Bellcrank.
The link assembly configuration of cyclic system mechanical control adjustable rod end provides course adjustments of
1/2 turn - 180 degrees.
With simultaneous blade pitch changes, what component transmits a PDS to the FADEC to increase or decrease engine power accordingly?
FCC.
In AIRPLANE MODE, yaw directional control is accomplished by displacing what component?
The rudders.
What aluminum yaw interconnect assembly provides a connection for coordination of yaw control mechanical assemblies that are located between the left and right yaw pedal assemblies?
Bellcrank.
What kind of device is the yaw pedal adjust mechanism assembly that is designed for ergonomically repositioning the left and right yaw and brake pedals?
Electromechanical.
What status display provides and overview of flight control surfaces, hydraulic system pressures, and FCCs?
CDU.
Which panel has the capability to activate and/or reset the AFCS, adjust individual engine torque values, and engage backup HPDUs on the conversion actuators?
Flight control.
How many degrees are the flaps set to, when the flap control panel lever is set at F (Full)?
72.5.
How many active and inactive (spare) torque sensors are there for each proprotor mast?
Three active sensors and three inactive (spare) sensors.
What is the maximum percent of surface hinge movement that the left, right, and center elevator servo actuators are capable of supplying?
50.
What hydraulic system powers each section of the swashplate actuators?
A and B: system 1, C: system 2.
In pounds, what is the individual and combined load capacity of the external cargo system?
10,000 (individual), 15,000 (combined).
With the doors open, the cargo hook external doors must be latched open prior to flight when the speed will be above how many knots?
80.
What assembly is used to mechanically release both cargo hooks in the event of electrical failure of the external cargo hook system?
External manual release assembly.
When hydraulic pressure is not applied, the rescue hoist hydraulic brake is capable of holding a maximum load of how many pounds?
1500.
What provides for the activation of the reel-out limit switch and the reel-in speed reduction switch to stop the hoist with 250 feet of cable remaining?
Cyclocentric mechanism.
In feet, the three standards lengths of the fast rope are
60, 90, and 120.
What part of the Osprey fuselage is the cargo ramp fast rope trapeze assembly attached to?
Cargo ramp actuator beam.
In psig, at what pressure is the enriched N2 environment kept in the fuel cells to provide a fire and explosion suppressive environment?
One to two.
What fuel distribution pumps are controlled by the FMU to provide a continuous flow of fuel to the feed cells during flight?
Suction lift pumps.
In an emergency, what provides an external path for fuel being jettisoned?
Jettison tube assembly.
Using the fuel dump system, what is minimum pounds-per-minute rate that fuel can be discharged through the jettison tube assembly?
800.
Wat normally closed valve in the fuel dump system is commanded open to allow fuel to flow out of the jettison tube assembly?
Jettison shutoff valve.
What is the only component in each of the auxiliary fuel cells indication systems?
Fuel quantity probe.
What is the primary stability and attachment point for the aerial refueling probe assembly?
Aluminum fitting fastened to the anti-plow bulkhead fitting.
What component provides control and monitoring of fuel CG management system operation for the left side of the aircraft, and monitoring of the low level sensor in the left feed tank?
FMU 1 (left FMU).
What is the fuel capacity, in gallons, of a MATS assembly?
430.
What component prevents the top portion of the MATS bladder from contacting the container and creates an air cavity around the bladder?
Spacer ring.
What tape uses a magnetic float and marked tape to verify a MATS assembly has been completely filled with fuel?
Fuel fill indicating tape.
